Delhi 2020-21 NTSE Stage 1 Answer Key & Question Paper With Solutions

Paper: MAT

Question 1.

a. 355
b. 330
c. 305
d. 366

Answer: Bonus

80.3 is not given in the option.

Question 2. If 20% of x = y, then y% of 20 is the same as:

a. 4% of x
b. 6% of y
c. 8% of x
d. 10% of x

Answer: (a)

20% × x = y

x = 5y

y% × 20 – 20y/100 = 4 × 5y / 100 = 4x/100

So, y% of 20 is 4% of x.

Question 3. The sum of the first 12 terms of an AP. Whose nth term is given by a_n = 3n + 4 is:

a. 262
b. 272
c. 282
d. 292

Answer: (c)

Given: a_n = 3n + 4

So, a₁ = 3(1) + 4 = 7

a₁₂ = 3(12) + 4 = 40

Sum of n terms = n/2 (a₁ + a_n)

So, sum of the 12 terms of the given AP = 12/2 (7 + 40) = 282

Question 4. Two goods trains each 500 m long, are running in opposite directions on parallel tracks. Their speeds are 45 km/hr and 30 km/hr respectively. Find the time taken by the slower train to pass the driver of the faster one:

a. 12 sec
b. 24 sec
c. 48 sec
d. 60 sec

Answer: (b)

Speed of the faster train = 45 km/hr =

Speed of the slower train = 30 km/hr =

Relative speed of the trains =

Time taken by the slower train to cross driver =

=

Question 5. The next term of the AP √18, √50, √98,…..is:

a. √146
b. √128
c. √162
d. √200

Answer: (c)

The given series is √18, √50, √98,….

Simplifying the terms of the series we get 3√2, 5√2, 7√2 ,….

The next term of the AP = 9√2 = √81 × 2 = √162

Question 6. If (p + q)^th term of an AP is m and (p – q)^th term is n, then p^th term is

a. mn
b. √mn
c. (m – n)/√2
d. (m + n)/2

Answer: (d)

Let us say a_p+q = m and a_p-q = n

so a + (p + q – 1)d = m …(1) (d is the difference of consecutive terms in the A.P.)

a + (p – q – 1)d = n … (2)

Adding equation (1) and (2):

2a + d(p + q – 1 + p -q -1) = m + n

2a + d(2p – 2) = m + n

2a + 2d(p – 1) = m + n

a + d(p – 1) = (m + n)/2

So, the p^th term in the A.P is (m + n)/2.

Question 7. If a flight of 600 km, an aircraft was slowed down due to bad weather. Its average speed for the trip was reduced by 200 km/hr and the time of flight increased by 30 minutes. The original duration of the flight is:

a. 1 hour
b. 2 hours
c. 3 hours
d. 4 hours

Answer: (a)

Let the original speed and time of the aircraft be s and t.

So, Speed s = 600/t km/hr

Actual time = t + 0.5 (Since flight time increased by 0.5 hr (30 min))

Actual speed = 600/ t + 0.5

s – 200 = 600/ t + t + 0.5

600/t – 200 = 600/t + 0.5

600 – 200t = 600t/t + 0.5

600t + 300 – 200t² – 100 = 600t

200 = 200t²

t = 1 hour

Question 8. A tower is observed from a point on the horizontal through the foot of the tower. The distance of this point from the foot of the tower is equal to the height of the tower. The angle of elevation on the top of the tower is:

a. 60⁰
b. 45⁰
c. 40⁰
d. 30⁰

Answer: (b)

The height of the tower is equal to the distance from the observation point. Let their value be a.

From the image, tanθ = a/a = 1

θ = tan^-1 (1) = 45^o

Question 9. There are 1400 students in a school, 25% of those wear spectacles and 2/7 of those wearing spectacles are boys. How many girls in the school wear spectacles?

a. 300
b. 100
c. 200
d. 250

Answer: (d)

Number of students in the school = 1400

Number of students wearing spectacles = 25/100 × 1400 = 350

Fraction of girls wearing spectacles = 1 – 2/7 = 5/7

Number of girls wearing spectacles = 5/7 × 350 = 250

Question 10. P, Q and R jointly thought of engaging themselves in a business venture. It was agreed that P would invest Rs 6500 for 6 months, Q, Rs 8400 for 5 months and R, Rs 10000 for 3 months P wants to be the working member for which he was to receive 5% of the profits. The profit earned was Rs 7400. Calculate the share of Q in the profit.

a. Rs 1900
b. Rs 2660
c. Rs 2800
d. Rs 2840

Answer: (b)

Total profit earned = ₹7400

P’s share for working = 5% of ₹7400 = 5/100 × 7400 = ₹370

Remaining Profit after P’s share for working = ₹7400 – ₹370 = ₹7030

So the sum of ₹7030 is to be shared among P, Q and R based on the ratio of their investment.

Ratio of investment of P, Q and R is (6500 × 6) : (8400 × 5) : (10000 × 5)

Simplifying the ratio we get, 13 : 14 : 10

Q’s share in the profit = 14/37 × 7030 = ₹2660

Question 11. John cycling at a constant speed of 10 km/hr, reaches his school in time. If he cycles at a constant speed of 15 km/hr, he reaches his school in 12 minutes early. How many km he has to cycle for his school is?

a. 4
b. 6
c. 9
d. 12

Answer: (b)

Let t be the time taken by John if he cycles at 10 km/hr.

Time taken by John cycles at 15 km/hr = t – 12/60 hours = 5t – 1/5

Let the distance to school be d.

d/t = 10 t = d/10

So, d/10 = d + 3/15 ⇒ d = 6 km

Question 12. If 7 sin α = 24: cos α :0 < 𝜋 </2, then the value of 14tan α -75 cos α -7 sec α is equal to

a. 3
b. 4
c. 1
d. 2

Answer: (d)

If 7sin α = 24 cos α, the solution can be obtained.

If 7 sin α = 24 cos α

Tan α = 24/7

Since 0 < α < 𝜋/2 Sin , Cos ,Tan α all will be positive

Sin α = 24/25

Cos α = 7/25

Hence expression becomes

14tan α -75 cos α -7 sec α

14 ( 24/7) – 75 ( 7/25) – 7 ( 25/7)

48 – 21 – 25 = 2.

Question 13. If x² + 1/x² = 98 (x > 0), then the value of x³ + 1/x³ is

a. 970
b. 1030
c. -970
d. -1030

Answer: (a)

Question 14. The correct arrangement of alphabetical order of the words

A. music B. monk C. minimum D. maximum

a. D, A, C, B
b. A, C, D, B
c. D, C, A, B
d. D, C, B, A

Answer: (d)

As arranged in the dictionary: maximum, minimum, monk, music.

Question 15. At present ages of a father and son are in the ratio of 7:3 and they will be in the present ratio 2:1 after 10 years. What is the present age of the father?

a. 70 years
b. 65 years
c. 60 years
d. 50 years

Answer: (a)

Ratio of present ages of the father and son is 7:3

So let us take the present ages of the father and son be 7a and 3a respectively.

After 10 years the ratio of their ages is 2:1

So the present age of the father is 70.

Directions (Questions 16 – 19): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions: Number of students in different classes of XYZ Primary school:

Question 16. The difference between the sum of all the students in all the classes in 2017 and 2018 is:

a. 112
b. 85
c. 25
d. 35

Answer: (c)

Sum of all the students in all the classes in 2017 = 32 + 24 + 17 + 24 + 23 = 120

Sum of all the students in all the classes in 2018 = 18 + 16 + 29 + 11 + 21 = 95

The difference is 25.

Question 17. The sum of all the students in class III in all the years is what percent of the sum of all students of class I in all the years approximately?

a. 30%
b. 100%
c. 60%
d. 135%

Answer: (d)

Sum of all the students in class III in all the years = 39 + 33 + 52 + 17 + 29 = 170

Sum of all the students in class I in all the years = 22 + 28 + 26 + 32 + 18 =126

Required % =

Question 18. The square of sum of all the students of all classes in year 2018 is:

a. 2095
b. 9025
c. 6059
d. 9216

Answer: (b)

Sum of all the students in all the classes in 2018 = 18 + 16 + 29 + 11 + 21 = 95

Square of the obtained sum = 95² = 9025

Question 19. By what percent, the number of students of class I in 2017 is more than the number of students of Class II for the same year?

a. 60
b. 75
c. 35
d. 33.33

Answer: (d)

Number of students in class I in 2017 = 32

Number of students in class II in 2017 = 24

Required % =

Directions (Questions 20 – 21): First two terms are connected by some relationship. The same relationship is applicable for the next terms to identify the suitable pair.

Question 20. Square : Cube

a. Rectangle : Cuboid
b. Triangle : Square
c. Quadrilateral : Cuboid
d. Cuboid : Rectangle

Answer: (a)

Each face of a cube is a square. Similarly, each face of a cuboid is a rectangle. Option (d) is not in the correct order. So option (a) is the only suitable pair.

Note: Quadrilateral and cuboid cannot be a correct option since a polyhedron made of parallelograms is called a parallelepiped.

Question 21. 82 : 9

a. 5:26
b. 6:37
c. 35:6
d. 26:5

Answer: (d)

9² + 1 = 82

5² + 1 = 26

So, 26:5 is the similar expression to 82:9.

Question 22. If A = 2, T = 40 and ACT = 48 the TAKE is:

a. 68
b. 58
c. 74
d. 76

Answer: (c)

T = 40 = 2(20)

A = 2 = 2(1)

The given number corresponding to each letter is twice the ordinal number of the letter.

So, K = 2(11) = 22

E = 2(5) = 10

TAKE = 40 + 2 + 22 + 10 = 74

Directions (Questions 23 – 27): Identify the wrong number / letters in the series:

Question 23. 126, 98, 70, 41, 14

a. 98
b. 70
c. 126
d. 41

Answer: (d)

The series should have 42 instead of 41. The difference of all consecutive terms will be 28.

