Punjab 2020-21 NTSE Stage 1 Answer Key & Question Paper With Solutions

Paper: MAT

Directions (1 – 8): There is a number series following a pattern. One place is left blank. Find the correct answer from the given options:

Question 1. 65, 64, 60, 51, 35, ______

a. 15
b. 10
c. 20
d. 25

Answer: (b)

65 – (1)² = 64

64 – (2)² = 60

60 – (3)² = 51

51 – (4)² = 35

35 – (5)² = 10

So, the answer is 10.

Question 2. 5, 16, 51, 158, _______

a. 474
b. 478
c. 481
d. 483

Answer: (c)

Question 3. 2, 1, 4, 3, 6, 5, 8, ……

a. 9
b. 10
c. 7
d. 11

Answer: (c)

Question 4. 1, 2, 10, 37, 101, ……

a. 215
b. 218
c. 226
d. 229

Answer: (c)

Question 5. 2, 6, 30, 60, 130, ……

a. 180
b. 200
c. 210
d. 230

Answer: (c)

Question 6. 28, 34, 35, 37, 41, _______

a. 46
b. 49
c. 42
d. 44

Answer: (d)

Adding non-negative difference of digits of the number i.e. |x–y| for next term.

Question 7. 4, 10, 28, ….., 244, 730

a. 88
b. 90
c. 82
d. 78

Answer: (c)

Question 8. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, …..

a. 12
b. 14
c. 16
d. 13

Answer: (d)

2, 3, 5, 7, 11

This is a prime number series.

So, the next number is 13.

Directions for (9 – 11): The letters follow a definite pattern. Find the missing letters to complete the pattern.

Question 9. _ aa _ ba _ bb _ ab _ aab

a. aaabb
b. babab
c. bbaab
d. baabb

Answer: (c)

_ aa _ ba _ bb _ ab _ aab

The pattern of this series is ba, ab, ba, ab, …..

So, the sequence will be

baabbaabbaabbaab ⇒ bbaab

Question 10. 2 _ 5 _ 114 _ 3 _ 2 _ 5 _ 1

a. 354321
b. 123452
c. 345234
d. 542341

Answer: (c)

2 _ 5 _ 114 _ 3 _ 2 _ 5 _ 1

Total 15 numbers are there. They are in 3 pairs having 5 numbers in each.

Question 11. c _ bba _ cab _ ac _ ab _ ac

a. bcbac
b. cabcb
c. accbc
d. acbcd

Answer: Bonus

c a bba c cab b ac c ab b ac

The following sequence is cab, bac, cab, bac, ….

So, acbcb.

Question 12. If PAINT = 74128, EXCEL = 93596 then ACCEPT = ?

a. 455978
b. 459578
c. 457958
d. 459758

Answer: (a)

Question 13. If HANDWASH = 225, SANETIZER = 81 then VITAMINCD = ?

a. 196
b. 256
c. 324
d. 169

Answer: (a)

Writing the alphabet in their alphabetical order we get

Question 14. A boy who was born on 29^th February 1896, when did he celebrate his first birthday?

a. 29^th February 1897
b. 29^th February 1900
c. 29^th February 1904
d. 29^th February 1908

Answer: (c)

A boy was born on 29^th Feb 1896.

As we know leap year repeats after every 4 years but in century years, it was repeated after 8 years.

So, his 1^st birthday will be in the next leap year i.e. 1904

Hence, 29^th Feb 1904 is the correct option.

Question 15. What was the day of the week on 9^th October 1944?

a. Friday
b. Sunday
c. Tuesday
d. Monday

Answer: (d)

9^th October 1944

Total odd days = 1 + 6 + 5 + 1 = 15 ⇒ 1 (odd day)

So, 9^th October 1944 was a Monday.

Directions for (16 – 18): Using the relation between the items which of the following is the most suitable diagram:

Question 16. Flowers, Clothes, Red

Answer: (c)

Question 17. Mountains, Sea, Island

Answer: (d)

Question 18. Earth, Forest, Mountain

Answer: (a)

Directions for (19 – 22): Developing a relationship among items on the left side of sign :: find a relationship on the right side of : by choosing from given options.

Question 19. Contamination : food :: infection : ?

a. Germs
b. Disease
c. Body
d. Microbes

Answer: (c)

As the food is affected by contamination.

So, the body is affected by infections.

Question 20. Arc: Circle:: line : ?

a. Point
b. Rectangle
c. Ellipse
d. Sphere

Answer: (b)

Arc is a part of the circle.

Similarly, the line is a part of the rectangle.

Question 21. 85 : 40 :: 77 : ?

a. 44
b. 48
c. 49
d. 50

Answer: (c)

85 : 40 :: 77 : ?

85 ⇒ 8 × 5 = 40

Similarly, 77 ⇒ 7 × 7 = 49

Question 22. 8 : 32 : 10 : ?

a. 42
b. 50
c. 44
d. 60

Answer: (b)

8 : 32 : 10 : ?

