JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2 solutions will be available on this page soon after the examination results are out. Students can access the JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2 solved paper on this page. Each of these questions has been answered by the expert teachers at BYJU’S. All the questions are answered with in-depth explanations. Students can also download JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2 with solutions in PDF form from this page.
JEE Advanced 2022 Physics Question Paper 2 with Solutions
SECTION – 1 (Maximum marks : 24)
∙ This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.
∙ The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 0 TO 9, BOTH INCLUSIVE.
∙ For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
∙ Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 If the question is unanswered;
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
1. A particle of mass 1 kg is subjected to a force which depends on the position as
Answer (3)
Sol. Fx = – x = max.
So
and
at t = 0,
So
and
and
Similarly
Fy = – y = may.
So, y = Ay sin(ωt + φy) (ω = 1 rad/s)
and
at t = 0, y = √2 m and vy = √2 m/s
So
and
So, (xvy – yvx)
= 3
2. In a radioactive decay chain reaction,
Answer (2)
Sol. Let number of α particles are nα and β particles are nβ so
4nα = 230 – 214
⇒ nα = 4
nβ = 84 – (90 – 2nα)
nβ = 2
So
3. Two resistances R1 = X Ω and R2 = 1 Ω are connected to a wire AB of uniform resistivity, as shown in the figure. The radius of the wire varies linearly along its axis from 0.2 mm at A to 1 mm at B. A galvanometer (G) connected to the center of the wire, 50 cm from each end along its axis, shows zero deflection when A and B are connected to a battery. The value of X is _______.
Answer (5)
Sol. Resistance of frustum shaped conductor shown is
For the shown conductor in the diagram.
thus, the resistance of left half is
and the resistance of right half is
for Wheatstone to be balanced
⇒ X = 5
4. In a particular system of units, a physical quantity can be expressed in terms of the electric charge e, electron mass me, Planck’s constant h, and Coulomb’s constant
Answer (4)
Sol. [B] = [e]α [me]β [hγ] [k]δ
[M1T–2I–1] = [IT]α [M]β [ML2T–1]γ [ML3T–4]δSo, β + γ + δ = 1 …(i)
2γ + 3δ = 0 …(ii)
α – γ – 4δ = –2 …(iii)
α – 2δ = –1 …(iv)
On solving
so, α + β + γ + δ = 4
5. Consider a configuration of n identical units, each consisting of three layers. The first layer is a column of air of height h = ⅓ cm, and the second and third layers are of equal thickness
Answer (4)
Sol.
and,
⇒ θ2 = 45°
⇒ x2 = d
and,
⇒ θ3 = 30°
6. A charge q is surrounded by a closed surface consisting of an inverted cone of height h and base radius R, and a hemisphere of radius R as shown in the figure. The electric flux through the conical surface is
Answer (3)
Sol.
φ through cone
∴ n = 3
7. On a frictionless horizontal plane, a bob of mass m = 0.1 kg is attached to a spring with natural length l0 = 0.1 m. The spring constant is k1 = 0.009 Nm–1 when the length of the spring l > l0 and is k2 = 0.016 Nm–1 when l < l0. Initially the bob is released from l = 0.15 m. Assume that Hooke’s law remains valid throughout the motion. If the time period of the full oscillation is T = (n π) s, then the integer closest to n is _______.
Answer (6)
Sol.
= 5.83π
8. An object and a concave mirror of focal length f = 10 cm both move along the principal axis of the mirror with constant speeds. The object moves with speed V0 = 15 cm s–1 towards the mirror with respect to a laboratory frame. The distance between the object and the mirror at a given moment is denoted by u. When u = 30 cm, the speed of the mirror Vm is such that the image is instantaneously at rest with respect to the laboratory frame, and the object forms a real image. The magnitude of Vm is _____ cm s–1.
Answer (3)
Sol.
= 3 cm/s
SECTION – 2 (Maximum marks : 24)
∙ This section contains SIX (06) questions.
∙ Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
∙ For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
∙ Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : + 2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
9. In the figure, the inner (shaded) region A represents a sphere of radius rA = 1, within which the electrostatic charge density varies with the radial distance r from the center as ρA = kr, where k is positive. In the spherical shell B of outer radius rB, the electrostatic charge density varies as ρB =2k/r. Assume that dimensions are taken care of. All physical quantities are in their SI units.