The relationship of terms in the corrected series would be as follows:

126 – 98 = 28

98 – 70 = 28

80 – 42 = 28

42 – 14 = 28

Question 24. 1, 3, 7, 15, 31, 65, 127

a. 7
b. 31
c. 15
d. 65

Answer: (d)

The series should have 63 instead of 65.

The relationship of terms in the corrected series would be as follows:

Question 25. 7, 28, 63, 124, 215, 344

a. 28
b. 63
c. 124
d. 344

Answer: (c)

The series should have 126 instead of 124.

The logic behind the terms of the correct series would be as follows:

7 = 2³ – 1

28 = 3³ + 1

63 = 4³ – 1

126 = 5³ + 1

215 = 6³ – 1

344 = 7³ + 1

Question 26. AD, EG, IJ, MM, QP, UP

a. EG
b. UP
c. QP
d. MM

Answer: (b)

The series should have US instead of UP.

The relationship of terms in the correct series would be as follows:

Question 27. Z8, W5, T2, Q8, N5, K3

a. K3
b. T2
c. Q8
d. Z8

Answer: (a)

The series should have K2 instead of K3.

The logic behind the terms of the correct series would be as follows:

Z ⟹ 26 ⟹ 2 + 6 = 8. By combining we get Z8.

W ⟹ 23 ⟹ 2 + 3 = 5. By combining we get W5.

T ⟹ 20 ⟹ 2 + 0 = 2. By combining we get T2.

Q ⟹ 17 ⟹ 1 + 7 = 8. By combining we get Q8.

N ⟹ 14 ⟹ 1 + 4 = 5. By combining we get N5.

K ⟹ 11 ⟹ 1 + 1 = 2. By combining we get K2.

Directions (Questions 28 – 29): First set of words are related in a certain way. You have to choose a word. So that another set of words also become related in the same manner.

Questions 28. Transition : change : : Immobility : ?

a. Stillness
b. Liveliness
c. Action
d. Busyness

Answer: (a)

Transition means change and immobility means stillness.

Questions 29. Grain : Stock : : Stick : ?

a. String
b. Collection
c. Bundle
d. Heep

Answer: (c)

Stock is the collection of grains and bundle is the collection of sticks.

Question 30. A is B’s sister, C is B’s mother, D is C’s father, E is D’s mother. Then how is A related to D?

a. Grandfather
b. Grandmother
c. Daughter
d. Grand Daughter

Answer: (d)

A is the daughter of C. D is the father of C. So A is the Granddaughter of D.

Directions (Questions 31 – 33): Find the odd one out.

Question 31. a. Crusade b. Campaign c. Expedition d. Cruise

a. a
b. c
c. b
d. d

Answer: (d)

Crusade, Campaign and Expedition are activities carried out by a group of people for a common cause. Cruise means sailing on the sea in leisure.

Question 32. a. Clove b. Cinnamon c. Apricot d. Pepper

a. a
b. c
c. b
d. d

Answer: (b)

Apricot is not a spice but others are.

Question 33. a. Acre b. Yard c. Mile d. Meter

a. a
b. c
c. b
d. d

Answer: (a)

Yard, mile and metre are units of measure of length but acre is a measure of area.

Question 34. In a certain code, MONKEY is written XDJMNL. How is TIGER written in the same code?
a. SHFDQ
b. HFDSQ
c. QDFHS
d. PQRST

Answer: (c)

Question 35.In the following matrix, certain numbers are arranged in a certain way. Choose the missing number to complete the matrix.

a. 16
b. 12
c. 13
d. 14

Answer: (b)

Reading the matrix column wise:

1(2 + 1) = 3

7(14 + 1) = 105

9 (a + 1) = 117 (Let us take ‘a’ as the missing number)

a + 1 = 13

a = 12

Question 36. What value will replace ‘?’ in the figures given below:

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3

Answer: (a)

42/6 – 15/3 = 2

36/9 – 9/3 = 1

38/19 – 20/10 = 0

Question 37. Five plays – K, L, M, N and O are to be staged from Monday to Friday of a week. On each day only one play will be staged. O should be immediately followed by M. L should be staged immediately after N. One play is staged between K and L. N or O should not be the first or last play. Which is the second play to be staged?

a. M
b. O
c. N
d. K

Answer: (c)

The order in which the plays are staged from Monday to Friday is K, N, L, O, and M.

Question 38. In a town of 500 people. 285 people, read ‘The Hindu’ and 212 people read ‘Indian Express’ and 127 people read ‘Times of India’. Only 20 people read ‘The Hindu’ and ‘Times of India’, only 29 people read ‘The Hindu’ and ‘Indian Express’ and only 35 people read ‘Times of India’ and ‘Indian Express’. 50 people do not read newspaper. Then how many people read only one newspaper?

a. 123
b. 213
c. 312
d. 321

Answer: (d)

People reading The Hindu = a + 29 + 20 + p = a + p + 49

From given: a + p + 49 = 285 ⇒ a + p = 236

People reading Indian Express = b + 29 + 35 + p = b + p + 64

From given: b + p + 64 = 212 ⇒ b + p = 148

People reading TOI = c + 20 + 35 + p = c + p + 55

From given: c + p + 55 = 127 ⇒ c + p = 72

So, a + p + b + p + c + p = 236 + 148 + 72 = 456

a + b + c + 3p = 456 ….(1)

But it’s given: Total number of people = 500

So, a + b + c + p + 20 + 29 + 35 + 50 = 500

a + b + c + p = 366 ….(2)

Eqn. (1) – Eqn. (2) = 2p = 90

p = 45

Substituting the value of p in (2) we get a + b + c = 321

The total number of people reading only one paper is 321.

Question 39. Which of the following venn diagrams truly represents the relationship between Truck, Ship and Goods?

Answer: (a)

Question 40. Identify the diagram the best represents the relationship among the given animals – Reptiles, Lizard, Lion.

Answer: (c)

Question 41. If – stands for ÷, + stands for x, ÷ stands for – and x stands for +, which of the following equations is correct?

a. 40 – 10 + 5 ÷ 4 x 5 = 21
b. 40 + 10 – 4 x 5 ÷ 3 = 80
c. 40 ÷ 10 – 4 x 5 + 3 = 32
d. 8 – 4 x 40 ÷ 2 + 15 = 30

Answer: (a)

a. 40 ÷ 10 x 5 – 4 + 5 = 4 x 5 – 4 + 5 = 20 – 4 + 5 = 21

b. 40 x 10 ÷ 4 + 5 – 3 = 40 x 2.5 + 5 – 3 = 100 + 5 – 3 = 102

c. 40 – 10 ÷ 4 + 5 x 3 = 40 – 2.5 + 5 x 3 = 40 – 2.5 + 5 = 42.5

d. 8 ÷ 4 + 40 – 2 x 15 = 2 + 40 – 2 x 15 = 2 + 40 – 30 = 12

Question 42. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around the circle and are facing the centre. P is second to the right of T who is neighbour of R and V. S is not the neighbour of P, V is neighbour of U. Q is not between S and W. W is not between U and S. Then who is sitting opposite to W?

a. S
b. Q
c. U
d. T

Answer: (d)

From the figure, it can be seen T is opposite to W.

Question 43. Find the ratio in which rice at Rs 7.20 per kg is mixed with rice at Rs 5.70 per kg. to produce a mixture worth Rs 6.30 per kg?

a. 2:3
b. 1:3
c. 3:4
d. 4:5

Answer: (a)

The rice costing ₹7.2 and ₹5.7 are mixed to produce a mixture worth ₹6.3 per kg.

So, the ratio of the mixture =

Question 44. A pupil’s marks were wrongly entered as 83 instead of 63. Due to which the average marks for the class got increased by half. The number of pupils in the class is:

a. 45
b. 40
c. 39
d.37

Answer: (b)

Let there be n pupil in the class.

Let a be the total marks of all the pupils except the mark of the wrong entry.

The difference in the average =

But as given: The difference between the averages is ½.

20/n = ½

n = 40

Question 45. A watch which gains 5 seconds in 3 minutes was set right at 7 am. In the afternoon of the same day when the watch indicated quarter past 4 O’clock, the true time is:

a. 9 pm
b. 7 pm
c. 4 pm
d. 5 pm

Answer: (c)

Number of hours between 7 AM and 4.15 PM =

Actual seconds elapsed when the faulty clock ticks 185 seconds = 180 seconds

Actual seconds elapsed when the faulty clock ticks

= 33300 × 180/185

= 32400 seconds

= 32400/3600 = 9 hours

So, the actual time is 9 hours from 7 Am i.e 4 PM.

Question 46. A student multiplied a number by 3/5 instead of 5/3. What is the percentage error in the calculation?

a. 54%
b. 64%
c. 74%
d. 84%

Answer: (b)

Let the number is equal to 15

3/5 of 15 = 9 and 5/3 of 15 = 25

Percentage error =

=(25-9)/25 x 100% = 64%

Question 47. Two goods train each 390 m long are running in the same direction on parallel tracks. Their speeds are 42 km/hr and 36 km/hr respectively. Find the time taken by the faster train to cross the driver of the slower one?

a. 6 min
b. 12 min
c. 18 min
d. 4 min

Answer: (d)

It is not clear from where the train started. It is not specified if the train started at the same point or the faster one started just behind the slower one.

If the train started at the same point:

Speed of the faster train = 42 km/hr =

Speed of the slower train = 36 km/hr =

Relative speed of the trains = 700 – 600 = 100 m/min (Speed of same direction trains are subtracted)

Time taken by the slower train to cross driver =

=

Directions (Questions 48 – 50): Study the pie chart carefully and answer the following questions. Pie chart shows the percentage quantity of fruits of two shops A and B.