⇒8×8/2=32

Similarly, 10⇒10×10/2=50

Directions for (23 – 25): Cube of edge 12 cm is painted on all of its faces and then divided into number of cubes each of edge 2 cm, Based on this ans. the following questions:

Edge of cube = 12 cm

Edge of smaller cube = 2 cm

So, the number of cubes = ((larger cube)/(smaller cube) )^3

Let ‘n’ = (size of larger cube)/(size of smaller cube)

n³ = (12/2 )³ = 6³ = 216

Question 23. How many cubes have only two faces painted?

a. 48
b. 56
c. 64
d. 8

Answer: (a)

Number of cubes with 2 faces painted

= 12(n–2)

There n-2 cube which are painted with only 2 sides painted and there are 12 such

edges

= 12 × (6 – 2)

= 48 cubes

Question 24. How many cubes have no face painted?

a. 56
b. 48
c. 96
d. 64

Answer: (d)

Number of cubes have no face painted

= (n–2)³

= (6 – 2)³

= 4³ = 64 cubes

Question 25. How many cubes have at least two faces painted?

a. 56
b. 48
c. 96
d. 64

Answer: (a)

Number of cubes with at least 2 faces painted

= number of cubes with 2 faces painted + number of cubes with 3 faces painted

Number of cubes with 2 faces painted is given by

= 12(n–2)

There n-2 cube which are painted with only 2 sides painted and there are 12 such edges

= 12 × (6 – 2)

= 48 cubes

number of cubes with 3 faces painted = 8 (corner cubes)

= 48 + 8

= 56 cubes

Directions for (26 – 30): Find the missing item that will come in place of question mark?

Question 26. Find the missing item.

a. 16
b. 21
c. 24
d. 22

Answer: (a)

(84 ÷ 12) × 2

(81 ÷ 9) × 2

⇒ 7 × 2 = 14

9 × 2 = 18

Similarly (88 ÷ 11) × 2

8 × 2 = 16

Question 27. Find the missing item.

a. 760
b. 425
c. 875
d. 607

Answer: (a)

Here we have to multiply the opposite number and then write them in respective order.

Therefore, the number becomes ⇒ 760

Question 28. Find the missing item.

a. 42
b. 44
c. 46
d. 48

Answer: (c)

First row is – 1 = 24

Second row is – 5 = 76

Similarly, the third row will be – 3 = 46

Question 29. Find the missing item.

a. 8
b. 10
c. 14
d. 16

Answer: (c)

Here, every succeeding number is added with twice the previous number.

Question 30. Find the missing item.

a. M42
b. M48
c. N64
d. M33

Answer: (a)

Question 32. Value of P

a. 8
b. 7
c. 0
d. 3

Answer: (c)

Value of P is = 0

(Refer Solution Image of Question 31)

Question 33. Value of B

a. 7
b. 8
c. 5
d. 3

Answer: (b)

Value of B is 8

(Refer Solution Image of Question 31)

Directions (34-35): Find the correct group of signs to solve the equation.

Question 34. 24* 34* 2* 5*12

a. + ÷ × =
b. ÷ + = −
c. = ÷ + −
d. = ÷ − +

Answer: (d)

a. 24 + 34 ÷ 2 × 5 = 12 (Not correct)

b. 24 ÷ 34 + 2 = 5 – 12 (Not correct)

c. 24 = 34 ÷ 2 + 5 – 12 (Not correct)

d. 24 = 34 ÷ 2 – 5 + 12 (Correct)

Question 35. 7* 4*8* 2* 24

a. × = ÷ +
b. + − = ×
c. × = ÷ −
d. × + ÷ =

Answer: (a)

a. 7 × 4 = 8 ÷ 2 + 24 (Correct)

b. 7 + 4 – 8 = 2 × 24 (Not correct)

c. 7 × 4 = 8 ÷ 2 – 24 (Not correct)

d. 7 × 4 + 8 ÷ 2 = 24 (Not correct)

Question 36. A person is facing northwest. He turns 90° in the clockwise direction and then turns 180° anticlockwise direction and now turns 90° in the same direction. In which direction is he facing now?

a. South West
b. West
c. South East
d. South

Answer: (c)

Question 37. A and B start walking from a point in opposite directions. A covers 3 km and B covers 4 km, then A turns right and walks 4 km while B turns left and walks 3 km. How far is each from the starting point?

a. 4 km, 5 km
b. 5 km, 5 km
c. 10 km, 4 km
d. 8 km, 4 km

Answer: (b)

Question 38. What will be the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock when the time is 3:27?

a. 58 (1/2)^o
b. 47 (1/2)^o
c. 60^o
d. 57^o

Answer: (a)

Angle moved by hour hand per minute = 360/60 = 6°

Angle moved by hour hand per minute = 360/12 x 60 = 0.5°

Net angle made between them per minute 6° – 0.5° = 5.5°

Angle made in 27 minute after 3 o’ clock = 27 x 5.5° = 148.5°

But they already has 90°

Net angle at 3:27 = 148° – 90° = 58.5°

Question 39. In a class tournament, each of seven players will play with every other player exactly once. How many matches will be played during the tournament?

a. 12
b. 14
c. 21
d. 18

Answer: (c)

Number of matches played by n players = (n(n – 1))/2

n = 7

Number of matches = (7(7 – 1))/2

= 7 × 6/2⇒ 21

Question 40. A mirror is placed in front of the clock, the clock shows time 5:40. What time will be of its reflection in the mirror?

a. 4:40
b. 6:40
c. 6:20
d. 7:20

Answer: (c)

Question 41. How many numbers from 3 to 90 are there each of which is exactly divisible by 4 and also its one of the digit as 4?

a. 21
b. 10
c. 20
d. 7

Answer: (d)

The numbers from 3 to 90 which are exactly divisible by 4 are

4, 8, 12, 16, 20, 24, 32, 36, 40, 44, 48, 52, 56, 60, 64, 68, 72, 76, 80, 84, 88

But each number should have 4 as its digit.

