JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2 solutions will be available on this page soon after the examination results are out. Students can access the JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2 solved paper on this page. Each of these questions has been answered by the expert teachers at BYJU’S. All the questions are answered with in-depth explanations. Students can also download JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2 with solutions in PDF form from this page.

JEE Advanced 2022 Physics Question Paper 2 with Solutions

SECTION – 1 (Maximum marks : 24)

∙ This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.

∙ The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 0 TO 9, BOTH INCLUSIVE.

∙ For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.

∙ Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;

Zero Marks : 0 If the question is unanswered;

Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.

1. A particle of mass 1 kg is subjected to a force which depends on the position as

F=k(xi^+yj^)kgms2
with k = 1 kg s–2. At time t = 0, the particle’s position
r=(12i^+2j^)m and its velocity  v=(2i^+2j^+2πk^)ms1.
Let vx and vy denote the x and the y components of the particle’s velocity, respectively. Ignore gravity. When z = 0.5 m, the value of (xvyyvx) is _______ m2s–1.

Answer (3)

Sol. Fx = – x = max.

So

ax=d2xdt2=x
x=Axsin(ωt+ϕx)
(ω = 1 rad/s)

and

vx=Axωcos(ωt+ϕx)

at t = 0,

x=12m
and
vx=2 m/s

So

12=Axsinϕx

and

2=Axcosϕx
tanϕx=12.(1)

and

Ax=52m.(2)

Similarly

Fy = – y = may.

d2ydt2=y

So, y = Ay sin(ωt + φy) (ω = 1 rad/s)

and

vy=Ayωcos(ωt+ϕy)

at t = 0, y = √2 m and vy = √2 m/s

So

2=Aysinϕ

and

2=Aycosϕ
ϕ=π4
and Ay = 2 (3 and 4).

So, (xvyyvx)

=52sin(ωt+ϕx)×2cos(ωt+ϕy)2sin(ωt+ϕy)×52cos(ωt+ϕx)
=52×2(sin(ωt+ϕx)cos(ωt+ϕy)sin(ωt+ϕy)×cos(ωt+ϕx)
=10sin(ϕxϕy)
=10(sinϕxcosϕycosϕxsinϕy)
=10(15×12(25)×12)

= 3

 

2. In a radioactive decay chain reaction,

90230Th nucleus decays into 84214Po nucleus.
The ratio of the number of α to number of β particles emitted in this process is _______.

Answer (2)

Sol. Let number of α particles are nα and β particles are nβ so

4nα = 230 – 214

nα = 4

nβ = 84 – (90 – 2nα)

nβ = 2

So

nαnβ=2

 

3. Two resistances R1 = X Ω and R2 = 1 Ω are connected to a wire AB of uniform resistivity, as shown in the figure. The radius of the wire varies linearly along its axis from 0.2 mm at A to 1 mm at B. A galvanometer (G) connected to the center of the wire, 50 cm from each end along its axis, shows zero deflection when A and B are connected to a battery. The value of X is _______.

JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2 Q3

Answer (5)

Sol. Resistance of frustum shaped conductor shown is

JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2 A3 (i)

R=ρlπab

For the shown conductor in the diagram.

JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2 A3 (ii)

r=a+b2=0.2+12=0.6

thus, the resistance of left half is

P=ρ×0.5×106π×0.2×0.6

and the resistance of right half is

Q=ρ×0.5×106π×0.6×1

for Wheatstone to be balanced

R1P=R2Q
X π×0.2×0.6ρ×0.5×106=1 π×0.6×1ρ×0.5×106

X = 5

 

4. In a particular system of units, a physical quantity can be expressed in terms of the electric charge e, electron mass me, Planck’s constant h, and Coulomb’s constant

k=14πε0,
where ε0 is the permittivity of vacuum. In terms of these physical constants, the dimension of the magnetic field is [B] = [e]α [me]β [h]γ [k]δ. The value of α + β + γ + δ is ______.

Answer (4)

Sol. [B] = [e]α [me]β [hγ] [k]δ

[M1T–2I–1] = [IT]α [M]β [ML2T–1]γ [ML3T–4]δ

So, β + γ + δ = 1 …(i)

2γ + 3δ = 0 …(ii)

α – γ – 4δ = –2 …(iii)

α – 2δ = –1 …(iv)

On solving

so, α + β + γ + δ = 4

 

5. Consider a configuration of n identical units, each consisting of three layers. The first layer is a column of air of height h = ⅓ cm, and the second and third layers are of equal thickness

d=312cm, and refractive indices μ1=32 and μ2=3,
 respectively. A light source O is placed on the top of the first unit, as shown in the figure. A ray of light from O is incident on the second layer of the first unit at an angle of θ = 60° to the normal. For a specific value of n, the ray of light emerges from the bottom of the configuration at a distance
l=83cm,
as shown in the figure. The value of n is _______.

JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2 Q5

Answer (4)

Sol.

JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2 A5

x1=13×tan60=13cm

and,

1×32=32×sinθ2

⇒ θ2 = 45°

x2 = d

and,

1×32=32×sinθ2

⇒ θ3 = 30°

x3=d3
x1+x2+x3=13+(31)2(1+13)
=23cm
n=lx1+x2+x3=8/32/3=4

 

6. A charge q is surrounded by a closed surface consisting of an inverted cone of height h and base radius R, and a hemisphere of radius R as shown in the figure. The electric flux through the conical surface is

nq6ε0 (in SI units).
  The value of n is _________.

JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2 Q6

Answer (3)

Sol.

JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2 A6

φ through cone

=q2ε0

n = 3

 

7. On a frictionless horizontal plane, a bob of mass m = 0.1 kg is attached to a spring with natural length l0 = 0.1 m. The spring constant is k1 = 0.009 Nm–1 when the length of the spring l > l0 and is k2 = 0.016 Nm–1 when l < l0. Initially the bob is released from l = 0.15 m. Assume that Hooke’s law remains valid throughout the motion. If the time period of the full oscillation is T = (n π) s, then the integer closest to n is _______.

Answer (6)

Sol.

JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2 A7

ω1=k1m and ω2=k2m
Time period=πmk1+πmk2
=π0.10.009+π0.10.016
=π0.3+π0.4
=π×(4+312)×10
=7012π

= 5.83π

 

8. An object and a concave mirror of focal length f = 10 cm both move along the principal axis of the mirror with constant speeds. The object moves with speed V0 = 15 cm s–1 towards the mirror with respect to a laboratory frame. The distance between the object and the mirror at a given moment is denoted by u. When u = 30 cm, the speed of the mirror Vm is such that the image is instantaneously at rest with respect to the laboratory frame, and the object forms a real image. The magnitude of Vm is _____ cm s–1.

JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2 Q8

Answer (3)

Sol.

JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2 A8

m=fuf
=103010=12
(V0Vm)×m2Vm=0
(V0Vm)×14=Vm
V0=5Vm
Vm=V05
=155

= 3 cm/s

 

SECTION – 2 (Maximum marks : 24)

∙ This section contains SIX (06) questions.

∙ Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).

∙ For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).

∙ Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;

Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;

Partial Marks : + 2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are correct;

Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option;

Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);

Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.

 

9. In the figure, the inner (shaded) region A represents a sphere of radius rA = 1, within which the electrostatic charge density varies with the radial distance r from the center as ρA = kr, where k is positive. In the spherical shell B of outer radius rB, the electrostatic charge density varies as ρB =2k/r. Assume that dimensions are taken care of. All physical quantities are in their SI units.

JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2 Q9

Which of the following statement(s) is/(are) correct?

(A) If

rB=32,
then the electric field is zero everywhere outside B.

(B) If

rB=32,
then the electric potential just outside B is
kε0.

(C) If rB = 2, then the total charge of the configuration is 15πk.

(D) lf

rB=52,
then the magnitude of the electric field just outside B is
13πkε0.

Answer (B)

Sol.

JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2 A9

QTotal=0rAkr(4πr2)dr+rArB2kr(4πr2)dr
=4πk4rA4+8πk2(rB2rA2)
=πk+4πk(rB2rA2)

If

rB=32
QTotal=πkrA4+4πk(32rA2)
=πk+4πk(321)
=πk+2πk=3πk

If

rB=32
QTotal=πk+4πk(941)
=πk+4πk(54)=6πk
V=14πε06πkrB=3k223ε0=kε0

(B) is correct

If rB = 2

QTotal=πk+4πk(41)

= 13πk

Option (C) is incorrect

If

rB=52
QTotal=πk+4πk(2541)
=πk+πk(21)
=22πk
E=14πε022πk25×4
=22k25ε0

 

10. In Circuit-1 and Circuit-2 shown in the figures, R1 = 1 Ω, R2 = 2 Ω and R3 = 3 Ω.

P1 and P2 are the power dissipations in Circuit-1 and Circuit-2 when the switches S1 and S2 are in open conditions, respectively.