Question 48. What is the difference between the quantity of Guava at Shop B and that of Shop A?

a. 20 kg
b. 25 kg
c. 40 kg
d. 16 kg

Answer: (d)

Quantity of guava at shop A = 1200 x 12/100 = 12/100 = 144 kg

Quantity of guava at shop B = 1000 x 16/100 = 16/100 = 160 kg

Required difference = 160 – 144 = 16 kg

Question 49. The quantity of Mango at Shop B is what percentage of the quantity of Mango at shop A?

a. 20%
b. 120%
c. 84%
d. 150%

Answer: (c)

Quantity of mango at shop A = 1200 × 24/100 = 288 kg

Quantity of mango at shop B = 1000 × 24/100 = 240 kg

Required percentage = 240/288 × 100 = 83.33 %

Question 50. If the price of Mango is Rs 30 per kg, Apple Rs 40 per kg and Orange Rs 20 per kg, then what is the ratio of their cost at Shop A?

a. 4:5:6
b. 9:7:5
c. 4:5:1
d. 2:5:7

Answer: (b)

Price of all the mangoes = 1200 × 24/100 × 30

Price of all the apples = 1200 × 14/100 × 40

Price of all the oranges = 1200 × 20/100 × 20

Required ratio is

1200 × 24/100 × 30 : 1200 × 14/100 × 40 : 1200 × 20/100 × 20 ⇒ 24 × 30 : 14 × 40 : 20 × 20

⇒ 9:7:5

Question 51. In the given question, select the correct alternative: Monotony : Variety : : Crudeness : ?

a. Sobriety
b. Simplicity
c. Raw
d. Refinement

Answer: (d)

Monotony ceases to exist when there is variety. Similarly, crudeness will be changed by refinement.

Question 52. If B is 20 metres south from A and C is 10 metres north from D and A is 10 metres west from D, then where is B from C?

a. North – East
b. North – West
c. South – West
d. North

Answer: (c)

From the image, B is in the south-west of C.

Question 53. Amit ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those who passed the examination. 6 students did not participate and 5 failed in it. How many students were there in the class?

a. 50
b. 55
c. 44
d. 52

Answer: (b)

15 students are above Amit and 28 are below him.

So the number of students passed = 15 + 1 + 28 = 44

Total students = Passed students + Failed students + Non-attendees

= 44 + 5 + 6 = 55

Directions (Questions 54 – 55): Ananya is older than Shruti, Arti is older than Ananya but younger than Kusum. Kusum is older than Shruti, Shruti is younger than Arti and Geeta is the oldest.

Order derived from the directions: Shruthi < Ananya < Arti < Kussum < Geeta

Question 54. Who is the youngest?

a. Ananya
b. Shruti
c. Arti
d. Kusum

Answer: (b)

Order derived from the directions: Shruthi < Ananya < Arti < Kussum < Geeta

Shruthi is the youngest.

Question 55. Who is the middle with respect to the age?

a. Shruti
b. Ananya
c. Arti
d. Kusum

Answer: (c)

Order derived from the directions: Shruthi < Ananya < Arti < Kussum < Geeta

Arti is the middle one.

Question 56. A and B are brothers, D is the brother of E, C is the father of A, E is the daughter of B, then who is the uncle of D?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

Answer: (a)

From the family tree, A is uncle of D.

Question 57. Which digit will appear on the face opposite to the face with number 4?

a. 5
b. 2 or 5
c. 2
d. 2 or 3

Answer: (b)

Solution:

The numbers 1, 3 and 6 are adjacent to 4. Either 2 or 5 is opposite to 4.

Question 58. If four different positions of a die are shown, what number is the opposite of 3?

a. 6
b. 5
c. 2
d. 4

Answer: (d)

From the 4 given positions 2, 6, 1 and 5 are adjacent numbers to 3. So 4 is the number on the opposite face to 3.

Question 59. Study the figure given below and find those youth who are in service but not literate?

a. 3 or 4
b. only 7
c. 2 or 7
d. 2 or 5

Answer: (b)

Question 60. In the number 59164823, how many digits will be as far away from the beginning of the number if digits are arranged in descending order as they are in the number?

a. 3
b. more than 3
c. 1
d. 2

Answer: (d)

Question 61. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word, as they have in the English alphabet?

a. more than 3
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3

Answer: (a)

Such pairs in the word EDUCATION are ED, EA , DA, DI and NO.

Directions (Questions 62 – 65): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: A, D, E, F, H, J and K are sitting on a straight table facing South. D sits fourth to the right of A. E sits at the left end of the table. Five persons sit between E and K. J sits third to the left of K and F does not sit immediate to D.

Question 62. Which of the following person sits exactly at the middle of the row?

a. J
b. F
c. H
d. A

Answer: (a)

The arrangement from left to right: E, A, F, J, H, D, K.

Person who is exactly at the middle is J

Question 63. How many people sit between A and H?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

Answer: (b)

The arrangement from left to right: E, A, F, J, H, D, K. There are 2 people between A and H.

Question 64. Three of the following four pairs are alike in a certain way based on their positions and so formed a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

a. AF
b. JH
c. EA
d. FH

Answer: (d)

The arrangement from left to right: E, A, F, J, H, D, K.

The grouping is based on the logic they are consecutively seated. The only option that doesn’t follow this logic is FH.

Question 65. What is the position of F with respect to H?

a. Second to the right
b. Exactly right
c. Second to the left
d. Third to the right

Answer: (c)

The arrangement from left to right: E, A, F, J, H, D, K. F is second to the left of H.

Question 66. Find out the missing number.

a. 72
b. 84
c. 68
d. 66

Answer: (b)

Question 67. Find the missing number in given question:

a. 191
b. 326
c. 330
d. 336

Answer: (c)

The numbers in each column are related as follows:

9 × 6 x 5 = 270; 260 is 10 less than 270.

8 × 7 x 4 = 224; 216 is 8 less than 224.

7 × 8 x 6 = 336; the number 6 less than 336 is 330.

Question 68. Find the missing number?

a. 7
b. 12
c. 16
d. 14

Answer: (a)

(4 – 3)³ – 1 = 0

(9 – 6)³ – 1 = 26

(12 – 10)³ – 1 = 7

(12 – 8)³ = 63

Question 69. Complete the series from given options a_caa_bcc_aabbb_cc

a. bbca
b. abca
c. bbac
d. babc

Answer: (c)

abc, aabbcc, aaabbbccc

Directions (Questions 70 – 71): Study the following information to answer the given questions. In a certain code ‘always create new ideas’ is written as ‘ba ri sh gi’, ‘idea and new thoughts’ is written as ‘fa gi ma ri’, ‘create thoughts and insights’ is written as ‘ma jo ba fa’, ‘new and better solution’ is written as ‘ki ri to fa’.

Question 70. What is code for ‘ideas’?

a. sha
b. gi
c. ba
d. Ma

Answer: (b)

Code for ‘always create newideas’ = ba ri sh gi

Code for ‘idea and new thoughts’ = fa gi ma ri

Code for ‘new and better solution’ = ki ri to fa

From the above 3 statements new is ri.

Since new is ‘ri’, from the first two statements, the code for idea is ‘gi’.

Question 71. What does ‘fa’ stand for?

a. thoughts
b. insights
c. new
d. and

Answer: (d)

Code for ‘idea andnew thoughts’ = fa gi ma ri

Code for ‘newand better solution’ = ki ri to fa

As we know new is ri, from the above statements mapping the only common word (other than new) to fa, we get, and is fa.

Question 72. Question figure

Answer figure

Answer: (a)

The number of sides of the outer polygon increases by 1 the ellipse rotates by 90°.

Question 73. Question figure

Answer figure

Answer: (c)

The number of leaves increases by 1 the whole flower rotates by 45° in clockwise direction.

Question 74. Question figure

Answer figure

Answer: (d)

The difference between the serial numbers of the letters in the corresponding quadrants pair of circles is 8. So the letters in the missing image would be L, R, N and P.

Directions : A set of four figures are given in which three bear close resemblance. Select the odd one out.

Question 75. Select the odd one out.

Answer: (c) or (d)

Option (c)

Every figure is divided into equal parts except for option (c).

Option (d)

In all other options, any single line drawn inside is dividing the shape in two equal parts except for option (d).

Question 76. Select the odd one out.

Answer: (a)

Each figure is divided into equal halves except option a.

Question 77. If a mirror is kept on a line, then which of the answer figure is the correct mirror image of the question figure?

Question figure

Answer: (b)

Question 78. Which of the four alternatives given below is the correct water image of the question figure? Question figure

Answer figure

Answer: (b)

Question 79. Which one of the given alternative figures will complete the given figure pattern? Question figure

Answer figure

Answer: (d)

Directions (Questions 80 – 81): All the surfaces of a solid cube of side 4 cm have been coloured black and cut into equal sized cube of side 1 cm each. Now answer the following questions:

Question 80. How many cubes are there which do not have any of their surfaces coloured?

a. 0
b. 24
c. 16
d. 8

Answer: (d)

The total number of unit cubes cut out of the big cube is 64. It will be in a 4 x 4 x 4 matrix arrangement. The inner layer will be formed by 2 x 2 x 2 i.e 8 cube. 8 cubes will have no faces coloured.

Question 81. How many cubes have two of their surfaces coloured with black on the opposite surfaces?

a. 4
b. 2
c. 0
d. 8

Answer: (c)

No unit cube has its opposite faces painted. The opposite faces to the painted faces of each painted unit cube are hidden in the interior side of the bigger cube.

Question 82. In a row of 40 children, A is 13th from the left end and B is 9th from the right end. How many children are there between A and C, if C is 4th to the left of B?

a. 12
b. 13
c. 14
d. 15

Answer: (c)

B is 9^th from the right end. C is 4^th to the left of B. So C is 13^th from the right end.