∴ The required number are

4, 24, 40, 44, 48, 64, 84

Hence, the total number is 7.

Question 42. Anuj is twelfth from the right and fifth from the left in a line of boys. How many boys should be added to the line such that there may be 30 boys in a line?

a. 16
b. 14
c. 15
d. 12

Answer: (b)

Left ___ 12th____ Right

5 boys| Anuj |11 boys

∴ Total boys on both sides of Anuj = 11 + 5 = 16

To make it 30, we need to add = 30–16 = 14

Question 44. How many nephews does F have?

a. None
b. 3
c. 1
d. 2

Answer: (d)

We can see from the diagram that A and D are the two Nephews of F

Question 45. How is E related to F?

a. Wife
b. Sister
c. Niece
d. Daughter

Answer: (c)

We can see from the diagram that E is the niece of F.

Question 46. In a certain code, BEAT is written as YVZG then what will be the code of MILD?

a. ONRW
b. ONWR
c. NROW
d. NOWR

Answer: (c)

Here we need to write the alphabet in reverse order and place them against them, to get the corresponding letter.

Question 47. If REASON is coded as 5 and BELIEVED as 7 then what is a code for GOVERNMENT?

a. 8
b. 10
c. 9
d. 6

Answer: (c)

R E A S O N

(Total number –1) ⇒ 6 – 1 = 5

BELIEVED

(Total number –1) ⇒ 8 – 1 = 7

GOVERNMENT

(Total number –1) ⇒ 10 – 1 = 9

Question 48. If the sky is called sea, the sea is called water, water is called air, air is called cloud, the cloud is called river then what we drink when thirsty?

a. Sky
b. Water
c. Air
d. Sea

Answer: (c)

Sky → sea

Sea → water

Water→air

Air → cloud

So we drink water and water is called ‘Air’.

So, air is the answer.

Question 49. If in a certain code:

‘Where are you’ ‘written as ‘pit ka ta’

‘Are they there’ written as ‘sa da ka’

‘They may Come’ written as ‘da na ja’

Then how ‘there’ will be written in that language?

a. da
b. sa
c. ka
d. ta

Answer: (b)

Are is ‘ka’

they is ‘da’

From first statement we get

There is ‘sa’

Directions: (50-53): Read the information carefully and answer questions (50-53). Six persons are sitting in a circle. A is facing B. B is to the right of E and left of C. C is to the left of D. F is to the right of A. Now D exchanges his seat with F and E exchanges with B.

Question 50. Who will be sitting to the left of D?

a. B
b. F
c. E
d. A

Answer: (d)

All person face center

Question 51. Who will be sitting to the left of C?

a. E
b. F
c. A
d. B

Answer: (a)

Question 52. Who will be sitting opposite to A?

a. E
b. F
c. D
d. B

Answer: (a)

Question 53. Who will be sitting opposite of C?

a. E
b. D
c. B
d. A

Answer: (b)

Question 54. Which of the following words can be formed from CORRIGENDUM?

a. ERROR
b. MURDER
c. DANGER
d. GENDER

Answer: (b)

Direction (55-58): Read the information represented by Figure and answer the questions

In the figure, rectangle, square, circle and triangle represent the regions of wheat,

gram, maize and rice cultivation respectively.

Question 55. Which area is cultivated by all four crops?

a. 7
b. 8
c. 9
d. 2

Answer: (a)

Question 56. Which area is cultivated by wheat and maize only?

a. 8
b. 6
c. 5
d. 4

Answer: (d)

Question 57. Which area is cultivated by rice only?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 5
d. 11

Answer: (a)

Question 58. Which area is cultivated by rice and maize only?

a. 9
b. 8
c. 2
d. 7

Answer: (c)

Directions: (59-63) Study the given information carefully and answer the questions.

– Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U are members of a club and play different games including football, cricket, tennis, basketball, badminton and volleyball.

– T who is taller than P and S, plays tennis.

– The tallest among them plays basketball

– The shortest among them plays volleyball.

– Q and S neither play Volleyball nor Basketball.

– R plays Volleyball

– T is between Q who plays football and P in order of height.

Question 59. Who among them is taller than R but shorter than P?

a. Q
b. U
c. S
d. T

Answer: (c)

Filing the table as per condition we get

Longest/Tallest →

U→Basketball

Q→Football

T→Tennis

P→Cricket/Badminton

S→Cricket/Badminton

Shortest → R→Volleyball

order: U > Q > T > P > S > R

Question 60. Who will be at the second place if they are arranged in descending order of their heights?

a. Q
b. R
c. S
d. T

Answer: (a)

Longest/Tallest U – Basketball

Q – Football

T – Tennis

P – Cricket/Badminton

S – Cricket/Badminton

Shortest R – Volleyball

Order: U > Q > T > P > S > R

Q is in second position.

Question 61. Who among them plays basketball?

a. Q
b. R
c. T
d. U

Answer: (d)

Longest/Tallest U-Basketball

Q-Football

T-Tennis

P-Cricket/Badminton

S-Cricket/Badminton

Shortest R-Volleyball

Order: U > Q > T > P > S > R

U plays basketball.

Question 62. Who among them is shortest in height?

a. P
b. Q
c. R
d. S

Answer: (c)

Longest/Tallest UBasketball

Q-Football

T-Tennis

P-Cricket/Badminton

S-Cricket/Badminton

Shortest R-Volleyball

order: U > Q > T > P > S > R

R is shortest in height.