Q1 and Q2 are the power dissipations in Circuit-1 and Circuit-2 when the switches S1 and S2 are in closed conditions, respectively.

JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2 Q10

Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?

(A) When a voltage source of 6 V is connected across A and B in both circuits, P1 < P2

(B) When a constant current source of 2 Amp is connected across A and B in both circuits, P1 > P2

(C) When a voltage source 6 V is connected across A and B in Circuit-1, Q1 > P1

(D) When a constant current source of 2 Amp is connected across A and B in both circuits, Q2 < Q1

Answer (A, B, C)

Sol.

JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2 A10

When S1 and S2 are open

(Req)1=1+5×125+12=1+511=1611
P1=V2Req=(6)216×11=36×1116=24.75W
(Req)2=611Ω
P2=V2Req=(6)26×11=36×116=66W
P2>P1

Option (A) is correct.

⇒ If 2 A source is used in both the cases.

P1=i2(Req)1=(2)2×1611=6411=5.818W
P2=i2(Req)2=(2)2×611=2411=2.1818W

P1 > P2

Option (B) is correct

For Q1

Req=511Ω
Q1=V2Req=(6)2511=36×115=79.2W

P1 = 24.75 W

Q1 > P1

Option (C) is correct.

For option (D)

Q1=i2Req=(2)2×511=2011=1.81W
Q2=i2Req=(2)2×12=42=2W

Q2 > Q1

Option (D) is incorrect.

 

11. A bubble has surface tension S. The ideal gas inside the bubble has ratio of specific heats γ = 5/3. The bubble is exposed to the atmosphere and it always retains its spherical shape. When the atmospheric pressure is Pa1, the radius of the bubble is found to be r1 and the temperature of the enclosed gas is T1. When the atmospheric pressure is Pa2, the radius of the bubble and the temperature of the enclosed gas are r2 and T2, respectively.

Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?

(A) If the surface of the bubble is a perfect heat insulator, then

(r1r2)5=Pa2+2Sr2Pa1+2Sr1

(B) If the surface of the bubble is a perfect heat insulator, then the total internal energy of the bubble including its surface energy does not change with the external atmospheric pressure.

(C) If the surface of the bubble is a perfect heat conductor and the change in atmospheric temperature is negligible, then

(r1r2)3=Pa2+4Sr2Pa1+4Sr1

(D) If the surface of the bubble is a perfect heat insulator, then

(T2T1)52=Pa2+4Sr2Pa1+4Sr1

Answer (C, D)

Sol. S : Surface tension

JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2 A11

When,

JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2 A11 (ii)

For adiabatic process

P1V1γ=P2V2γ
(Pa1+4Tr1)(43πr13)53=(Pa2+4Tr2)(43πr23)53
(r1r2)5=(Pa2+4Tr2)(Pa1+4Tr1)

___________________

T1V1γ1=T2V2γ1
T2T1=(V1V2)γ1=(r1r2)3(23)
(T2T1)=(Pa2+4Tr2Pa1+4Tr1)25

For option (B) Total internal energy + surface energy will not be same as word done by gas will be there.

Option (B) is incorrect.

For option (C)

P1V1=P2V2
(Pa1+4Tr1)(43πr13)=(Pa2+4Tr2)(43πr23)
(r1r2)3=(Pa2+4Tr2Pa1+4Tr1)

Option (C) is correct

 

12. A disk of radius R with uniform positive charge density σ is placed on the xy plane with its center at the origin. The Coulomb potential along the z-axis is

V(z)=σ20(R2+z2z)

A particle of positive charge q is placed initially at rest at a point on the z-axis with z = z0 and z0 > 0. In addition to the Coulomb force, the particle experiences a vertical force

F=c k^ with c>0. Let β=2c0qσ.
 Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?

(A) For

β=14 and z0=257R,
the particle reaches the origin.

(B) For

β=14 and z0=37R,
the particle reaches the origin.

(C) For

β=14 and z0=R3,
the particle returns back to z = z0

(D) For β > 1 and z0 > 0, the particle always reaches the origin.

Answer (A, C, D)

Sol.