C is 28^th from the left since there are 12 children on the right to him.

So C is 15^th to the right of A.

Therefore, there are 14 children between A and C.

Directions (Questions 83 – 85): In a family A is the younger brother of B and D is the son of B. D is the brother of E but E is not the son of B. F is the grandson of B and C is the cousin of E.

Question 83. Who is the father of F?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. Cannot determine

Answer: (d)

F is the grandson of B. But he can be the son of either E or D.

Question 84. The relation of A with D is

a. Father
b. Brother
c. Cousin
d. Uncle

Answer: (d)

From the family tree, A is the uncle of D.

Question 85. The relation of E with F is:

a. Uncle
b. Aunt
c. Grandfather
d. Brother

Answer: (b)

From the given options, E can be the aunt of F.

Question 86. How many times are the hands of a clock at right angles in 12 hours?

a. 24 times
b. 48 times
c. 22 times
d. 44 times

Answer: (c)

In 12 hours, every hour the hands are at right angles twice except twice. The two instances are 2.59 coincide with 3.00 and similarly, 8.59 coincides with 9.

So, In 12 hours the hands of a clock are at right angles 22 times.

Directions (Questions 87 – 90): Find the missing character in the following figures:

Question 87. Find the missing character

a. 16
b. 196
c. 100
d. 144

Answer: (c)

(18 – 10)² = 64; (10 – 4)² = 36; (18 – 4)² = 196

(22 – 14)² = 64; (14 – 8)² = 36; (22 – 8)² = 196

So, (15 – 11)² = 16; (11 -5)² = 36; (15 – 5)² = 100

Question 88. Find the missing character

a. 49
b. 63
c. 48
d. 50

Answer: (b)

7² – 4² + 5 = 38

9² – 6² + 10 = 55

7² – 1² + 15 = 63

Question 89. Find the missing character

a. 40
b. 32
c. 35
d. 30

Answer: (c)

(4 × 6) + (2 + 2) = 28

(14 × 4) + (6 + 4) = 66

(2 × 13) + (2 + 7) = 35

Question 90. Find the missing character

a. 125
b. 100
c. 129
d. 64

Answer: (c)

7² + (2 × 2) + 0² = 53

9² + (3 × 2) + 1²= 81

11² + (2 × 2) + 2²= 129

Question 91. How many triangles are there in the given figure.

a. 15
b. 14
c. 16
d. 20

Answer: (a)

There are 15 triangles in the given figure.

Question 92. If 2 x 2 = 16, 2 x 3 = 36, 2 x 4 = 64 then 2 x 6 = ?

a. 72
b. 80
c. 96
d. 144

Answer: (d)

2 × 2 = 16 = 4²

2 × 3 = 36 = 6²

2 × 4 = 64 = 8²

So the next term of the given series is , 2 × 6 = 144

Question 93.Find the missing character

Question 94. Find the correct figure:

Answer: (c)

It can be observed that there should be 2 circles and 2 horizontal lines in the missing image.

Question 95. Which number is opposite to 3?

a. 1
b. 6
c. 5
d. 4

Answer: (b)

In the given cube, 1, 2, 5 and 4 are adjacent to 3. So 6 is the number on the opposite face to 3.

Direction (Q. 96 – 100): Study the diagram and answer each of the following.

Question 96. How many people take tea and lassi but not coffee?

a. 20
b. 17
c. 25
d. 15

Answer: (b)

From the image: 17 people take both tea and lassi but not coffee.

Question 97. How many people are there who take both tea and coffee but not lassi?

a. 22
b. 17
c. 7
d. 20

Answer: (c)

From the image: 7 people take both tea and coffee but not lassi.

Question 98. How many people take lassi?

a. 100
b. 82
c. 92
d. 122

Answer: (d)

From the image: Number of people taking lassi = 20 + 17 + 15 +30+ 40 = 122

Question 99. How many people are there who take only coffee?

a. 90
b. 45
c. 25
d. 20

Answer: (b)

From the image: Number of people taking only coffee = 20 + 25 = 45.

Question 100. How many people take all the three?

a. 20
b. 17
c. 25
d. 15

Answer: (d)

From the image: Number of people taking all the three = 15.

Delhi NTSE 2020 Stage 1 SAT Paper

Paper: SAT

Physics

Question 1. The sound of same pitch and loudness are “distinguished from one another by their

a. Wavelengths
b. Velocity
c. Quality
d. Tones

Answer: (c)

Sound of the same pitch and loudness can be distinguished from one another by their quality.

Question 2. A water pump lifts water from a level 10 m below the ground. The water is pumped at the rate of 30 kg/min with negligible velocity. Calculate the minimum power the pump should have to do this work.

a. 49 J/s
b. 490 J/s
c. 500 J/s
d. 48 J/s

Answer: (a)

Given: Water is pumped at a rate of 30 kg/min = 30/60 kg/s; h=10 m

Question 3. Six identical resistors connected between points A, B and C as shown in the diagram. The equivalent resistance would be maximum between.

a. A and B
b. B and C
c. A and C
d. Option a, b & c are correct.

Answer: (a)

Resistance in parallel is given by

Resistance in arm AB, BC and AC respectively is R,

Series resistance across AC and BC is

Equivalent resistance across AB is

Series resistance across AB and BC is

Equivalent resistance across AC is

Series resistance across AB and AC is

Equivalent resistance across AB is

Question 4. A particle of mass 0.3 kg is subjected to a force F = Kx with K = 15 N/m, what will be its acceleration if it is released from a point x = 20 cm

a. 1 m/s²
b. 10 m/s²
c. 100 m/s²
d. 0.1 m/s²

Answer: (b)

Given: mass = 0.3 kg; K = 15 N/m; x = 20 cm

F = kx = ma

15 × 0.2 = 0.3a

a = 10 m/s²

Question 5. An object is moving in a straight line. The velocity-time graph is as shown below. Then

a. In part OA acceleration is increasing
b. In part AB acceleration is increasing
c. In part OA acceleration is decreasing
d. In part AB acceleration is decreasing

Answer: (d)

In part OA, acceleration is constant and in part AB, acceleration is decreasing.

Question 6. A force of 100 N acts on a body so that the body acquires a velocity of 10 m/s after some time. Now the force of 100 N is replaced by another force F which decelerates the body and body comes to rest then.

a. F > 100 N
b. F < 100 N
c. F = 100 N
d. All options are possible

Answer: (d)

Force applied to decelerate the body from 10m/s to rest can be greater than, lesser than or equal to zero since time in which the change happens is not mentioned.

Question 7. 2 points A and B are at electric potentials 10 V and 100 V respectively. A charge q is taken from A to B and 18 Joule of work is done. The value of q is

a. 2 Coulomb
b. 0.2 Coulomb
c. 20 Coulomb
d. 0.02 Coulomb

Answer: (b)

Given: Work done = 18 J; Potential at A and B = 10 V and 100 V

W = qΔV

18 = q(100 – 10); q = 18/90 = 0.2 C

Question 8. Which of the following is NOT correct for magnetic field lines?

a. The direction of magnetic field lines outside the magnet is from north pole to south pole.
b. The direction of magnetic field lines inside the magnet is from south pole to north pole.
c. The degree of closeness of magnetic field lines tells the relative strength of magnetic fields.
d. Magnetic field lines never form a closed loop.

Answer: (d)

Magnetic field lines always form closed loops.

Question 9. A car moving along a straight line covers 1/5th of total distance with speed v₁ and remaining part of the distance with speed v₂. The average speed of the car over the entire distance is

a. 5v₁v₂/(4v₁+v₂)
b. 4v₁v₂/(5v₁+v₂)
c. 5v₁v₂/(v₁+4v₂)
d. 4v₁v₂/(4v₁+v₂)

Answer: (a)

Let ‘s’ be total distance, then s/5 is covered with speed v₁ and 4s/5 is covered with speed v₂.

Question 10. Light travels through a glass slab of thickness t and having refractive index n. If c is the velocity of light in vacuum then the time taken by light to travel this thickness of glass is

a. t/nc
b. nt/c
c. n²t/c
d. t/n²c

Answer: (b)

Question 11. The resistance of rheostat shown in the figure is 0 – 30 , Neglecting the resistance of ammeter and connecting wire the minimum and maximum currents through the ammeter will be

a. (0.08 A, 0.33 A)
b. (0.06A, 0.08A)
c. (0.06 A, 0.33 A)
d. (0.33 A, 0.09 A)

Answer: (c)

I = V/R

Equivalent resistance in parallel combination is

R_p = 20/3

Equivalent resistance for minimum current =

Question 12. Three particles A, B and C are thrown from top of a building with the same speed. A is thrown upwards, B is thrown downwards and C is thrown horizontally, they hit the ground with speed V_A, V_B and V_C respectively then

a. V_A = V_B = V_C
b. V_B > V_C > V_A
c. V_A = V_B > V_C
d. V_A > V_B = V_C

Answer: (a)

v² = u² + 2gh

For A: Only vertical velocity and u is -ve

v = √[(-u)² +2gh]

For B: Only vertical velocity and u is +ve

v = √[(u)² +2gh]

For C: Vertical and Horizontal components of velocity is present

Vertical component = vᵥ = √0 +2gh = √2gh

Horizontal component = vₕ = u

Equivalent v = √vᵥ² + vₕ² = √[(u)² + 2gh]

Question 13. An object of height 2.0 cm is placed on the principal axis of a concave mirror at a distance of 12 cm from the pole. If the image is inverted, real and 5 cm in height then location of the image and focal length of the mirror respectively are

a. (–30 cm, +8.6 cm)
b. (–30 cm, –8.6 cm)
c. (+30 cm, +8.6 cm)
d. (+30 cm, –8.6 cm)

Answer: (b)