Question 63. Who among them is longest in height?

a. T
b. U
c. P
d. S

Answer: (b)

Longest/Tallest UBasketball

QFootball

TTennis

PCricket/Badminton

SCricket/Badminton

Shortest RVolleyball

order: U > Q > T > P > S > R

U is the longest in height.

Directions: (64-65): In each of the questions arrange the given words in alphabetical order and choose the one that comes last.

Question 64. Choose the one that comes last.

a. Butter
b. Butler
c. Button
d. Butcher

Answer: (c)

Butcher → Butler → Butter → Button

Question 65. Choose the one that comes last.

a. Colon
b. Collective
c. Colloid
d. College

Answer: (a)

Collective → College → Colloid → Colon

Directions: (66-67): From the given words, select the words which cannot be formed using theletters of the given word.

Question 66. DISTRIBUTION

a. TRUST
b. SITUATION
c. TUTION
d. DISTURB

Answer: (b)

DISTRIBUTIONSITUATION can’t be formed from it, as ‘A’ is not present in

DISTRIBUTION.

Question 67. ARTICULATES:

a. COURTS
b. LATER
c. TALES
d. ARTICLE

Answer: (a)

ARTICULATESCOURTS can’t be formed from it, as o is not present in ARTICULATES.

Question 68. The six faces of the die have been written with alphabets A, B, C, D, E and F respectively. This die is rolled down three times as shown in figure.

Find the alphabet Opposite to A.

a. B
b. C
c. D
d. E

Answer: (d)

Form Fig. (ii) and (iii), show, it is clear that C, D, B and F cannot appear opposite E. So, A appears opposite E.

Question 69. Given below are two different positions of a dice. Find the number of dots on the face opposite to face bearing 3 dots?

a. 1
b. 6
c. 4
d. 5

Answer: (b)

From figure (I)→ 2, 3 and 4 dots are adjacent.

From figure (II)→ 2, 4 and 6 dots are adjacent.

Therefore, 3 and 6 dots must be opposite each other.

Question 70. How many triangles are there in the figure given below?

a. 4
b. 12
c. 16
d. 10

Answer: (b)

For total possible triangle = 12

ΔPQW, ΔQXW, ΔQXS, ΔQSR, ΔUXS, ΔSTU, ΔUXW, ΔUVW, ΔQUW, ΔQSU, ΔQSW, ΔSUW

Directions: (71-72) In each of the following questions choose the correct water – image of the figure (X) from amongst four given alternatives.

Question 71. Choose the correct water –image.

Answer: (d)

Question 72. Choose the correct water –image.

Answer: (b)

Directions: (73-75): In each of the following questions a part of the questions figure is missing. Choose the correct answer figure to complete the question that can replace?

Question 73. (Question figure)

Answer: (b)

Question 74. (Question figure)

Answer: (c)

Question 75. (Question figure)

Answer: (a)

Directions: (76 – 78) Find the figure from Answer Figures which will continue the series in question.

Question 76. (Question figure)

(Answer figure)

Answer: (d)

Question 77. (Question figure)

(Answer figure)

Answer: (b)

From (a) to (b), the left-bottom curve becomes a vertical line.

From (b) to (c), the right-bottom curve becomes a vertical line.

From (c) to (d), the left-middle curve becomes a vertical line.

Similarly, in the next figure right-middle curved becomes a vertical line.

Question 78. (Question figure)

(Answer figure)

Answer: (c)

From (a) to (b),

• moves 1 step diagonally upwards.

× moves 1 step to the left.

And a new symbol Δ introduced in the middle of the third row in (b)

From (b) to (c),

• and × moves 1 step diagonally upwards

Δ moves 1 step to the left.

And a new symbol ? introduce in the middle of third row in ©

From (c) to (d),

• moves 1 step to the left,

× and Δ moves 1 step diagonally upwards,

? moves 1 step to the left,

And a new symbol S introduced in the middle of the third row in (d).

Similarly, in next figure,

• and × moves 1 step to the left,

? and Δ moves 1 step diagonally upwards,

S moves 1 step to the left.

A new symbol Y introduces in the middle of the third row in the new figure, which is in the figure in option (c).

Directions: (79-81) Find the different figure from the others.

Question 79. Find the figure which is different.

Answer: (b)

Question 80. Find the figure which is different.

Answer: (d)

Lines in option (a), (b) and (c) are perpendicular to each other whereas lines in option (d) are not perpendicular to each other.

Question 81. Find the figure which is different.

Answer: (d)

In the figures in option (a), (b) and (c), there is one box and 3 lines whereas in

option (d), there is one box and 2 lines. Hence, the figure in option (d) is different

from others.

Directions: (82-84) In each of the following questions, there are three figures X, Y and Z showing a sequence of folding a piece of paper. Figure Z shows the manner in which the folded paper has been cut. These figures are followed by four other figures from which you have to choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of a figure (Z).

Question 82. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form.

Answer: (d)

Question 83. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form.

Answer: (d)

Question 84. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form.

Answer: (c)

Direction: (85 – 86) In each of the following questions. Find the figure, out of the answer figures that can be formed by joining the pieces given in the question figure.

Question 85. (Question figure)

Answer: (b)

Label the numbers to the pieces in the question figure as:

Now, when we join these pieces together, we get the given figure

which is there in option b

Question 86. (Question figure)

Answer: (c)

Label the numbers to the pieces in the question figure as:

Now, when we join these pieces, we obtain the figure in option (c) as

Question 88. Based on the statements, answer the questions.