V(z)=σ20(R2+z2z)

Uz = cz

U(z)net=σq20(R2+z2z)+cz
=c[σq2c0(R2+z2z)+z]
=c[4R2+z23z]atβ=14

At z = 0,

β=14
U(z)net=c[4R]=4Rc.(i)

At z = z0 = 25/7 R, β = ¼

U(z)net=c[4×26R73×25R7]=297Rc.(ii)

At z = z0 = 3/7 R, β = ¼

U(z)net=c[4×587R9R7]3Rc.(iii)
At z=R3 β=14
U(z)net=c[8R33R3]2.887Rc

⇒ In option (A) particle reaches at origin with positive kinetic energy

dU(z)dz=0atz=3R7
atβ=14andz=3R7
U(z)net=7Rc=2.645

⇒ In option B at U(z)net

3Rc

⇒ The kinetic energy at origin will become negative

atz=R3

⇒ In option (C),

U(z)netatz=R3<U(z)net
at z = 0,

And

U(z)netatz=R3>U(z)netatz=3R7

⇒ Particle will return back to z0.

In option (D) (β > 1 and z0 > 0)

U(z)net will keep on increasing with z

⇒ Particle always reaches the origin.

⇒ Answer (A, C, D)

 

13. A double slit setup is shown in the figure. One of the slits is in medium 2 of refractive index n2. The other slit is at the interface of this medium with another medium 1 of refractive index n1 (≠ n2). The line joining the slits is perpendicular to the interface and the distance between the slits is d. The slit widths are much smaller than d. A monochromatic parallel beam of light is incident on the slits from medium 1. A detector is placed in medium 2 at a large distance from the slits, and at an angle θ from the line joining them, so that θ equals the angle of refraction of the beam. Consider two approximately parallel rays from the slits received by the detector.

JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2 Q13

Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?

(A) The phase difference between the two rays is independent of d.

(B) The two rays interfere constructively at the detector.

(C) The phase difference between the two rays depends on n1 but is independent of n2.

(D) The phase difference between the two rays vanishes only for certain values of d and the angle of incidence of the beam, with q being the corresponding angle of refraction.

Answer (A, B)

Sol.

JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2 A13

AB = (d)(tanθ)

and BC = AB sinα = (d) (tanθ)(sinα)

Also, AD = AB sinθ

⇒ Path difference (in vaccum)

= n1BCn2AD

= n1(AB) sinα – n2(AB sinθ)

= AB (n1 sinα – n2 sinθ) = 0

⇒ (A), (B) are correct

(C), (D) are incorrect.

 

14. In the given PV diagram, a monoatomic gas (γ = 5/3) is first compressed adiabatically from state A state B. Then it expands isothermally from state B to state C. [Given :

(13)0.60.5,In20.7
].

JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2 Q14

Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?

(A) The magnitude of the total work done in the process ABC is 144 kJ.

(B) The magnitude of the work done in the process BC is 84 kJ.

(C) The magnitude of the work done in the process AB is 60 kJ.

(D) The magnitude of the work done in the process CA is zero.

Answer (B, C, D)

Sol.Pvγ = c

100(0.8)5/3=300(v)5/3
VB=0.833/5
WAB=PAVAPBVB531=80300×0.833/52/3 kJ
=80240(0.5)2/3kJ

= – 60 kJ

⇒ (C) is correct

CA is isochoric ⇒ (D) is correct

BC : WBC

=nRTlnV2V1=PVlnV2V1
=300×0.8×0.5ln(0.80.833/5)
=24033/5ln(33/5)
=120×35ln3 kJ

= 79 kJ

⇒ (A) & (B) are not correct.

 

SECTION – 3 (Maximum marks : 12)

∙ This section contains FOUR (04) questions.

∙ Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.

∙ For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.

∙ Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;

Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);

Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.

15. A flat surface of a thin uniform disk A of radius R is glued to a horizontal table. Another thin uniform disk B of mass M and with the same radius R rolls without slipping on the circumference of A, as shown in the figure. A flat surface of B also lies on the plane of the table. The center of mass of B has fixed angular speed ω about the vertical axis passing through the center of A. The angular momentum of B is nMωR2 with respect to the center of A. Which of the following is the value of n?

JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2 Q15

(A) 2

(B) 5

(C) 7/2

(D) 9/2

Answer (B)

Sol. Angular momentum of B with respect to center of A

L=LCM+LBodyaboutCM
=M(2R)2ωk^+MR22(ωbody)k^
=M(2R)2ωk^+MR22(2ω)k^
=5MR2ωk^

Comparing the magnitude with nMωR2

n = 5

 

16. When light of a given wavelength is incident on a metallic surface, the minimum potential needed to stop the emitted photoelectrons is 6.0 V. This potential drops to 0.6 V if another source with wavelength four times that of the first one and intensity half of the first one is used. What are the wavelength of the first source and the work function of the metal, respectively? [Take hc/e = 1.24 × 10–6 J m C–1.]