Given: object distance = 12 cm; object height = 2 cm; image height = 5 cm

m = hᵢ/hₒ = -v/u

-5/2= -v/-12; v = -30 cm

1/v + 1/u = 1/f

-1/30 – 1/12= 1/f; f = -60/7 = -8.57

CHEMISTRY

Question 14. When lead nitrate is heated a brown gas is evolved, the evolved gas is ________.

a. Dioxygen
b. Nitrogen dioxide
c. Nitrous oxide
d. Dinitrogen

Answer: (b)

When lead(II) nitrate is heated, it decomposes down into yellow colour lead (II) oxide, colourless gas of oxygen and brown colour nitrogen dioxide. The chemical equation for the above reaction is as follows :

2Pb(NO₃)₂(s) → 2PbO(s) + 4NO₂(g) + O₂(g)

Question 15. When a solution of lead(II) nitrate and potassium iodide are mixed, the yellow ppt is formed, the ppt is of________

a. KNO₃
b. KCl
c. PbI₂
d. PbI₄

Answer: (c)

The reaction between lead(III) nitrate and potassium iodide is a double displacement reaction in which a yellow coloured precipitate of lead iodide is obtained. The chemical equation for the above reaction is as follows:

Pb(NO₃)₂(aq) + 2KI (aq) → PbI₂(s) + 2KNO₃(aq)

Question 16. Baking powder is a mixture of __________

a. Sodium hydrogen carbonate and oxalic acid
b. Sodium carbonate and tartaric acid
c. Sodium hydrogen carbonate and tartaric acid
d. Sodium carbonate and oxalic acid

Answer: (c)

Baking powder is a mixture of baking soda (Sodium hydrogen carbonate-NaHCO₃) and tartaric acid (C₄H₆O₆).

Question 17. Aqua Regia is a mixture of concentrated hydrochloric acid and concentrated nitric acid in the ratio of ___________.

a. 3:1
b. 2:1
c. 1:5
d. 2:3

Answer: (a)

HCl : HNO₃

3 : 1

It is also known as Royal water which can even dissolve gold and platinum metals.

Question 18.

The products formed in the above reaction is/are

a. Ethene and H₂O
b. Ethyne and H₂O
c. Ethane and H₂O
d. Methane and H₂O

Answer: (a)

Concentrated sulphuric acid acts as a dehydrating agent at 443K. Thus, we will obtain ethene and a water molecule as products.

Question 19. Denatured alcohol is a mixture of

a. CH₃OH and HCHO
b. CH₃OH and CH₃COOH
c. C₂H₅OH and CH₃OH
d. C₂H₅OH and CH₃COOH

Answer: (c)

Denatured alcohol is ethyl alcohol (C₂H₅OH) which is made unfit for drinking by adding methyl alcohol (CH₃OH) in it.

Question 20. For welding, a mixture of oxygen and ______ is burnt.

a. Benzene
b. Butane
c. Methane
d. Ethyne

Answer: (d)

For welding, a mixture of oxygen and ethyne is burnt. It produces a temperature of about 3000℃.

Question 21. The following metals are arranged in the increasing order of their metallic character. Choose the correct option.

a. Be < Si < K < Al
b. Si < Be < Al < K
c. K < Al < Si < Be
d. Be < Si < Al < K

Answer: (b)

Metallic character increases down the group as the ability to lose electrons increases down the group. As we move from left to right in a period the metallic character decreases gradually.

Thus, Si < Be < Al < K will be the correct order of increasing metallic strength.

Silicon is a metalloid, and Be, Al and K are considered as metals.

Question 22. Which one of the following oxide is insoluble in water?

a. Na₂O
b. CuO
c. K₂O
d. CaO

Answer: (b)

Oxides of sodium, potassium and calcium usually form metal hydroxides with water which are soluble in water.

Question 23. Which of the following oxide turns red litmus into blue?

a. SO₂
b. CO₂
c. NO₂
d. KO₂

Answer: (d)

KO₂ will turn the red litmus blue as metal oxides are basic in nature.

Question 24. Which one of the following causes rainfall during winters in the north-west region of India?

a. Cyclonic depression
b. Western disturbances
c. Retreating monsoon
d. Southwest monsoon

Answer: (b)

Western disturbances is a type of extratropical cyclone originating over the Mediterranean region. It carries moisture towards the Indian subcontinent due to westerlies. This causes sudden rainfall during the winter in the northwestern parts of India.

Question 25. Which of the following elements does not show allotropy?

a. Phosphorus
b. Sulphur
c. Oxygen
d. Aluminium

Answer: (d)

Aluminium is the element which does not show allotropy.

Question 26. Which one of the following will have the largest number of atoms?

a. 100 g of He
b. 100 g of Na
c. 100 g of Li
d. 100 g of Al

Answer: (a)

One mole of any element = 6.022 ✕10²³ atoms. Thus, more the number of moles more will be the number of atoms.

No. of moles = Given weight of element/gram atomic weight

No. of moles ∝ 1/ Gram atomic weight

Helium has the lowest gram atomic weight. Thus, helium will have the maximum number of atoms.

BIOLOGY

Question 27. Rearrange the following sentences and choose the correct option.

A. Breakdown of H₂O into Hydrogen and Oxygen and Conversion of light energy into chemical energy

B. Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates.

C. Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll.

a. A B C
b. C B A
c. C A B
d. A C B

Answer: (c)

Photosynthesis is the process of conversion of light energy into chemical energy in the form of carbohydrates using CPM₂ and H₂O. It consists of two phases/reactions: Light phase and the dark phase. During light reaction, the light energy is absorbed by chlorophyll, which helps in the breakdown of H₂O into hydrogen and oxygen, thereby converting light energy into chemical energy. In the dark reaction, this chemical energy is stored in the form of carbohydrates by the reduction of CO₂.

Question 28. Deepak is trying to study the flow of energy in an area and he made the following diagram for the same. How will you interpret his observations?

a. His observations and number of trophic levels are wrong.
b. His observations are correct but the number of trophic levels can be more.
c. His observations are wrong but a number of trophic levels are correct.
d. His observations as well as the number of trophic levels are correct.

Answer: (a)

The observations made by Deepak are wrong as there is no correct order of arrangement of producers and consumers. As a result, the number of trophic levels are also incorrect.

Question 29. UV rays cause cancer but in the stratosphere, the same UV rays are helping us, how?

a. They divert harmful UV rays back to sun
b. They convert oxygen in the stratosphere into ozone
c. UV rays are not present in the stratosphere.
d. UV rays reach the earth surface then bounce back carrying ozone to the stratosphere

Answer: (b)

UV rays are high energy electromagnetic waves, which catalyse the breakdown of oxygen (O₂) into nascent oxygen (O) in the stratosphere, which further combines with oxygen (O₂) to form ozone (O₃) which protects us from the harmful UV radiation.

Question 30. Match the following.

a. i → a; ii → e; iii → d; iv → b; v → c
b. i → b; ii → d; iii → a; iv → c; v → e
c. i → b; ii → a; iii → d; iv → c; v → e
d. i → d; ii → e; iii → a; iv → c; v → b

Answer: (d)

Question 31. The opening and closing of the stomata depends upon:-

a. Oxygen
b. Temperature
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Water in guard cells

Answer: (d)

Opening and closing of stomata is regulated by water in the guard cells. When water flows into the guard cells, they swell up and stomata opens. When there is a loss of water from guard cells, they shrink and stomata closes.

Question 32. Sonu performed an experiment to study dihybrid cross for round/wrinkled and yellow/green coloured seeds. He obtained 2432 seeds in total. What will be the number of seeds which are round and yellow?

a. 1367
b. 1356
c. 1368
d. 1438

Answer: (c)

Mendel’s dihybrid crosses phenotypic ratio is 9:3:3:1.

Yellow round – 9

Yellow wrinkled – 3

Green round – 3

Green wrinkled – 1

Total number of seeds = 2432

Therefore, the number of seeds which are round and yellow = (9/16) x 2432 = 1368

Question 33. The stakeholders of various forest products are:

(i) People living near forests (ii) Government only

(iii) Nature lovers (iv) Wildlife

a. All options are correct
b. Only (i), (ii) and (iii) is correct
c. Only (ii) is incorrect
d. None of the options is correct.

Answer: (d)

The stakeholders are people or organisations who are dependent or interested in forests and its products which include people living in/or around forests. The forest department of the Government who owns the lands and controls its resources. Nature lovers and enthusiasts who want to conserve nature in its pristine form.

From the given options (i) and (iii) are correct. (ii) mentions only the Government as the stakeholder is incorrect. Hence (d) is the correct answer.

Question 34. Choose the correct sequence:

a. Pulmonary vein → Pulmonary artery → Left auricle → Right ventricle
b. Pulmonary artery → Right auricle → Left ventricle → Pulmonary vein
c. Right auricle → Pulmonary artery → Pulmonary vein → Left ventricle
d. Left ventricle → Pulmonary vein → Pulmonary artery → Right auricle

Answer: (c)

The sequence of double circulation includes:

Tissues → Veins → Vena cava → Right auricle → Right ventricle → Pulmonary artery → Lungs → Pulmonary vein → Left auricle → Left ventricle → Aorta → Arteries → Tissues

Question 35. Assertion (A): No carbon dioxide is released during the day in plants. Reason (R): Only photosynthesis occurs during the day.

a. ‘A’ is true and ‘R’ is false
b. ‘A’ is false and ‘R’ is true
c. Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are false
d. Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ does not explain ‘A’

Answer: (c)

Plants carry out both photosynthesis and respiration during the day.