Statements:

All fans are watches

Some watches are black

Conclusion:

(I) All watches are fans

(II) All fans are black

a. If conclusion I Follows
b. If conclusion II Follows
c. If both conclusions follows
d. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Answer: (d)

(i) All watches are not fan, so this conclusion does not follows.

(ii) According to figure no relation for fan and black.

So, Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Question 89. A printer number the pages of a book starting with 1 and used 3189 digits in all. How many pages does the book have?

a. 1000
b. 1079
c. 1078
d. 1074

Answer: (d)

Taking pages:

1 – 9, every page will be a single-digit page number, so there is

1 × 9 = 9 digits

from pages 10 – 99, 2 digits page number will show, so the total of digits is

2 × 90 = 180.

from page 100 – 999, there is a three digits page number, so the total digit is

3 × 900 = 2700.

Total digit used = 9 + 180 + 2700 = 2889

Remaining digits = 3189 – 2889 = 300

Now, 300/4 for remaining pages comes to 75.

So, the total page is = 9 + 90 + 900 + 75 = 1074.

Question 90. In a group of cows and hens, the number of legs are 14 more than twice the number of heads, find the numbers of cows.

a. 5
b. 7
c. 10
d. 12

Answer: (b)

Let there be A cows and B hens. A cow has 4 legs and B hen has 2 legs

⇒ 4A + 2B = 2 (A + B) + 14

⇒ 4A – 2A + 2B – 2B = 14

A = 14/2= 7

Directions (91-94): All the roads of a village are either parallel or perpendicular to one another and are all straight roads, Roads Parallel to one another are A, B, C, D, E Roads G, H, I, J, K, L, M are parallel to one another:

1. Road A, is 1 km East of B

2. Road B, is 1 km 2 West of C

3. Road D, is 1 km West of E

4. Road G is 1 km 2 South of H

5. Road I is 1 km North of J

6. Road K is 1 km 2 North of L

7. Road K is 1 km South of M

91. Which is necessarily true?

a. D is 2 km west of B
b. M is 1.5 km north of L
c. E and B intersect
d. I is 1km north of L

Answer: (b)

Arrange the diagram according to the given relationship

According to Fig (B) M is 1.5 km north of L

Question 92. If road E is between B and C, then the distance between A & D is

a. 1 km
b. 1.5 km
c. 1.5 – 2 km
d. 1/2 km

Answer: (c)

From the figure, we can see that if E is placed between B and C then

Minimum distance between A and D will be 0.5 (A to C) + 1(ED) = 1.5

Maximum distance between A and D will be 1 (A to B) + 1(ED) = 2

Distance between A & D will lie between

1.5 – 2km

Question 93. Which of the following possibilities make two roads coincide?

a. E and B are ½ km apart
b. D is ½ km east of A
c. L is ½ km North of I
d. C is 1 km west of D

Answer: (a)

From the diagram, we can see that

If E and B are ½ km apart, then E and C will coincide.

Question 94. If E is between B and C, which of the following is false?

a. D is 2 km west of A
b. D is less than 1 km from B
c. E is less than 1 km from A
d. C is less than 1.5 km from D

Answer: (a)

From the diagram, we can see that the distance between A and D is less than 2 km. Hence, the false statement is ‘D is 2 km west of A’.

Directions: (95-96) In each of the following questions, there is a figure (X) with two dots placed in it. This figure is followed by four other figures. Only one of which is such as to make possible the placement of the dots satisfying the same conditions as in figure (X). Choose the correct answer figure in each case.

Question 95. Choose the correct answer figure.

Answer: (c)

In figure (X), there are two dots. One dot is common in triangle and square only and the other dot is common in triangle and circle only. And the answer figure in option (c) is such that it is possible to establish one dot in triangle and square only and the other dot in triangle and circle only.

Question 96. Choose the correct answer figure.

Answer: (a)

In figure (X), there are two dots.

One dot is common in triangle and circle only and the other dot is common in square and triangle only. And the answer figure in option (a) is such that it is possible to establish one dot in triangle and circle only and the other dot in square and triangle only.

Directions: (97-98) In each of the following question out of 4 figures, three are similar in a certain way and one is not like others. Find out the figure which does not belong to the other three figures.

Question 97. Find out the figure which does not belong to the other three figures.

Answer: (a)

Reason: In figure (A) the second symbol is rotated to 180° with respect to the first symbol. And in the rest of the figures, this relation doesn’t hold true. So, a dissimilar figure in (A).

Question 98. Find out the figure which does not belong to the other three figures.

Answer: (c)

In option (A), (B) and (D), the right part of the figures is the mirror image of the left part which is not there in option (C). Hence the figure in option (C) does not belong to the other three figures.

Question 99. When the given figure is converted to cube then which will be the correct alternative.

Answer: (b)

A is opposite to D,

F is opposite to B,

and E is opposite to C.

Cube in option (a) is not possible as F is not adjacent to B.

Cube in option (c) is not possible as E can’t be adjacent to C

Cube in option (d) is also not possible as A can’t be adjacent to D.

Only option (b) is possible.

Question 100. How many Rectangles (excluding Square) are there in the given figure?

a. 19
b. 23
c. 20
d. 22

Answer: (d)

Rectangle (excluding squares):

ABGF, CDKJ, FGPO, ABKJ, CDPO, ABPO, DELK, GHQP, DEQP, HIRQ, JLQO, KMRP, LNSQ, JMRO, KNSP, JNSO, FHLJ, GIMK, FIMJ, CEHF, CEQO, FIRO

Hence, the total number of rectangles (excluding square) = 22.

