Chattisgarh 2020-21 NTSE Stage 1 Answer Key & Question Paper With Solutions

Question 2. a, Z, f, U, k, P, _ , K, u, F

a. p
b. e
c. x
d. M

Answer: (a)

Question 3. _ bc _ y x d e f w _ u _ h i t s r

a. a z x g
b. a d v g
c. a z v g
d. a d g v

Answer: (c)

abc / zyx / def / wvu / ghi / tsr

Question 4. a b _ _ a b b _ a b _ a

a. b a a b
b. a b a b
c. a b b a
d. a a b b

Answer: (a)

Repeating pattern: abba

Series: abba / abba / abba

Question 5. ACEY, BDFX, CAZF, DBYG, CEGW,____, ECXH

a. DFHY
b. FDWG
c. WGEC
d. DFHV

Answer: (d)

Question 6. 5, 11, 24, 51, 106, ____

a. 206
b. 207
c. 211
d. 217

Answer: (d)

Question 7. 99, 120, 143, 168, ____

a. 196
b. 197
c. 198
d. 195

Answer: (d)

Question 8. 2, 5, 7, 4, 7, 11, 6, 9, 15, 8, ____, ____

a. 11, 17
b. 10, 19
c. 11, 19
d. 13, 21

Answer: (c)

Question 9. 20DE, 3AC, 8BD, __ HI

a. 72
b. 5
c. 24
d. 110

Answer: (a)

D × E = 4 × 5 = 20
A × C = 1 × 3 = 3
B × D = 2 × 4 = 8
H × I = 8 × 9 = 72

Question 10. DF4, HK9, MR25, P__81

a. R
b. Y
c. X
d. L

Answer: (b)

(F – D)² = 2² = 4
(K – H)² = 3² = 9
(R – M)² = 5² = 25
(Y – P)² = 9² = 81

Direction (Q. No.11 to Q.No.13) :

In the given questions two words/terms are given in the left of :: sign. They have a certain relationship between them. The same relationship exists between the word/term given to the right of :: sign and one of the given alternatives. Choose the correct alternative.

Question 11. Mango : Fruit :: Physics 😕

a. Science
b. Knowledge
c. Machine
d. Book

Answer: (a)

Mango is a type of fruit and thus is a subset of fruit. Similarly, Physics is a science subject and is a subset of Science.

Question 12. R s T : t S r : : P q R : ?

a. P q r
b. P Q r
c. r Q P
d. R q P

Answer: (c)

Question 13. Area : Square : : Volume : ?

a. Rectangle
b. Circle
c. Cylinder
d. Square

Answer: (c)

Volume is measured for 3D solids. So here it is cylinder.

Direction (Q.No. 14 to Q.No. 15): In the group of words given below all except one, share a common similarity. Select the odd one:

Question 14.

a. Carrot
b. Radish
c. Garlic
d. Brinjal

Answer: (d)

All except brinjal grow underground.

Question 15.

a. Mumbai
b. Bhopal
c. Karnataka
d. Hyderabad

Answer: (c)

Karnataka is a state while Mumbai, Bhopal and Hyderabad are all capital of states.

Question 16. If in a code language “ R A N D O M “ is coded as “UDQGRP”’, then “CORONA” will be coded as :

a. FRTRQU
b. FRURQD
c. ANDRCO
d. OCORAN

Answer: (b)

Direction (Q.No. 17 to Q.No 18): If in a certain code language :

I. ‘Mango is sweet’ is written as ‘han man run’

Question 17. Ionization energy increases from left to right across a period because:

a. Less energy is required to release electrons from the outer shell.
b. Nuclear attraction decreases on electrons
c. Nuclear attraction increases on electrons
d. Atomic size increases gradually.

Answer: (c)

Ionisation energy increases from left to right across a period because the nuclear attraction increases on electrons. As we proceed from left to right in a period, the atomic number increases.

Thus, there is a significant increment in the nuclear charge and also the electrons across a period are present in the same shell. The valence electrons thus are held strongly by the higher effective nuclear charge. Thus, Ionization energy increases from left to right across a period.

Question 18. Element X loses one electron, element Y gains one electron and forms the compound XY. Which of the following is the property of the compound:

a. Soluble in water
b. Possess low melting point
c. Is a liquid
d. Bad conductor of electricity

Answer: (a)

The type of compound formed by the losing and gaining of electrons are called Ionic compounds.