Question 36. Choose the non-biodegradable substance from the following:

i. Carrot ii. Glass bottle

iii. Perfume spray bottle iv. Rice bran

v. Papaya vi. Thermocol

vii. Wooden stick viii. Ball pen refill

a. (ii), (iii), (vii), (viii)
b. (ii), (iii), (vi), (viii)
c. (iii), (i), (v), (vii)
d. (viii), (v), (i), (iii)

Answer: (b)

Non-biodegradable substances include glass bottle, perfume spray bottle, thermocol, and ball pen refill.

Biodegradable substances include carrot, rice bran, papaya, and a wooden stick.

Question 37. Match the column I and column II and select the correct option

a. A → 1; B → 2; C → 4; D → 2
b. A → 3; B → 1; C → 4; D → 2
c. A → 4; B → 3; C → 2; D → 1
d. A → 2; B → 1; C → 3; D → 4

Answer: (b)

Question 38. Which of the following is a barrier method of contraception?

a. Diaphragm
b. Contraceptive pills
c. Tubectomy
d. All of the above

Answer: (a)

The diaphragm is a method of barrier contraceptive. It is worn in the female vagina to prevent insemination.

Question 39. Sperms are produced in the:-

a. Seminiferous tubules
b. Interstitial cell
c. Vas deferens
d. Prostate gland

Answer: (a)

Seminiferous tubules present in the testicular lobules of the testis are the sites of production of sperms.

Question 40. Blood pressure is measured by an instrument called:-

a. Barometer
b. Sphygmomanometer
c. Photometer
d. Manometer

Answer: (b)

A sphygmomanometer is a device that is used to measure blood pressure.

MATHEMATICS

Question 41. If ABC is an equilateral triangle such that A(2, 2) and the centroid of the triangle is (-2, 2) then find the length of its side.
a. 4 units
b. 6 units
c. 4√3 units
d. 9 units

Answer: (c)

Let the centroid of the triangle be O.

Distance AO = = √(-2 – 2)² + (2 – 2)² = 4 units.

The centroid of a triangle is at 2/3^rd of the distance on the median from the vertex.

⅔ AD = AO = 4

AD = 6 units.

AD is a median. So ΔADB is a right-angle triangle.

AD/AB = cos 6^o (∠B is 60^o since ΔABC is an equilateral triangle.)

AB = 6/cos 60^{o =} 12/√3 = 4√3 units

Question 42. The sum of the n consecutive odd natural numbers starting from 5 is 60. Find the value of (n² – n).

a. 20
b. 30
c. 42
d. 56

Answer: (b)

Given series: 5 + 7 + 9 +…+ n = 60

The sum of consecutive odd numbers = n/2 (2a + (n-1)d)

(a is first number; d is the difference of consecutive numbers)

So. for the given series: n/2 (2(5) + (n-1)2) = 60

5n + n²-n = 60

n² + 4n = 60

n² + 10n – 6n – 60 = 0

(n + 10)(n – 6) = 0

n = 6 (Since n cannot be negative n = – 10 is ignored)

n² – n = 36 – 6 = 30

Question 43. The sum of the first ‘p’ odd natural numbers is 100 and the sum of the first ‘q’ even natural numbers is 90. Find the value of (p + q).

a. 18
b. 19
c. 20
d. 21

Answer: (b)

The sum of consecutive odd/ even numbers = n/2 (2a + (n-1)d)

(a is first number; d is the difference of consecutive numbers)

For the given odd number series:

p/2 (2(1) + (p – 1)2) = 100

p² = 100

p = 10

For the given even number series:

q/2 (2(2) + (q-1)2) = 90

q² + q = 90

q² + 10q – 9q – 90 = 0

(q + 10)(q – 9) = 0

q = 9 (Since q cannot be negative q = – 10 is ignored.)

p + q = 10 + 9 = 19

Question 44. If x + 1/y = 1 and y + 1/z = 1, then what is the value of (z + 1/x + 1)

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3

Answer: (c)

Question 45. If

a. 3pqr
b. 9pqr
c. 27pqr
d. 0

Answer: (c)

Let’s say that

So, a + b + c = 0

As we know a³ + b³ + c³ – 3abc = (a + b + c) (a² + b² + c² – ab – bc – ca)

a³ + b³ + c³ – 3abc = 0 (Since a + b + c = 0)

a³ + b³ + c³ = 3abc

Cubing the equation on both sides: (p + q + r)³ = 27pqr

Question 46. If a₁, a₂, a₃, ……anand b₁, b₂ , b₃, ……b_nare two A.P.’s such that a₁b₁ = 120, a₂ b₂ = 143, a₃b₃ = 154 then a₈b₈ =

a. 209
b. 89
c. 195
d. 29

Answer: (d)

Let us say the a – d , a , a + d are the first three terms of first A.P.

Similarly, b – x, b, b + x are the first three terms of the second A.P.

a₁b₁ = (a – d) (b – x) = 120 ⇒ ab – ax – db + dx = 120 ….(1)

a₂b₂ = ab = 143 ….(2)

a₃b₃ = (a + d) (b + x) = 154 ⇒ ab + ax + db + dx = 154 …. (3)

Eqn (1)+ (2) ⇒ 2ab + 2dx = 274

2(143) + 2dx = 274

dx = -6

Substituting ab = 143 and dx = -6 in the eqn (1)

143 – ax – db – 6 = 120

ax + db = 17

a₈b₈ = (a + 6d)(b + 6x) = ab + 6ax + 6bd + 36dx

= ab + 6(ax + bd) + 36dx

= 143 + 6(17) + 36(-6) = 29

Question 47. In a ∆ABC, AX bisects BC and AX is also the angle bisector of angle A. If AB = 12 cm, BX = 3 cm, then what is the area of ABC.

a. 9cm²
b. √2 cm²
c. 9√5 cm²
d. 9√15 cm²

Answer: (d)

Since AX bisect the line BC and is an angle bisector of ∠BAC, ΔBAC is an isosceles triangle.

So, AC = AB = 12 cm

Applying Heron’s formula:

Semiperimeter of ΔBAC = ½ (6 + 12 + 12 ) = 15 cm

Question 48. If ABCD and PQRS are two squares, such that the area of square PQRS is ‘A’ m², then find the value of √17A.

a. 12
b. 144
c. 16
d. 9

Answer: (a)

Question 49. If cos² θ + 2 sin² θ + 3 cos² θ + 4 sin² θ + ….+200 sin² θ = 10050, where is an acute angle, find the value of (sin θ +3cos θ)²

a. 8
b. 4
c. 2
d. 1

Answer: (a)

Given: cos² θ + 2 sin² θ + 3 cos² θ + 4 sin² θ + ….+200 sin² θ = 10050

cos² θ (1 + 3 + 5 + …. + 199) + sin² θ (2 + 4 + 6 +…. + 200 = 10050

cos² θ (100)² + 2 sin² θ (1 + 2 + 3 +…. + 100) = 10050

cos² θ (100)² + 2 sin² θ (100 ×101 / 2) = 10050

10000 cos² θ + 10100 sin² θ = 10050

10000 cos² θ + 10000 sin² θ + 100 sin² θ = 10050

10000 (cos² θ + sin² θ) + 100 sin² θ = 10050

10000 + 100 sin² θ = 10050

100 sin² θ = 50

sin² θ = 1/2

sin θ = 1/√2

= 45^o

(sin θ + 3 cos θ)² = (sin 45^o + 3 cos 45^o)² = (1/√2 + 3/√2)² = 8

Question 50. A ‘p’ m long wire is cut into two pieces one of which is bent into a circle and the other into a square enclosing the circle. What is the radius (in meter) of the circle?

a.

Question 51. In the figure, ABCD is a rectangle such that Area of ∆AOB = a m², Area of ∆AOD = b m² Area of ∆COD = c m² . Then the area of ∆BOC = (in m²)

a. a+b+c
b. a+b-c
c. b+c-a
d. a+c-b

Answer: (d)

Given: Area of ∆AOB = a m², Area of ∆AOD = b m² Area of ∆COD = c m²

From the figure:

Question 52. In ∆ABC, A semi-circle with DE as the diameter is drawn such that BC = 26 m. The radius R (in meter)

a. 3 + √3
b. 9 – √3
c. 9 + √3
d. 3 – √3

Answer: (b)

The lines DP, OQ and ES are drawn perpendicular to BC.

From the figure, ΔBPD is an isosceles right-angled triangle.

So BP = DP = R

The Quadrilateral DOQP is a square of side R. So PQ = R

The Quadrilateral EOQS is a square of side R. So QS = R

In ΔESD, SC = ES / tan 60^o = R/√3

Given: BC = 26 m

So, BP + PQ + QS + SC = 26 m

R + R + R + R/√3 = 26

(3√3 + 1)R = 26√3

Rationalising and simplifying the equation:

Question 53. If α, β and γ are the zeroes of a cubic polynomial ax³ + bx² + cx + d = 0, then the value of α + β + γ will be

a. b / a
b. -b / a
c. c / a
d. -c / a

Answer: (b)

Sum of roots of the cubic equation ax³ + bx² + cx + d = 0 is given by -b / a.

Hence, α + β + γ = -b / a

Question 54. The average age of all the 100 employees in an office is 29 years, where ⅔ employees are ladies. The ratio of the average age of men to women is 5 : 7. The average age of female employees is:

a. 18 years
b. 35 years
c. 25 years
d. None of these

Answer: (b)

Solution:

Number of female employees = ⅖ × 100 = 40

Number of male employees = 100 – 40 = 60

Given: Average age of all employees = 29 years

So a + b/100 = 29 ⇒ a + b = 2900 ….(1)

Let us say the total weight of male employees be a and female employees be b.

Then,

Substituting, a = 15/14b in the equation (1)

15/14 b + b = 2900

29b = 14 × 2900

b = 1400

Average age of the female employees = 1400/40 = 35 years

Question 55. If 1/a, 1/b, 1/c are in A.P., then b + a/b – a + b + c/b – c equals

a. 1
b. 2
c. b – c/a – b
d. ab/c

Answer: (b)

Given: 1/a, 1/b, 1/c are in A.P.