Which of the following statement(s) is/(are) correct?
(A) If
(B) If
(C) If rB = 2, then the total charge of the configuration is 15πk.
(D) lf
Answer (B)
Sol.
If
If
(B) is correct
If rB = 2
= 13πk
Option (C) is incorrect
If
10. In Circuit-1 and Circuit-2 shown in the figures, R1 = 1 Ω, R2 = 2 Ω and R3 = 3 Ω.
P1 and P2 are the power dissipations in Circuit-1 and Circuit-2 when the switches S1 and S2 are in open conditions, respectively.
Q1 and Q2 are the power dissipations in Circuit-1 and Circuit-2 when the switches S1 and S2 are in closed conditions, respectively.
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?
(A) When a voltage source of 6 V is connected across A and B in both circuits, P1 < P2
(B) When a constant current source of 2 Amp is connected across A and B in both circuits, P1 > P2
(C) When a voltage source 6 V is connected across A and B in Circuit-1, Q1 > P1
(D) When a constant current source of 2 Amp is connected across A and B in both circuits, Q2 < Q1
Answer (A, B, C)
Sol.
When S1 and S2 are open
Option (A) is correct.
⇒ If 2 A source is used in both the cases.
P1 > P2
Option (B) is correct
For Q1
P1 = 24.75 W
Q1 > P1
Option (C) is correct.
For option (D)
Q2 > Q1
Option (D) is incorrect.
11. A bubble has surface tension S. The ideal gas inside the bubble has ratio of specific heats γ = 5/3. The bubble is exposed to the atmosphere and it always retains its spherical shape. When the atmospheric pressure is Pa1, the radius of the bubble is found to be r1 and the temperature of the enclosed gas is T1. When the atmospheric pressure is Pa2, the radius of the bubble and the temperature of the enclosed gas are r2 and T2, respectively.
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?
(A) If the surface of the bubble is a perfect heat insulator, then
(B) If the surface of the bubble is a perfect heat insulator, then the total internal energy of the bubble including its surface energy does not change with the external atmospheric pressure.
(C) If the surface of the bubble is a perfect heat conductor and the change in atmospheric temperature is negligible, then
(D) If the surface of the bubble is a perfect heat insulator, then
Answer (C, D)
Sol. S : Surface tension
When,
For adiabatic process
___________________
For option (B) Total internal energy + surface energy will not be same as word done by gas will be there.
Option (B) is incorrect.
For option (C)
Option (C) is correct
12. A disk of radius R with uniform positive charge density σ is placed on the xy plane with its center at the origin. The Coulomb potential along the z-axis is
A particle of positive charge q is placed initially at rest at a point on the z-axis with z = z0 and z0 > 0. In addition to the Coulomb force, the particle experiences a vertical force
(A) For
(B) For
(C) For
(D) For β > 1 and z0 > 0, the particle always reaches the origin.
Answer (A, C, D)
Sol.
Uz = cz
At z = 0,
At z = z0 = 25/7 R, β = ¼
At z = z0 = 3/7 R, β = ¼
⇒ In option (A) particle reaches at origin with positive kinetic energy
⇒ In option B at U(z)net
⇒ The kinetic energy at origin will become negative
⇒ In option (C),
And
⇒ Particle will return back to z0.
In option (D) (β > 1 and z0 > 0)
U(z)net will keep on increasing with z
⇒ Particle always reaches the origin.
⇒ Answer (A, C, D)
13. A double slit setup is shown in the figure. One of the slits is in medium 2 of refractive index n2. The other slit is at the interface of this medium with another medium 1 of refractive index n1 (≠ n2). The line joining the slits is perpendicular to the interface and the distance between the slits is d. The slit widths are much smaller than d. A monochromatic parallel beam of light is incident on the slits from medium 1. A detector is placed in medium 2 at a large distance from the slits, and at an angle θ from the line joining them, so that θ equals the angle of refraction of the beam. Consider two approximately parallel rays from the slits received by the detector.
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?
(A) The phase difference between the two rays is independent of d.
(B) The two rays interfere constructively at the detector.
(C) The phase difference between the two rays depends on n1 but is independent of n2.