Ionic compounds have a high melting point due to the presence of strong electrostatic forces of attraction between the constituents of the compound. They are solids at room temperature and are good conductors of electricity in the molten state or in an aqueous solution.

The polar water molecules have a strong affinity for charged ions and the charged ions become solvated as they dissociate in the water. Thus, ionic compounds are soluble in water.

Question 19. Which of the following elements would lose an electron easily?

a. Na
b. CI
c. F
d. O

Answer: (a)

The elements present to the extreme left side of the periodic table tend to lose electrons easily as losing an electron will give them a stable octet configuration. Thus, sodium will lose an electron easily.

Question 20. What would be the electronic configuration of a positively charged magnesium ion (Mg²⁺)?

a. 2, 8, 2
b. 2, 8
c. 2, 8, 4
d. 2, 8, 8

Answer: (b)

The atomic number of Magnesium is 12. The electronic configuration of magnesium in its neutral state is 2, 8, 2. When Mg → Mg⁺², the 2 outermost electrons leave and the electronic configuration becomes (2, 8).

Question 21. Which one of the following metals does not corrode easily?

a. Iron
b. Copper
c. Magnesium
d. Platinum

Answer: (d)

Metals corrode naturally when they react with air, moisture, and saltwater. Iron. copper and magnesium react with the mentioned factors and produce their respective oxides, causing corrosion. Platinum which is the least reactive metal of all forms a protective film of oxide which isolates the metal from the environment, thus reducing the rate of corrosion.

Question 22. The number of molecules present in 8.0 g of oxygen molecule will be:

a. 2.011 × 10²³
b. 3.011 × 10²³
c. 1.505 × 10²³
d. 6.022 × 10²³

Answer: (c)

In 32 gram of oxygen = 6.022 × 10²³ number of oxygen molecules are present.

⇒ 1 gram of oxygen = 6.022 × 10²³ / 32 number of oxygen molecules

⇒ 8 gram of oxygen = [ (6.022 × 10²³ / 32 ) ✕ 8] number of oxygen molecules

= 1.505 × 10²³ number of molecules

Question 23. Which of the following hydrocarbon contains a triple bond?

a. C₃H₄
b. C₂H₆
c. C₃H₆
d. C₃H₈

Answer: (a)

The hydrocarbon consisting of a triple bond is propyne( C₃H₄).

Question 24. In blast furnace, Fe₂O₃ is reduced to Fe by:

a. C
b. CO
c. SiO₂
d. CaCO₃

Answer: (b)

The reduction of Fe₂O₃ to Fe in a blast furnace is done by carbon monoxide (CO).

Fe₂O₃(s) + 3CO(g) → 2Fe(s) + 3CO₂(g)

Question 25. The atomic number of four elements P, Q, R, and S are 6, 10, 12, and 17 respectively. Which two elements can combine to form a covalent compound:

a. P and R
b. Q and S
c. P and S
d. R and S

Answer: (c)

A covalent compound is formed by the sharing of electrons between the constituents of the compound. Element P, Q, R and S with atomic number 6, 10, 12 and 17 are carbon, Neon, Magnesium and chlorine respectively.

Covalent bonds are usually formed between non -metals. Thus, element P and S will share electrons amongst themselves to form a covalent compound.

Question 26. The formula of aluminium nitride is AIN, then the formula of magnesium nitride will be:

a. MgN
b. MgN₂
c. Mg₃N₂
d. Mg₂N₃

Answer: (c)

The valency of nitride is 3 while that of magnesium is 2. Thus Mg₃N₂ will be the formula of the compound formed by magnesium and nitride(by crossing over the valencies).

BIOLOGY

Question 27. Secondary consumer in the following is:

a. Cat
b. Rat
c. Foodgrains (Crops)
d. Tiger

Answer: (a)

A food chain consists of various trophic levels connected as follows:

Producers → Primary consumer → Secondary consumer → Tertiary consumer

Here, in this case, the food chain will look like:

Foodgrains (crops) → Rat → Cat → Tiger

Hence, cat is the secondary consumer.

Question 28. Lack of oxygen in muscles leads to the formation of this acid in the body:

a. Lactic Acid
b. Acetic Acid
c. Pyruvic Acid
d. Hydrochloric Acid

Answer: (a)

Lack of oxygen in the muscles results in anaerobic respiration and this leads to the formation of lactic acid.