So, 1/b – 1/a = 1/c – 1/b (Since difference between two consecutive terms in A.P are same)

2/b = 1/a + 1/c ⇒ bc + ab

Question 56. If (x + k) is a common factor of (x² +px + q) and (x² + lx + m) then the value of k is

a. l + p
b. m – q
c. (l – p)/(m – q)
d. (m – q)/(l – p)

Answer: (d)

x² + px + q = 0

x² + lx + m = 0

If (x + k) is a common factor of both the equation x = -k will satisfy them.

So, k² – pk + q = 0…(1)

k² – lk + m = 0…(2)

Now subtracting equation (ii) from (i)

-pk + lk + q – m = 0

k(l – p) = m – q

k = (m – q)/(l – p)

Question 57. As a result of a 40% hike in the price of rice per kg., a person is able to purchase 10 kg less rice for Rs.1400. What was the original price of rice per kg?

a. Rs.50
b. Rs.60
c. Rs.40
d. Rs.30

Answer: (c)

Let the original price of 1kg of rice be ‘a’.

New price of rice per kg = a + 40/100 a = 1.4a

Quantity of rice purchased for ₹1400 when price per kg is a = 1400/a

Quantity of rice purchased for ₹1400 when price per kg is 1.4a = 1400/1.4a

1400/a – 1400/1.4a = 1400/a (0.4/1.4) = 1400/a (4/14) = 400/a

400/a = 10 (Since, at the increased price a person purchase 10kg less rice for ₹1400)

a = ₹40

Original price of 1kg of rice is ₹40.

Question 58. A man takes half time in rowing a certain distance downstream than upstream. What is the ratio of the speed of the boat in still water to the speed of the current?

a. 1 : 2
b. 2 : 1
c. 1 : 3
d. 3 : 1

Answer: (d)

Speed of the boat = a km/hr

Speed of the current = b km/hr

Speed of the boat in upstream = a – b

Speed of the current in downstream = a + b

Time taken to travel downstream = ½ (time taken to travel upstream)

So, Speed in downstream travel = 2 × Speed in upstream travel

a + b = 2(a – b)

a + b = 2a – 2b

a = 3b

a/b = 3/1

The ratio of the speed of boat to the speed of the current is 3:1

Question 59. The mean of a group of 20 consecutive natural numbers is M. What will be the percentage change in the mean when the last six consecutive natural numbers are left from the group?

a. 3M/100%
b. 3/M%
c. 300/M%
d. 30/M%

Answer: (c)

Solution:

Let a be the first number of the group of 20 consecutive numbers.

Sum of 20 consecutive numbers = a + (a + 1) + (a + 2) + …. +(a + 19)

= 20a + (1 + 2 + …+19) = 20a + 190

Average of the given 20 consecutive numbers = M

20a + 190/20 = M

If the last six numbers are removed from the group:

Sum of 14 consecutive numbers = a + (a + 1) + (a + 2) + …. +(a + 13)

= 14a + (1 + 2 + …+13) = 14a + 91

Average of the 14 consecutive numbers = N

14a + 91/14 = N

Question 60. One box contains four cards numbered 1, 3, 5 and 7 and another box contains four cards numbered as 2, 4, 6 and 8. One card is drawn from each box at random. The probability that the product of the numbers so drawn is more than 14 is:

a. ½
b. 7/10
c. 3/8
d. 5/8

Answer: (a)

Favourable cases = {(3 × 6), (3 × 8), (5 × 4), (5 × 6), (5 × 8), (7 × 4), (7 × 6), (7 × 8)} = 8

Total number of cases = 4 × 4 = 16

Probability = 8/16 = ½

Social Science

Question 61. “God save our Noble King” was the National Anthem of

a. Britain
b. Italy
c. Germany
d. France

Answer: (a)

“God save our Noble King” was the National Anthem of Britain. During the colonial era, the national anthem, the Union Jack and the English language were promoted by the British officials in subordinate territories.

Question 62. Who was the ruler of France during the French revolution?

a. Louis XV
b. Louis XIV
c. Louis XX
d. Louis XVI

Answer: (d)

During the French Revolution, France was under the rule of Louis XVI. He belonged to the Bourbon family of kings. His reign was marred with corruption which ultimately gave way to the revolution. On 21st January 1793, he was executed publicly after being found guilty of treason.

Question 63. Hitler was born in

a. France
b. Austria
c. Germany
d. Poland

Answer: (b)

Adolf Hitler was born in Austria in 1889. He rose to power as the chancellor of Germany and went on to become one of the most ruthless dictators of all time. He suicided in 1945.

Question 64. Who published ‘The folklores of southern India’?

a. Rabindra Nath Tagore
b. Natesa Sastri
c. Mahatma Gandhi
d. Pattabhi Srimalu

Answer: (b)

Natesa Sastri published ‘The folklores of southern India’ in Madras. It was a huge four-volume compilation of Tamil folk tales. He was of the opinion that folklore was a part of our national treasure and gave insights to people’s real thoughts and characteristics.

Question 65. A tax levied by the church, comprising one-tenth of the agricultural produce was

a. Livre
b. Taille
c. Tithe
d. None of these

Answer: (c)

Tithe was a tax levied by the church on the peasants. It comprised one-tenth of the total agricultural produce. It was a part of the religious obligations of Christians and can be dated back to the Old Testament.

Question 66. What was not the aim of the Swaraj Party?

a. To participate in Provincial council elections.
b. To oppose British policies within the councils.
c. To demonstrate that councils were not democratic
d. To make the Act of 1919 successful.

Answer: (d)

The Swaraj Party was established by Motilal Nehru and Dr C.R. Das in 1923. The party aimed to participate in the Provincial Council elections and oppose British policies from within the councils. With these, they also wanted to showcase the undemocratic nature of the provincial councils.

Question 67. Who formed the secret society “young Italy”?

a. Otto Van Bismarck
b. General Wan Run
c. Giuseppe Mazzini
d. King Victor Emmanual II

Answer: (c)

Giuseppe Mazzini was an Italian revolutionary. He founded two underground societies, Young Italy in Marseilles and Young Europe in Berne.

Question 68. The meaning of the symbol “Crown of Oak Leaves” was

a. Readiness to fight
b. Heroism
c. Being freed
d. Willingness to make peace

Answer: (b)

The “Crown of Oak Leaves” is a part of the allegorical figure Germania. Germania is an allegory of the German nation. She can be seen wearing the “Crown of Oak Leaves”. German oak represents heroism.

Question 69. Which was achieved by the “Enabling Act of 3 March, 1933 in Germany?

a. Established dictatorship
b. Hitler was appointed chancellor
c. Establishment of German workers Party
d. Establishment of Weimar Republic

Answer: (a)

The Enabling Act of 3rd March 1933 established a dictatorship in Germany. It gave absolute powers to Hitler. All other parties except the Nazi Party and its affiliates were banned. The state established absolute control over the army, economy, judiciary and media.

Question 70. Which of the following was not related to Gandhi Irwin Pact 1931?

a. Government agreed to release the Political prisoners.
b. Gandhi Ji consented to participate in the second Round Table Conference.
c. Formation of the Simon Commission.
d. Gandhi Ji called off the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Answer: (c)

The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed on 5th March, 1931. According to this peace pact, Irwin agreed to release political prisoners except those who were involved in violence and to allow Indians to make salt for domestic use. In return, Gandhi agreed to call off the Civil Disobedience movement and to attend the Second Round Table Conference in London.

Question 71. In Swaraj Flag (1921), Self Help was represented by

a. Flower
b. Crescent Moon
c. Two Ox
d. Spinning wheel

Answer: (d)

The Swaraj Flag was designed by a team led by Mahatma Gandhi in 1921. It was a tricolour flag with the Charkha, or a spinning wheel in the centre. The three colours of the flag- red stood for the sacrifice of the people, white for purity and green for hope. Charkha was popularised by Gandhi and it became a symbol of self-dependence for Indians. It was also a symbol of rebellion against colonial rule.

Question 72. Coffee cultivation was first introduced in

a. Himalayas
b. Aravali Hills
c. Garo Hills
d. Baba Budan Hills

Answer: Bonus

Question 73. Which one of the following groups of state has the largest number of cotton textile centres?

a. Gujarat and Maharashtra
b. Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
c. Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh
d. Uttar Pradesh and Gujarat

Answer: (a)

Cotton textile mills are concentrated in the Deccan plateau and its peripheral regions. The availability of raw material and skilled labour influence the location of the cotton textile mills. Though distributed in various states, Gujarat and Maharashtra have the largest number of cotton textile centres.

CHEMISTRY

Question 74. Which one of the following describes a system of agriculture where a single crop is grown on a large area?

a. Shifting Agriculture
b. Plantation Agriculture
c. Horticulture
d. Intensive Agriculture

Answer: (b)

In the case of Plantation Agriculture., a single crop is grown on a large area. It is a type of commercial farming where crops are grown to sell in the market. This type of farming requires large amounts of labour and capital. The major crops grown are Tea, coffee, sugarcane, cashew, rubber, banana or cotton.

Question 75. Neyveli lignite mines are located in the state of

a. Kerala
b. Tamil Nadu
c. Karnataka
d. Andhra Pradesh

Answer: (b)

Lignite is low-grade coal with high moisture content. Large reserves and mines of lignite coal are located in Neyveli district of Tamil Nadu.

Question 76. Which of the following regions is suitable for constructing railway lines?

a. Himalaya Mountains Range
b. Garo, Khasi and Jaintia Hills
c. The northern Plains
d. Rajasthan desert

Answer: (c)

The northern plains region is suitable for construction of railway lines. The uneven terrain of mountainous or hilly areas makes it challenging to lay railway tracks and operate. Similarly, sandy areas like Rajasthan desert is not suitable for construction and operation of railway lines.