Punjab NTSE 2021 Stage 1 SAT Paper

PAPER – SAT

Question 101. The ratio of the effective resistance between the terminals A and B of the given circuit with key K open and then K₁ closed is given by

a. 1 : 1
b. 4 : 3
c. 2 : 1
d. 2 : 3

Answer: (b)

All resistors are in series.
R_eq = R₁ + R₂ + R₃ = 6 + 12 + 6

(R_eq)₁ = 24 Ω …..(1)

R_eq = R₁ + R₂ + R₃ = 6 + 6 +6

(R_eq)₂ = 18Ω …….(2)

Now dividing eq.(2) by (1),

((R_eq)1)/((R_eq)2) = 24/18 = 4/3

Question 102. Which of the following statement is correct?

a. A person with Myopia can see distant objects clearly.
b. The eyes must be removed within 10-15 hours after the death of the eye donor.
c. Cataract is the condition of an eye when the crystalline lens of some old age people become milky and cloudy.
d. A student sitting in the last row of a classroom cannot read clearly the letters written on the blackboard due to Hypermetropia.

Answer: (c)

As the age of a person increases the transparency of the eye lens starts to fade and flexibility starts to decrease so that it becomes milky and cloudy. This is the phenomena of cataract.

Question 103. The distance travelled by a body in the last two seconds of its motion in a straight line is what fraction of the total distance covered in 7 seconds in the given velocity-time graph?

a. 1/4
b. 2/3
c. 1/3
d. 1/2

Answer: (a)

Distance = area under V-t graph

For a total 7 sec.

S₁ = Area of Δ + Area of ? + Area of Δ

= 1/2 ×2×10+2×10+1/2×2+10 =40 m

Distance in last two seconds,

S2 = Area of Δ = 1/2× 2 × 10 = 10m

Now fraction = (S₂)/(S₁)=10/40=1/4

Question 104. A Body has a negative charge of 1 μC. It means the body has gained

a. One electron
b. 10⁶ electrons
c. 6.25 × 10¹⁸ electrons
d. 6.25 × 10¹² electrons

Answer: (d)

Given, Q = 1 μc

According to quantization of charge,

Q = ne

n = Q/e = (1×10^-6)/(1.6×10^-19)= 6.25 × 10¹² (electron)

Question 105. Which of the following graphs best represent the graphical relationship between Kinetic Energy (K.E.) and momentum (P) of a body in motion?

Answer: (b)

Relation between kinetic energy and momentum

E_K =

or P =

or P² ∝ E_k

If compared with the standard equation of parabola,

y² = 4ax

Question 106. Two thin lenses of focal length f₁ and f₂ are in contact and are coaxial. Its power is the same as the power of a single lens given by

Answer: (bonus)

Power of lens when two lenses are connected,

P = P₁ + P₂

= 1/(f₁)+1/(f₂)=(f₁+f₂)/(f₁f₂) {P=1/f}

Question 107. A stone is dropped into a well having a free water surface at depth 44.1 m. The splash is heard 3.13 sec after the stone is dropped. Find the velocity of sound in air. (Take g= 9.8 m/s²)

a. 339.2 m/s
b. 342 m/s
c. 344.3 m/s
d. 341.2 m/s

Answer: (a)

From the 2nd equation of motion,

S = ut + 1/2gt²

44.1 = 0 + 1/2× 9.8 × t²

t = 3 sec.

This is the time taken by the stone to reach the water surface.

But the splash is heard in 3.13 sec.

∴ Time interval of sound motion = 3.13 – 3 = 0.13 sec

Now, speed of sound = (Distance travelled by sound)/(time period)

= 44.1/0.13= 339.2 m/sec.

Question 108. Which of the following statement does not describe the possible cause of overloading in household circuits?

a. Accidental hike in supply voltage
b. Substantial reduction of current in the circuit
c. Too many electric appliances connected to a single socket
d. Live wire and Neutral wire comes in direct contact

Answer: (b)

Overloading has happened due to

⇒ Sudden increase in voltage/current.

⇒ Too many electric appliances connected to a single socket.

⇒ Live and neutral wires coming in direct contact.

Overloading is not possible when a substantial reduction of current takes place in the circuit.

Question 109. A bus of mass 2800 kg is travelling at a speed of 90 km/h. A retarding force of 5600N is applied to it for a distance of 100m. Its velocity reduces to

a. 45 km/h
b. 54 km/h
c. 36 km/h
d. 18.4 km/h

Answer: (b)

Given,

m = 2800kg

U = 90 km/h = 90 × 5/18= 25 m/sec

F = 5600 N

S = 100 m

Now, retardation = (–a)

F = Ma

a = F/M = 5600/2800 = 2m/sec²

From the 3rd equation of motion,

V² = u² + 2as

= (25)2 + 2(–2) × 100 = 225

V = 15 m/sec = 15 × 18/5= 54 km/h

Question 110. The refractive index of medium B with respect to medium A in the given figure is given by

a. √3/√2
b. 1/2
c. √3/2
d. 1/√2

Answer: (d)

According to Snell’s law,

μ sin θ = constant

μ_Asinθ_A = μ_Bsinθ_B

μ_A sin 30 = μ_B sin 45^o

μ_B/μ_A = μ B_A = sin30/(sin45 )=(1/2)/(1/√2)