Question 29. ‘B’ and ‘T’ Cells are:

a. Erythrocytes
b. Lymphocytes
c. Plastocytes
d. Blastocytes

Answer: (b)

Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cells present in the blood and lymph of our body. They are responsible for adaptive or acquired immunity. B and T cells are types of lymphocytes.

Question 30. The Astronauts on the moon can not talk with each other because of:

a. Very low temperature on moon
b. Very much noise on moon
c. The atmosphere on moon
d. No atmosphere on the moon

Answer: (d)

Moon does not have an atmosphere, i.e. no air. Sound can only travel in a material medium and not in vacuum, that is why astronauts cannot talk to each other on the Moon.

Question 31. Tuberculosis is:

a. Long term disease (chronic)
b. Non-contagious disease
c. Acute disease
d. Urgent disease

Answer: (a)

Tuberculosis is a chronic disease caused by bacteria and spreads from person to person through air. TB usually affects the lungs and affects for the long term (more than 3-5 months).

Question 32. In which category will you keep electronic wastes and plastics?

a. Non-biodegradable
b. Biodegradable
c. In both (a & b) Categories
d. Not in both (a & b) Categories

Answer: (a)

Electronic waste and plastics cannot be degraded by the action of natural decomposers. They are usually recycled or are incinerated. Hence, electronic waste and plastics are kept under non-biodegradable waste category.

Question 33. Hybridization method is adopted for:

a. Prevention of plants from pests
b. More production of eggs
c. Development of new irrigation methods
d. Development of species of desired characters

Answer: (d)

Hybridisation is the process of combining two genetically different varieties and producing a progeny with the desired set of characteristics.

Question 34. Main objective of family planning is:

a. Keep control on fertility rate
b. Proper gap between two child
c. Healthy mother and child
d. All of the above

Answer: (d)

Family planning ensures control on birth rate, control on fertility rates, ensures proper gaps between two children and keeps the mother and child healthy.

Question 35. ‘World ozone day’ is celebrated on:

a. 01 December
b. 16 September
c. 07 April
d. 05 June

Answer: (b)

World Ozone day is celebrated on 16th September, every year. It was designated by the United Nations General Assembly as the International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone layer.

Question 36. Which one of the following organism whose have characters of animal and plants both:

a. Euglena
b. Amoeba
c. Algae
d. Mushroom

Answer: (a)

Euglena has characters of both animals and plants. They are capable of carrying out autotrophic nutrition (photosynthesis) under sunlight due to the presence of chlorophyll and become heterotrophic in the absence of light.

Question 37. Identify the unmatched pairs:

a. Trypsin – Pancreas
b. Amylase – Saliva
c. Bile – Liver
d. Pepsin – Esophagus

Answer: (d)

Pepsin is a proteolytic enzyme produced by the peptic cells present in the gastric glands of the stomach.

Question 38. The wings of a housefly and the wings of a sparrow are an example of:

a. Analogous organ
b. Vestigial organ
c. Respiratory organ
d. Homologous organ

Answer: (a)

Analogous organs are organs that have different origins but similar functions. They are evidence for convergent evolution. Wings of housefly are made up of membranes, while wings of a sparrow are made of feathers and bones. Both of them have different origins but they both help in flight.

Question 39. Identify the unmatched pairs:

a. Cuscuta – Autotrophic
b. Plantae – Autotrophic
c. Fungi – Saprophytic
d. Animalia – Heterotrophic

Answer: (a)

Cuscuta is a parasitic plant as it lacks chlorophyll. It is a creeper and feeds on the host plant.

Question 40. The brain is responsible for:

a. Thinking
b. Regulating the heartbeat
c. Balancing the body
d. All of the above

Answer: (d)

The brain is the highest seat of coordination in the body. It does all the involuntary functions like regulating heartbeat, breathing rates, digestion etc., and voluntary functions like movement, balancing, motor-speech etc., it is the information processing, and thinking centre of the body.

Question 42. If x = ay, y = bx, the value of 1 / a + 1 + 1 /1 + b =?

a. 0
b. 1
c. x + y
d. 1 / x + y

Answer: (b)

Question 43. If α and β are the zeros of the polynomial f(x) = x² – 5x + k such that α – β =1, then the value of k is

a. 6
b. 2
c. 3
d. 0

Answer: (a)

For a given quadratic equation ax² + bx + c = 0,

Sum of roots = -b / a; Product of roots = c / a

For f(x) = x² – 5x + k

Sum of roots, α + β = -(-5) / 1

= α + β = 5……….(1)

Given: α – β = 1….(2)

Solving the equations (1) and (2), We get, α = 3, β = 2

Product of the roots, αβ = k

3 × 2 = k

K = 6

Question 44. The difference of the squares of two natural numbers is 101. The sum of their squares is equal to:

a. 5000
b. 5100
c. 5101
d. 5102

Answer: (c)

Let the two natural numbers be a and b.