(A) 1.72 x 10–7 m, 1.20 eV

(B) 1.72 x 10–7 m, 5.60 eV

(C) 3.78 x 10–7 m, 5.60 eV

(D) 3.78 x 10–7 m, 1.20 eV

Answer (A)

Sol.

hνϕ=6 eV
hcλϕ=6eV.(i)
hc4λϕ=0.6 eV
3hc4λ=5.4 eV
λ=3hc4×5.4 eV=3×1.24×1064×5.4

= 1.72 × 10–7 m

⇒ from equation (i)

hc1.72×107×11.6×1019ϕ=6 eV
2×10252.75×1026ϕ=6
ϕ=(7.276)1.2 eV

 

17. Area of the cross-section of a wire is measured using a screw gauge. The pitch of the main scale is 0.5 mm. The circular scale has 100 divisions and for one full rotation of the circular scale, the main scale shifts by two divisions. The measured readings are listed below.

Measurement condition Main scale reading Circular scale reading
Two arms of gauge touching each other without wire 0 division 4 divisions
Attempt-1: With wire 4 divisions 20 divisions
Attempt-2: With wire 4 divisions 16 divisions

What are the diameter and cross-sectional area of the wire measured using the screw gauge?

(A) 2.22 ± 0.02 mm, π (1.23 ± 0.02) mm2

(B) 2.22 ± 0.01 mm, π (1.23 ± 0.01) mm2

(C) 2.14 ± 0.02 mm, π (1.14 ± 0.02) mm2

(D) 2.14 ± 0.01 mm, π (1.14 ± 0.01) mm2

Answer (C*) (Bonus declared by JEE)

Sol.Reading-1

MSR = 4 × 0.5 = 2 mm

CSR=1100×20=0.20 mm

Zero error

=1100×4=0.04mm

R1 = MSR + CSR – (Zero error)

= (2 + 0.20 – 0.04) mm

= 2.16 mm

Reading-2

MSR = 2 mm

CSR = 0.16 mm

Zero error = 0.04 mm

R2 = (2 + 0.16 – 0.04) mm = 2.12 mm

Reading/average

=R1+R22
= 2.14 mm = Rm (say)

Average mean error

=|RmR1|+|RmR2|2
= 0.02 mm

⇒ Diameter = (2.14 ± 0.02) mm = d (say)

Area

=πd24
dA=2πd4(Δd)
ΔAreaπ(0.02)
Area=πd24±ΔArea=π(1.14±0.02)mm

 

18. Which one of the following options represents the magnetic field

B
at O due to the current flowing in the given wire segments lying on the xy plane?

JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2 Q18

(A)

B=μ0IL(32+142π)k^

(B)

B=μ0IL(32+122 π)k^

(C)

B=μ0IL(1+142π)k^
(D)
B=μ0IL(1+14π)k^

Answer (C)

Sol.Bnet = Bsemicircle + Bquarter + Bstraight

=μ0I4(L2)+μ0I8×(L4)+μ0I4π×L(12)(k^)
=(μ0I2L+μ0I2L+μ0I42πL)(k^)
=μ0IL(1+142π)(k^)

 

Download PDF of JEE Advanced 2022 Physics Question Paper 2 & Solutions

JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2
JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2
JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2
JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2
JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2
JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2
JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2
JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2
JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2
JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2
JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2
JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2
JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2
JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2
JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2
JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2
JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2
JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2
JEE Advanced Question Paper 2022 Physics Paper 2

JEE Advanced 2022 Paper 2 – Live Analysis and Solutions

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Frequently Asked Questions – FAQs

Q1

What was the Class-wise distribution of Physics questions in JEE Advanced 2022 Physics Paper 2?

In JEE Advanced 2022 Physics Paper 2, 6 questions were asked from class 11 and 12 from the class 12 syllabus.
Q2

Was the JEE Advanced 2022 Physics question paper 2 challenging?

The questions asked in the JEE Advanced 2022 Physics question paper 2 were easy to medium to answer.
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What was the overall difficulty level of Physics Paper 2 in the JEE Advanced 2022 question paper?

The overall difficulty level of Physics Paper 2 in the JEE Advanced 2022 question paper can be stated as 2.11 on a scale of 3.
Q4

From which chapters are easy questions asked in the JEE Advanced 2022 Physics paper 2?

The chapters from which the easy questions asked in the JEE Advanced 2022 Physics question paper 2 are: Nuclei, System of Particles and Rotational Motion, Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
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There are three sections in the Chemistry part of JEE Advanced 2022 paper 2, and candidates can attempt the questions based on their choice.

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