= 1/√2

Question 111.A block of wood having a mass of 15 kg and dimensions of 40cm × 30cm × 20cm is kept on a tabletop. It is made to lie on the tabletop in three ways with its sides of dimensions

(a) 40cm × 30cm

(b) 30cm × 20cm

(c) 20cm × 40cm

The pressure exerted by the wooden block on tabletop will be

a. Maximum for way (a)
b. Maximum for way (b)
c. Maximum for way (c)
d. Same for all three ways

Answer: (b)

Pressure (P) = Force/Area

When A ↓ P ↓

∴ Area is minimum when a = 30cm × 20 cm

Question 112. Figure shows the magnetic field lines of a magnetic field. There are three points A, B and C in this field. Choose the correct option regarding field strength.

a. Maximum at A minimum at B
b. Maximum at B minimum at C
c. Maximum at C minimum at B
d. Maximum at A minimum at C

Answer: (b)

As the density of magnetic field lines increases, the magnetic field intensity also increases i.e. if the distance between two adjacent magnetic field lines is minimum, magnetic field intensity will be maximum.

Therefore, the correct answer is maximum at B and a minimum at C.

Question 113. Identical packets are dropped from two aero planes one above the equator and other above north pole both at height h now g_e and g_p are respectively the acceleration due to gravity. If t₁ and t₂ are respectively the time taken by packets to reach the surface of earth then

a. t₁ > t₂ because g_e < g_p
b. t₁ > t₂ because g_e > g_p
c. t₁ < t₂ because g_c < g_p
d. t₁ < t₂ because g_e < g_p

Answer: (a)

From 2nd equation of motion

S = ut + 1/2at²

h = 1/2gt²

t = √(2h/g)

t ∝ 1/√g

So,g_p>g_e

and t₁> t₂

Question 114. The lustre of a metal is due to

a. Its high density
b. Its high polishing
c. Its chemical inertness
d. Presence of free electrons

Answer: (d)

Metallic lustre is due to the presence of free mobile electrons which are present in metal. The electrons release energy in the form of light when they de-excite.

Question 115. Copper sulphate can be safely kept in a container made up of

a. Aluminum
b. Lead
c. Silver
d. Zinc

Answer: (c)

Silver is less reactive than copper due to which copper sulphate can be kept in a container made up of silver.

Question 116. Two atoms are said to be isobars if

a. They have same atomic number but different mass number
b. They have same number of protons but different number of neutrons
c. They have same number of neutrons but different number of protons and electrons
d. Sum of number of protons and neutrons are same but number of protons is different

Answer: (d)

Isobars are the elements that have a different atomic number but the same mass number.

Atomic mass = Number of protons + Number of neutrons

Atomic Number = Number of protons

Question 117. The visible universe is estimated to contain 10²² stars. How many moles of stars are present in the visible universe?

a. 10²² moles
b. 6.023 × 10¹ moles
c. 0.0166 moles
d. 6.022 moles

Answer: (c)

1 mole of stars = 6.023 × 10²³

No. of moles of stars present

10²²/(6.023 x 10²³ )= 0.0166 moles

Question 118. Which set of given elements A, B, C, D, E with atomic number 1, 3, 7, 10, 11 belongs to the same period and same group, respectively.

a. A, B, C and B, C, D
b. B, C, E and A, B, E
c. B, C, D and A, B, E
d. C, D, E and A, B, C

Answer: (c)

Electronic configuration are as follows:

A (Z = 1): 1

B (Z = 3): 2, 1

C (Z = 7): 2, 5

D (Z = 10): 2, 8

E (Z = 11): 2, 8, 1

Therefore, B, C and D belong to the same period and A, B and E belong to the same group.

Question 119. The following compound 1 and 2 with identical molecular formula but different structures are called

a. Homologous series
b. Unsaturated hydrocarbon
c. Structural isomer
d. Functional isomer

Answer: (c)

Structural isomers are two or more organic compounds that have the same molecular formula but different structures.

Question 120. An element x forms an oxide X₂O₃. In which group of Mendeleev’s periodic table, is this element X kept?

a. Group II
b. Group V
c. Group III
d. Group VIII

Answer: (c)

In compound X₂O₃, X has a valency of 3. The element belongs to group III of Mendeleev’s periodic table.

X₂O₃ → Xe⁺³ + O^–2

Question 121.In the reaction: 3MnO₂ + 4Al → 3Mn + 2Al₂O₃ the oxidising agent is

a. MnO₂
b. Al
c. Al₂O₃
d. Mn

Answer: (a)

MnO₂ oxidises Al and itself get reduced. Therefore, MnO₂ behaves as an oxidizing agent.

Question 122. Which of the following functional groups is a ketone? R = (–CH₃), R is Alkyl group

Answer: (a)

Ketone is a functional group in which the carbon atom forms a double bond with O and the two remaining bonds are occupied by alkyl or aryl substituents.

Question 123. Convert 20 gm of water into moles.

a. 2 moles
b. 3 moles
c. 1.5 moles
d. 1.11 moles

Answer: (d)

Molecular mass of H₂O = 18 g/mole.

Given mass = 20 g

Mole = (Given Mass)/(Molecular Mass) = 20/18 = 1.11 moles

Question 124. The metal which can form amphoteric oxides with oxygen are

a. Sodium and Aluminium
b. Zinc and Potassium
c. Calcium Sodium
d. Aluminium and Zinc

Answer: (d)

Amphoteric oxides are oxygen compounds that show both acidic and basic characteristics.

Example: Al₂O₃, ZnO, SnO₂, PbO₂ etc.