Given: a² – b² = 101

(a + b)(a – b) = 101 x 1 (Factorising 101)

a + b = 101

a – b = 1

Solving the equations:

a = 51

b = 50

So, a² + b² = 51² + 50² = 2601 + 2500 = 5101

Question 45. Prashant has to pay Rs. 482 for 19 apples and 11 guavas. If he would have exchanged the number of apples and guavas purchased then he would have paid Rs. 64 less. Find how much more amount he has to pay to purchase one apple than one guava?

a. Rs. 7
b. Rs. 8
c. Rs. 11
d. Rs. 13

Answer: (b)

Let the price of 1 apple and 1 guava be ₹ x and ₹ y respectively.

From the give information:

19x + 11y = 482 …(i)

11x + 19y = (482 – 64) = 418 …(ii)

Subtracting (ii) from (i)

8x – 8y = 64

x – y = Rs. 8

The difference in prices of 1 apple and 1 guava is Rs. 8. So he has to pay ₹8 more to buy an apple than a guava.

Question 46. If x² – x – 1 = 0 then the value of x³ – 2x + 1 is:

a. 0
b. 2
c.

Question 47. In a right angled triangle the hypotenuse is to be 1 cm longer than the base and 2 cm longer than the altitude, then the perimeter of the triangle is:

a. 24 cm
b. 20 cm
c. 12 cm
d. 10 cm

Answer: (c)

Let the length of the hypotenuse be ‘a’.

So, the length of the base and altitude are (a – 1) and (a – 2) in cm, respectively.

By Pythagoras theorem, (a – 1)² + (a – 2)² = a²

a² – 2a + 1 + a² – 4a + 4 = a²

a² – 6a + 5 = 0

a² – 5a – a + 5 = 0

a(a – 5) – (a – 5) = 0

(a – 5)(a – 1) = 0

a = 5 (a = 1 is ignored since the other sides cannot be in negative.)

So, the sides of the right-angled triangle are 5 cm, 4 cm and 3 cm.

Perimeter of the triangle = 5 + 4 + 3 = 12 cm.

Question 48. If x% of y is equal to 1% of z, y% of z is equal to 1%, of x and z% of x is equal to 1% of y then the value of xy + yz + zx is:

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

Answer: (c)

Given: x% of y = 1% of z. So, xy / 100 = z / 100 ⇒ xy = z

Given: y% of z = 1% of x. So, yz / 100 = x / 100 ⇒ yz = x

Given: z% of x = 1% of y. So, zx / 100 = y / 100 ⇒ zx = y

Substituting x = yz in the equation xy = z

y²z = z ⇒ y = 1

Applying the value of y in other equations we get x = 1and z = 1

So, xy + yz + zx = 1 + 1 + 1 = 3

Note: The above solution is based on a corrected question statement.

Question 49. A tower is 100 √3m high. The angle of elevation of its top from a point 100 m away from its foot is:

a. 60^o
b. 45^o
c. 30^o
d. 22 ½ ^o

Answer: (a)

Let the angle of elevation be ø.

Then, tanθ = Altitude / Base = 100√3/100 = √3

tanθ = √3

θ = 60^o

Question 50. Two dice are thrown at the same time. Then the probability of getting the total of at least 8 is:

a. 5/6
b. 5/12
c. 5/18
d. 5/36

Answer: (b)

Total number of possible outcomes when two dice are thrown together = 6 x 6 = 36

Total of at least 8 can be obtained in the following ways:

8 – (2,6), (6,2), (3,5), (5,3), (4,4) – 5 ways

9 – (3,6), (6,3), (4,5), (5,4) – 4 ways

10 – (4,6), (6,4), (5,5) – 3 ways

11 – (5,6), (6,5) – 2 ways

12 – (6,6) – 1 way

Total number of favourable ways = 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 15

Question 51. If the coordinate of two opposite vertices of square are (a, b) and (b, a) then the area of the square is:

a. (a+b)²
b. 2(b+a)²
c. (a-b)²
d. 2(b-a)²

Answer: (c)

Question 52. The ratio of the volume of the cube to that of a sphere which exactly fits inside the cube is:

a. 6 : 𝜋
b. 𝜋 : 6
c. 12 : 𝜋
d. 𝜋 : 12

Answer: (a)

Let the side of the cube be “a” units.