(D) The phase difference between the two rays vanishes only for certain values of d and the angle of incidence of the beam, with q being the corresponding angle of refraction.
Answer (A, B)
Sol.
AB = (d)(tanθ)
and BC = AB sinα = (d) (tanθ)(sinα)
Also, AD = AB sinθ
⇒ Path difference (in vaccum)
= n1BC – n2AD
= n1(AB) sinα – n2(AB sinθ)
= AB (n1 sinα – n2 sinθ) = 0
⇒ (A), (B) are correct
(C), (D) are incorrect.
14. In the given P–V diagram, a monoatomic gas (γ = 5/3) is first compressed adiabatically from state A state B. Then it expands isothermally from state B to state C. [Given :
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?
(A) The magnitude of the total work done in the process A → B → C is 144 kJ.
(B) The magnitude of the work done in the process B → C is 84 kJ.
(C) The magnitude of the work done in the process A → B is 60 kJ.
(D) The magnitude of the work done in the process C → A is zero.
Answer (B, C, D)
Sol.Pvγ = c
= – 60 kJ
⇒ (C) is correct
C → A is isochoric ⇒ (D) is correct
BC : WBC
= 79 kJ
⇒ (A) & (B) are not correct.
SECTION – 3 (Maximum marks : 12)
∙ This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
∙ Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
∙ For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
∙ Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
15. A flat surface of a thin uniform disk A of radius R is glued to a horizontal table. Another thin uniform disk B of mass M and with the same radius R rolls without slipping on the circumference of A, as shown in the figure. A flat surface of B also lies on the plane of the table. The center of mass of B has fixed angular speed ω about the vertical axis passing through the center of A. The angular momentum of B is nMωR2 with respect to the center of A. Which of the following is the value of n?
(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 7/2
(D) 9/2
Answer (B)
Sol. Angular momentum of B with respect to center of A
Comparing the magnitude with nMωR2
n = 5
16. When light of a given wavelength is incident on a metallic surface, the minimum potential needed to stop the emitted photoelectrons is 6.0 V. This potential drops to 0.6 V if another source with wavelength four times that of the first one and intensity half of the first one is used. What are the wavelength of the first source and the work function of the metal, respectively? [Take hc/e = 1.24 × 10–6 J m C–1.]
(A) 1.72 x 10–7 m, 1.20 eV
(B) 1.72 x 10–7 m, 5.60 eV
(C) 3.78 x 10–7 m, 5.60 eV
(D) 3.78 x 10–7 m, 1.20 eV
Answer (A)
Sol.
= 1.72 × 10–7 m
⇒ from equation (i)
17. Area of the cross-section of a wire is measured using a screw gauge. The pitch of the main scale is 0.5 mm. The circular scale has 100 divisions and for one full rotation of the circular scale, the main scale shifts by two divisions. The measured readings are listed below.
Measurement condition | Main scale reading | Circular scale reading |
---|---|---|
Two arms of gauge touching each other without wire | 0 division | 4 divisions |
Attempt-1: With wire | 4 divisions | 20 divisions |
Attempt-2: With wire | 4 divisions | 16 divisions |
What are the diameter and cross-sectional area of the wire measured using the screw gauge?
(A) 2.22 ± 0.02 mm, π (1.23 ± 0.02) mm2
(B) 2.22 ± 0.01 mm, π (1.23 ± 0.01) mm2
(C) 2.14 ± 0.02 mm, π (1.14 ± 0.02) mm2
(D) 2.14 ± 0.01 mm, π (1.14 ± 0.01) mm2
Answer (C*) (Bonus declared by JEE)
Sol.Reading-1
MSR = 4 × 0.5 = 2 mm
Zero error
R1 = MSR + CSR – (Zero error)
= (2 + 0.20 – 0.04) mm
= 2.16 mm
Reading-2
MSR = 2 mm
CSR = 0.16 mm
Zero error = 0.04 mm
R2 = (2 + 0.16 – 0.04) mm = 2.12 mm
Reading/average
Average mean error
⇒ Diameter = (2.14 ± 0.02) mm = d (say)
Area
18. Which one of the following options represents the magnetic field
(A)
(B)
(C)
Answer (C)
Sol.Bnet = Bsemicircle + Bquarter + Bstraight
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