Question 77. Hirakud Dam is constructed on the river –

a. Ganga
b. Manjira
c. Manas
d. Mahanadi

Answer: (d)

Hirakud, the longest earthen dam of the world is constructed on the Mahanadi river. It is located near Sambalpur, Odisha.

Question 78. When and where was the first cement plant set up?

a. Chennai, 1905
b. Chennai, 1904
c. Kolkata, 1905
d. Kolkata, 1904

Answer: (b)

Cement is essential for all construction activities. India’s first cement plant was established in Chennai in 1904. As of 2019, India is the second-largest cement producer in the world and accounted for over 8 % of the global installed capacity.

Question 79. Who wrote the book “Small is Beautiful”?

a. Gandhi Ji
b. Brundtland
c. Schumacher
d. Annie Besant

Answer: (c)

“Small is Beautiful” was written by E.F. Schumacher. The book concentrates on the ideas of sustainable development and resource conservation.

Question 80. In which city of Haryana is the automobile industry situated?

a. Faridabad
b. Gurgaon
c. Panipat
d. Sonipat

Answer: (b)

Haryana’s automobile industry is majorly concentrated in the city of Gurgaon. It is the location for many automobile manufacturing plants owned by companies like Maruti Suzuki, Hero Moto Corp, Honda etc.

Question 81. According to the main role, industry can be divided into

a. Agro-based and mineral-based
b. Key and consumer industries
c. Public, private, and Joint sector
d. Heavy and light industries

Answer: (b)

Based on the main role, industries can be divided into Key and consumer industries. Key industries are those that supply their products as raw materials to other industries to manufacture final goods. Steel and iron industries are such key industries. On the other hand, consumer industries produce goods for direct consumer consumption.

Question 82. Which of the following is not a property of Mica?

a. Conducting properties
b. Excellent dielectric strength
c. Less power loss factor
d. Resistance to high voltage

Answer: (a)

Mica is a shiny, non-metallic mineral. It is fairly light and relatively soft. Mica is heat-resistant and also it does not conduct electricity

Question 83. Who was the chairman of the drafting committee of Indian Constituent Assembly?

a. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
b. Dr. B.R. Verma
c. Dr. B.R. Menon
d. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Answer: (d)

The drafting committee was formed on 29th August, 1947 under the leadership of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar along with six other members in order to prepare a Draft Constitution for India. The Constituent Assembly took precisely two years, eleven months and seventeen days to submit the final draft. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar is famously known as the architect of the Indian Constitution.

Question 84. Amnesty International is an international organisation which works for

a. World Peace
b. Human Rights
c. World Justice
d. Restoration of Democracy

Answer: (b)

Amnesty International is a UK based non-governmental organisation that advocates for human rights and voices against its violation. Founded in the year 1961, the organisation seeks to address issues like abolishing capital punishment, refugee and migrants rights, sexual and reproductive rights and fighting against discrimination as a whole.

Question 85. The movement that seeks equality in the personal and family life of women is known as –

a. Narivadi Andolan
b. Nari Sashaktikaran Andolan
c. Mahila Shakti Andolan
d. Mahila Adhikar Andolan

Answer: (a)

Narivadi Andolan refers to the feminist movement in India. It fights for the equality of women in social, political and economic spheres. The movement fights against gender discrimination in every sphere. Gender equality being its ultimate vision, it seeks equality for women in personal and professional lives.

Question 86. A person who is not a member of Parliament is appointed as minister, he/she has to get elected to one of the houses of Parliament within:

a. A month
b. Three months
c. Six months
d. Selected time is fixed by the President

Answer: (c)

According to article 75 of the Constitution of India, any citizen of India can become a minister provided that he/she becomes a member of parliament within a period of six months. Provided that he/she possesses all the required criteria to become a Member of the Parliament. If not, he/she ceases to remain as a minister.

Question 87. Who becomes the members of Gram Sabha?

a. Only elderly people
b. Only elected members of Gram Panchayat
c. All the voters of the village
d. Only the youth of the village

Answer: (c)

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 recognises all registered voters of a village (above 18 years old) as members of their Gram Sabha. They elect members to Gram panchayat.

Question 88. President declares emergency when:-

a. Prime minister advises him to do so
b. Parliament advises him to declare
c. The council of ministers, in writing, advises him to declare
d. Home minister asks him to declare

Answer: (c)

According to articles 352, 356 and 360 of the Indian Constitution, the President shall declare an emergency for the whole of India or specific parts of India. However, the President can proclaim an emergency only when the council of ministers led by the Prime Minister confirms a written recommendation advising the President to declare an emergency.

Question 89. In case of conflict between the Central Government and the State Government over the subject in the Concurrent list:

a. The Supreme Court decides which of the two should be considered.
b. The state government should be obeyed.
c. The central government should be obeyed.
d. Both governments should be obeyed.

Answer: (c)

Article 254 of the Constitution of India deals with the doctrine of repugnancy. In case of a conflict between central and state governments on a particular subject in the concurrent list, the decision of the central government would prevail.

Question 90. What is the Midterm Election?

a. Election for the seat to be vacated due to some reason.
b. Election in the event of the death of one member.
c. Election to be held in the whole country or state before the scheduled time.
d. Completion of 5 years election.

Answer: (c)

Midterm elections are held in India when the central government or a state government loses its majority in the parliament or assembly before completing its full term\ scheduled time. The house stands to be dissolved and midterm elections are held cause formation of an alternate government is not possible.

Question 91. In India, seats are reserved for women in which of the following bodies:-

a. In Lok Sabha
b. In State Legislatures
c. In Rajya Sabha
d. In Panchayati Raj

Answer: (d)

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 provides reservation of one-third of the total number of seats in the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) for women. Further, Article 243D of the Constitution of India states one-third of the offices of chairpersons at all levels be reserved for women. Also, several states like Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh have increased the reservation of seats for women to 50 per cent.

Question 92. Which famous Revolution took place in world history in 1789 –

a. Russian Revolution
b. American Revolution
c. German Revolution
d. French Revolution

Answer: (d)

The French Revolution of 1789 was a significant event in world history that resulted in a major social upheaval. It brought changes to the relationship between the rulers and the ruled and redefined the nature of modern political power. The event was a result of people’s angst against their King Louis XVI because of his failure to ensure a decent life for the people of France.

Question 93. Main Recommendation of Mandal Commission was:

a. Reservation for Socially and Educationally Backward Classes.
b. Reservation for schedule caste.
c. Reservation for schedule Tribes.
d. Reservation for Minorities.

Answer: (a)

Moraji Desai, former Indian prime minister, set up the Social and Economically Backward Classes Commission (SEBC) on 1st January 1979 to identify the socially and economically weaker sections and ensure them job opportunities through the reservation policy. The Commission chaired by B.P. Mandal recommended reserving 27% seats in central government jobs to the population recognised as the Other Backward Classes or the OBC.

Question 94. Capital requirement of “NABARD” (National Bank of Agriculture and Rural Development) are met by which of the following institution –

a. Reserve Bank of India
b. International Development Association (IDA)
c. World Bank
d. All of the above

Answer: (d)

NABARD- National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development is a development financial institution focusing primarily on the country’s rural sectors. It is the apex banking institution to provide credits and refinance for Agriculture and rural development. The government of India, Reserve Bank of India, International Development Association (IDA) and the World Bank infuses capital into Nabard, Which are spent for various projects and schemes

Question 95. Golden Revolution in India is related

a. Jewellery Export
b. Gold mines
c. Honey and Horticulture
d. Electronic Goods

Answer: (c)

The Golden Revolution in India refers to a revolution in the production of honey and horticultural produce. Nirpakh Tutej is known as the father of the Golden Revolution in India. As a result, India became the world’s second-largest producer of fruits and vegetables. The Golden Revolution made a fruitful impact on the lives of workers involved in honey and horticultural production in India, therefore, enhancing their lives.

Question 96. Which of the following is not a renewable resource?

a. Forest
b. Animals
c. Water
d. Petroleum

Answer: (d)

A nonrenewable resource is a natural resource that is not replenished with the speed at which it is consumed. It is a limited resource. All carbon-based fossil fuels like petroleum, diesel, coal and natural gas are non-renewable energy resources.

Question 97. Which of the following is not related to agriculture marketing?

a. Storage
b. Use of chemical fertilizers
c. Processing
d. Preservation

Answer: (b)

Agricultural marketing refers to all the activities that are involved in the transfer of an agricultural product from the producer to the consumer. It includes storage, processing and preservation. In other words, the processes involved in transforming an agriculture product into a commodity to be available in the market for consumers to purchase.

Question 98. When an able person is willingly unemployed while there is an opportunity to work is known as

a. Disguised unemployment
b. Voluntary unemployment
c. Seasonal unemployment
d. Educated unemployment

Answer: (b)

Voluntary unemployment is a situation in which a person remains willingly unemployed although a suitable job may be available for him/her. Voluntary unemployment is distinguished from involuntary unemployment in which people who are willing to work may not manage to find a job due to lack of job opportunities and other factors.

Question 99. The production unit producing shoe comes under

a. Primary sector
b. Secondary sector
c. Tertiary sector
d. None of the above

Answer: (b)

Shoe production involves the transformation of raw material (leather, in this case) into a finished product which is ready for consumption. Hence, shoe production comes under the secondary sector. India is the second-largest producer of footwear in the world after China. India’s footwear production accounts for 13% of the world’s total footwear production.

Question 100. Which of the following prepares the Human Development Report?

a. Planning Commission of India
b. International Monetary Fund
c. World Health Organisation
d. United Nation Development Programme

Answer: (d)

The Human Development Index is a measure of development and standard of living. It is measured in terms of life expectancy, access to education and healthcare and per capita income. HDI is measured by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) every year.