The diameter of the sphere that exactly fits inside the cube is “a” units.

Volume of cube = a³

Volume of the sphere inscribed in the cube = 4/3𝜋(a/2)³

The volume of the cube to that of the sphere inscribed =

Hence the required ratio is 6 : 𝜋

Question 53. If any polynomial f(x) is divided by (x² – 16) then remainder is (5x + 3). If it is divided by (x + 4) then the remainder will be:

a. 17
b. -17
c. 23
d. -23

Answer: (b)

Given that,

f(x) = Q(x² – 16) + (5x + 3)

f(x) = Q(x + 4)(x – 4) + (5x + 3)

Dividing both sides by (x+4) as asked in the question

..…(1)

From (1) when f(x) is divided by (x + 4), reminder is

Simplifying the reminder:

So, 5x + 3 = 5(x + 4) – 17

When 5x + 3 is further divided by (x + 14), we get 5 as the quotient and -17 is the reminder.

Question 54. 12 workers can build a wall in 9 days working 8 hours per day. In how many days 24 workers can build that wall working 6 hours per day?

a. 24
b. 12
c. 9
d. 6

Answer: (d)

12 workers working 8 hours per day can build a wall in 9 days.

1 worker working 1 hour per day can build a wall in 9 x 12 x 8 days.

24 workers working 6 hours per day can build a wall in

Question 55. The ratio of medians of two similar triangles is 3 : 4. Then the ratio of their areas will be:

a. 4 : 3
b. 3 : 4
c. 16 : 9
d. 9 :16

Answer: (d)

According to corresponding parts of similar triangles, in two similar triangles, the ratio of corresponding sides is equal to the ratios of the altitudes and medians of the two triangles.

Also, if two triangles are similar, then the ratio of the area of both triangles is proportional to the square of the ratio of their corresponding sides or medians.

Ratio of medians =

Ratio of areas =

Question 56. In the given figure PA = 4 cm, AB = 5 cm. Then length of PT will be:

a. 13 cm
b. 9 cm
c. 6 cm
d. 4 cm

Answer: (c)

Let us draw OQ perpendicular to AB.

AQ = AB/2 = 5/2

AP + 4cm

PQ = 6.5 cm

In ΔOTP, TP² + OT² = OP²

In ΔOQP, OQ² + PQ² = OP²

OQ² + PQ² = OT² + TP²

OQ² + PQ² = OA² + TP² (Since OA = OT = Radius of the circle)

OQ²– OA² + PQ² = TP²

Since, AO² = AQ² + OQ²

TP² = -AQ² + PQ²

TP² = (6.5)² – (2.5)² = 42.25 – 6.25 = 36

TP = 6 cm

Question 57. If 69.5 is the mean of 72, 70, x, 62, 50, 71, 90, 64, 58 and 82 then the value of x will be:

a. 70
b. 72
c. 74
d. 76

Answer: (d)

Mean of the given numbers = 69.5

72 + 70 + x + 62 + 50 + 71 + 90 + 64 + 58 + 82 = 695

619 + x = 695

X = 76

Question 58. In the given figure ABC is a right angled triangle with AB = 12 cm and AC = 13 cm. A circle with center O has been inscribed inside the triangle. If the radius is r then the value of r will be:

a. 1 cm
b. 1.5 cm
c. 2 cm
d. 2.5 cm

Answer: (c)

Given:

AB = 12 cm and AC = 13 cm

BC = 5 cm (Using pythagoras theorem)

AP = 12 – r

AR = AP = 12 – r (AR and AP are tangents from C to a circle)

BQ = BP = r

RC = QC = BC – r = 5 – r (RC and QC are tangents from C to a circle)

Ar(∆ABC) = ½ AB × BC = 30 cm²

Ar(∆ABC) = Ar(∆AOB) + Ar(∆BOC) + Ar(∆AOC)

30 = ½ [12r + 5r + 13r]

30r = 60

r = 2 cm

Question 59. The

a. 4/3
b. 3/4
c. 1
d. 0

Answer: (a)

Question 60. If

a. 2
b. -1
c. 1
d. 0

Answer: (d)

Arithmetic mean of two numbers a and b = (a + b)/2

Given that,

Hence, aⁿ⁺¹ = a

n + 1 = 1

n = 0

Question 62. When was the quit India movement?

a. 1930
b. 1935
c. 1942
d. 1943

Answer: (c)

The Quit India Movement was launched in 1942. The movement left a profound impact on the Indian freedom struggle and eventually led the country to independence.

Question 63. Who is called Gandhi of Chhattisgarh?

a. Pt. Ravishankar Shukla
b. Veer Narayan Singh
c. Pt. Sundarlal Sharma
d. Hanuman Singh

Answer: (c)

Pandit Sundarlal Sharma is known as the ‘Gandhi of Chhattisgarh’. He started the canal satyagraha and was a prominent freedom fighter from Chhattisgarh.

Question 64. Amoghvarsha was the ruler of:

a. Rashtrakuta Dynasty
b. Pallava Dynasty
c. Chandela Dynasty
d. Parmar Dynasty

Answer: (a)

Amoghvarsha was a ruler of the Rashtrakuta dynasty. He is considered as the greatest king among the Rashtrakutas. He was also a great patron of art, education and literature.

Question 65. The Gandhar school of sculpture was a blend of:

a. Indian and Greek styles
b. Indian and Persian styles
c. Was purely Indian in origin
d. Indian and South-East Asian styles

Answer: (a)

The Gandhara School of Sculpture was a blend of Indian and Greek styles of art. It flourished in areas of modern-day Afghanistan and North-Western parts of India.

Question 66. “I came I saw, I conquered was said by:

a. Napoleon
b. Changez Khan
c. Julius Caesar
d. Alexander

Answer: (c)

Julius Caesar was a Roman king. “I came, I saw, I conquered”, was announced by him on his victory over Pontus in 46 BCE.

Question 67. The country where the process of industrial revolution started first in Europe was:

a. France
b. England
c. Germany
d. Italy

Answer: (b)

The process of the industrial revolution first began in England. Inventions like the spinning jenny, power loom, steam engine and other innovations made work easier and faster.

Question 68. The “Sati Pratha” was declared illegal during the governor generalship of:

a. William Bentick
b. Dalhousie
c. Canning
d. Cornwallis

Answer: (a)

The Sati Pratha was declared illegal during Governor-General William Bentinck’s tenure. Along with Raja Rammohan Roy, he tried to suppress other social evils like polygamy, child marriage and female infanticide.

Question 69. Who was the greatest king among the ‘Cholas’:

a. Rajaraja-1
b. Aditya-1
c. Vijayraj
d. Prantika

Answer: (a)

Rajaraja Chola 1 was the greatest king among the Cholas mentioned above. He built the famous Brihadisvara Temple at Tanjore.

Question 70. Name the ruler of the Gupta dynasty about whose conquests in the Allahabad pillar inscription presents on accounts of:

a. Chandragupta Vikramaditya
b. Samudragupta
c. Kumaragupta
d. Skandagupta

Answer: (b)

The Allahabad pillar inscription presents the accounts of Samudragupta’s political and military conquests. This was composed by Harisena.

Question 71. Mesopotamia means:

a. Mesolithic culture
b. A collection of pots kept in a mess.
c. A variety of horse living along rivers
d. The land between the rivers.

Answer: (d)

The word Mesopotamia means the land between the rivers in Greek. The civilisation thrived in a valley between two rivers – Tigris and Euphrates.

Question 72. Who was the ruler of India when the Ibn Battuta visited India?

a. Ibrahim Lodhi
b. Muhammad Ghori
c. Muhammad-Bin-Tughlaq
d. Razia Sultan

Answer: (c)

Ibn Battuta was a fourteenth-century traveller who visited India from Morocco, Africa. India was under the rule of Muhammad-Bin-Tughlaq of the Delhi Sultanate during this period.

Question 73. In the northern hemisphere due to Ferrel’s law the winds deflected:

a. Towards its right
b. Towards its Left
c. Towards its North
d. Towards its South.

Answer: (a)

Solution:

The Ferrel’s law suggests that wind deflects to the right in the northern hemisphere. Similarly, in the southern hemisphere, it deflects to the left.

Question 75. Which country of South America is the biggest producer of petroleum:

a. Venezuela
b. Peru
c. Chile
d. Brazil

Answer:(a)

Venezuela is the largest producer of petroleum in South America. Venezuela has a vast oil reserve estimated to be 18 % of the global reserve.

Question 76. The mediterranean sea climate is characterized by:

a. Humid Summers and dry winters
b. Humid Summers and humid winters
c. Dry Summers and dry winters
d. Dry Summers and humid winters

Answer: (d)

The Mediterranean type of climate is prevalent in the locations situated between the 30° and 45° latitude north and south of the Equator and the continents’ western margins. This type of climate is characterised by dry summers and wet or humid winters.

Question 77. From where the ‘Sri Hind’ canal takes off?

a. At Okhla near Delhi
b. From fire-lake at Khadakwasla
c. From Gomati a Banbanse
d. From Satlaj at Ruper

Answer: (d)

‘Sri Hind’ is a large irrigation canal. It takes its water from the river Sutlej, a tributary of the Indus river, at Rupar, Punjab.

Question 78. The leaves of the plants of desert forests are:

a. Pointed in shape
b. Small-sized and thorny
c. Long
d. Broad

Answer: (b)

The leaves of plants lose moisture through their pores in a process called transpiration. In desert forests, modified plant leaves become small and thorny to slow the transpiration process and retain a minimum moisture level.

Question 79. River which flows from east to west:

a. Mahanadi
b. Godavari
c. Narmada
d. Brahmaputra

Answer: (c)

The river Narmada flows from east to west. Narmada rises from Amarkantak Plateau in Madhya Pradesh. It flows through Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat and finally meets the Arabian Sea in the west.

Question 80. What kind of watermelon crop is:

a. Rabi
b. Jaid
c. Kharif
d. All of the above

Answer: (b)

Watermelon is a Jaid crop. Jaid crops are summer season crops, grown mainly during the period from March to June in India. They require warm and dry weather for their growth.

Question 81. Which one of the following is known as ‘Pittsburgh’ of India:

a. Baroda
b. Raurkela
c. Jamshedpur
d. Durgapur

Answer: (c)

Jamshedpur is known as the ‘Pittsburgh’ of India. Situated in Jharkhand, Jamshedpur is known for its steel industry.

Question 82. In which part of Africa Sahara desert is situated:

a. Northern part
b. Southern part
c. Western part
d. Eastern part

Answer: (a)

The Sahara desert is the largest desert in the world. It is located in the northern part of Africa. It covers many African countries like Algeria, Chad, Egypt, Libya, Mali, Mauritania, Morocco etc.

Question 83. The chief production in the region having black soil is:

a. Cotton
b. Rice
c. Wheat
d. Tea

Answer: (a)

Black soils are generally clayey, deep and impermeable and retain moisture for a longer period. Moreover, black soils are rich in lime, iron, magnesia and alumina, potash. This type of soil is most suitable for the production of cotton.

Question 84. The youngest folded mountain in India is:

a. Vindhyan
b. Aravallis
c. Nilgiris
d. Shiwalik

Answer: (d)

Shiwalik forms the outermost and southernmost hilly range of the Himalayas, which are the youngest fold mountains in India. They are also known as the sub-Himalayas or the foothills.

Question 85. Concept of the independent justice system in Indian constitution is abstracted from where:

a. America (U.S.A.)
b. South Africa
c. Britain
d. France

Answer: (a)

Independent justice system implies the concept that the judiciary must remain independent from other organs of the government that is the executive and the legislature. Indian Constitution derived the concept of an independent justice system from the U.S.A.

Question 86. Joint session of the Indian parliament is called by:

a. Speaker of Loksabha
b. Speaker of Rajya Sabha
c. Prime minister
d. President

Answer: (d)

A joint session of the parliament comes into existence when either of two houses (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha) refuses to agree on a particular matter. According to article 108 of the Indian Constitution, a joint session is called by the President of India.

Question 87. For the protection of fundamental rights writ can be issued by:

a. Only High court
b. Only Supreme court
c. Only high court and supreme court
d. Only human right commission of India

Answer: (c)

A writ is a formally written order that commands constitutional remedies for Indian Citizens against the violation of their fundamental rights. Writs are of five types in India – Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo-Warranto. A writ can be issued by both the Supreme Court and High Courts of India.

Question 88. Off the following the lowest civil court is:

a. Additional Judge court
b. Nayab Tahsildar court
c. Class-III Magistrate Court
d. Court of Munsif

Answer: (d)

The Court of Munsif is considered to be the lowest level of civil court in India. A dispute involving property or amount which is not valued more than two thousand rupees comes within the jurisdiction of the Munsif Court.

Question 89. How the Lt. Governor of Union Territory works independently without taking a decision from the office:

a. Transport
b. Law & Order
c. Electricity
d. Civil rationing.

Answer: (b)

According to the Constitution of India, the Lieutenant Governor of a union territory can function his/her authority in matters of law and order since the subject of law and order comes under the state list.

Question 90. Who has the power to appoint and suspend the chief-election commissions?

a. Prime Minister
b. Chief Justice of Supreme Court
c. President
d. Parliament

Answer: (c)

The power to appoint and suspend the Chief Election Commissioner of India vests with the President of India. The Chief Election Commissioner is responsible for conducting free and fair elections to the national and state legislatures, to the posts of the President and Vice-President. Sunil Arora is the current 23rd Chief Election Commissioner of India.

Question 91. When was the constitution of India fully prepared?

a. 26 January, 1950
b. 26 November, 1949
c. 02 October, 1949
d. 15 November, 1949.

Answer: (b)

The Constituent Assembly drafted the Constitution of India. It was fully prepared and adopted on 26th November 1949. But the major part of it was brought into force from 26th January 1950. India celebrates 26th January as Republic day.

Question 92. How many basic duties are presently mentioned in the constitution:

a. 08
b. 11
c. 10
d. 12

Answer: (b)

The Fundamental Duties are dealt with Article 51A under Part-IV A of the Indian Constitution. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added 10 Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution. 86th Amendment Act 2002 later added 11th Fundamental Duty to the list.

Question 93. Which is included in the capital account of the budget:

a. Income received from public borrowing
b. Income received from tax source
c. Income received from non-tax source
d. All of the above

Answer: (a)

The capital account of the budget includes capital assets and capital liabilities of the government. For example, governments’ loans or capital raised through means like borrowing comes under capital liabilities.

Question 94. What is the nature of Income Tax in India?

a. Proportional
b. Progressive
c. Regressive
d. None of the above

Answer: (b)

Progressive taxing system is one in which the population of a country pays different tax amounts at different tax rates (tax slabs) according to their income levels. For example, poor people and rich people pay different percentages of tax in India according to the income they earn.

Question 95. When was the consumer protection act enacted?

a. 1980
b. 1985
c. 1986
d. 1991

Answer: (c)

The Consumer Protection Act of 1986 was enacted to protect the interests of the consumers in terms of quality and safety of products. The Consumer Protection Act of 1986 was recently replaced with the Consumer Protection Act of 2019.

Question 96. Who determines price under perfect competition:

a. Representative firm
b. Industry
c. Normal firm
d. Government

Answer: Bonus

Perfect competition in economics means a perfect market situation where all the firms sell similar products. Under such a situation, the demand and supply forces of the market would determine the prices of the product.

Question 97. Opportunity cost of a factor is known as:

a. Transfer earning
b. Money cost
c. Present earning
d. None of the above

Answer: (a)

Opportunity cost is the profit lost by choosing an option over the next best alternative. It would be the cost paid for not choosing that alternative.

Transfer earnings are the minimum reward required to keep factors of production in its current occupation. It is the opportunity cost an individual forgoes when deciding to work in one job rather than the next best alternative. Transfer earning can also be called the opportunity cost of the factor.

Question 98. When total utility becomes maximum then the marginal utility will be:

a. Minimum
b. Average
c. Zero
d. Negative.

Answer: (c)

Total utility represents the total satisfaction experienced by a consumer from consuming a given quantity of goods and services. Whereas, marginal utility represents the value of an additional unit consumed by the consumer from a given set of goods and services. Hence marginal utility becomes zero when total utility is maximum.

Question 99. Which is the main reason for demand-pull inflation?

a. Increase in money supply
b. Increase in commercial expenditure
c. Increase in demand of foreign goods
d. All the above

Answer: (d)

Demand-pull inflation is a situation when aggregate demand is more than the aggregate supply. Such a condition arises usually due to more money with the people because of which they tend to spend more. Increase in commercial expenditure also results in more money in the hands of people. Demand in foreign goods automatically leads to an increase in its price.

Question 100. Which of the following is the largest significant factor of revenue expenditure of the central Government?

a. Defence expenditure
b. Subsidy
c. Interest payment
d. Salary

Answer: (c)

Interest payment is the largest significant factor of revenue expenditure of the central Government. Out of 1 rupee revenue expenditure, 18 paise is for interest payments.