Question 125. An element X forms two oxides XO and XO₂. The oxide XO is neutral but XO₂ is acidic in nature. The element X is most likely to be

a. Sulphur
b. Carbon
c. Calcium
d. Hydrogen

Answer: (b)

Carbon can form two oxides, i.e. CO (Carbon monoxide) and CO₂ (Carbon dioxide). CO is neutral while CO₂ is acidic. Calcium being a metal forms basic oxide and hydrogen forms a neutral oxide (H₂O).

Question 126. Which of the following does not undergo sublimation?

a. Camphor
b. Silica
c. Dry Ice
d. Iodine

Answer: (b)

Sublimation is the transition of a substance directly from solid to the gaseous state, without passing through the liquid state. Therefore, silica does not undergo sublimation.

Question 127. Guard cells are capable of photosynthesis because they have

a. Cytoplasm, nucleus, centrioles
b. Cytoplasm, nucleus, centrosome
c. Cytoplasm, nucleus, chloroplasts
d. Cytoplasm, nucleus, chromosomes

Answer: (c)

Chloroplasts contain chlorophyll. Chlorophyll is one of the essential components required for photosynthesis. Since guard cells have chloroplasts along with the nucleus and cytoplasm, they are capable of performing photosynthesis.

Question 128. DNA is found in the nucleus of a cell and

a. Golgi bodies
b. Lysosomes
c. Vacuoles
d. Mitochondria

Answer: (d)

DNA is found in the nucleus of all cells. Apart from that, it is found in mitochondria and chloroplast also. The DNA found in mitochondria is small and circular.

Question 129. A and B are the two reproductive organs of females. A is responsible for the nourishment of the developing embryo and B is where sperms encounter the egg. A and B respectively are:

a. Vagina and uterus
b. Ovary and fallopian tube
c. Fallopian tube and uterus
d. Uterus and fallopian tube

Answer: (d)

(A) The uterus helps in providing nourishment to the embryo.

(B) The sperms encounter the egg in the fallopian tube.

Question 130. Which of the following diseases is not caused by a virus?

a. Dengue
b. T.B. (Tuberculosis)
c. Cough
d. Aids

Answer: (b)

Dengue is caused by dengue virus

T.B (Tuberculosis) is caused by a bacterium called Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Coughs are caused due to infections in the respiratory tract. And respiratory tract infections are mostly caused due to viruses.

AIDS is caused due to HIV (Human Immuno Virus)

Question 131. Which of the following tissues gives tensile strength against bending and swaying?

a. Parenchyma
b. Collenchyma
c. Sclerenchyma
d. None of these

Answer: (b)

Collenchyma is a simple living tissue in plants. It provides tensile strength against bending and swaying.

Question 132. Double fertilization is characteristic of

a. Angiosperms
b. Gymnosperms
c. Bryophyta
d. Pteridophytes

Answer: (a)

Double fertilization takes place in angiosperms. The following steps happen during double fertilization:

Male gamete + Female gamete → Zygote

Male gamete + Polar nuclei → Endosperm

Since we have two fusions happening here, it is called double fertilization.

Question 133. Which of the following characteristics of garden pea were not taken into consideration in the study done by Mendel?

a. Shape of flower
b. Colour of flower
c. Shape of seed
d. Colour of seed

Answer: (a)

Mendel chose the following characteristics of the garden pea for his study:

Plant height

Seed shape

Seed colour

Flower colour

Flower position

Pod shape

Pod colour

Mendel did not choose the ‘shape of flower’ for his study.

Question 134. Which part of the brain controls salivation and blood pressure?

a. Cerebrum
b. Medulla
c. Cerebellum
d. Hypothalamus

Answer: (b)

Medulla or Medulla oblongata is a part of the hindbrain. It controls involuntary actions like blood pressure and salivation.

Question 135. Which kind of plastid is more common in flowers and fruits?

a. Chloroplasts
b. Leucoplasts
c. Chromoplasts
d. Proteinoplasts

Answer: (c)

Chromoplasts (Chromo means Colour) provide colour to seeds and fruits. So, it is more commonly found in them.

Question 136. Excretory organs present in annelids

a. Flame Cells
b. Lungs
c. Nephridia
d. Kidneys

Answer: (c)

Nephridia are the tubular excretory structures of annelids.

Question 137. Proteins are synthesized by which part of the cell?

a. Plastids
b. Lysosomes
c. Ribosomes
d. Golgi apparatus

Answer: (c)

Different organelles in cells have different functions. Ribosomes in cells help in the

synthesis of proteins.

Question 138. Glucose is mainly absorbed in which part of the kidney?

a. Distal convoluted tubule
b. Loop of Henle
c. Proximal convoluted tubule
d. Bowman’s capsule

Answer: (c)

The Bowman’s capsule filters the blood and separates out the filtrate. Different regions of the nephron reabsorb different substances as the filtrate passes through it. Glucose is reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT).

Question 139. Genes are made of:-

a. Lipoproteins
b. Hydrocarbon
c. Histones
d. Poly nucleotides

Answer: (d)

DNA is made up of nucleotides. A group of these nucleotides or polynucleotides of a DNA form a gene. This gene is the functional unit of DNA and it codes for specific functions.

Question 140. Select the set of analogous organs from the following:

a. Forelimbs of frog and lizard
b. The wings of bat and wing of a bird
c. Forelimbs of a bird and humans
d. Forelimbs of cow and duck

Answer: (b)

Analogous organs have similar functions but different origins and structures. For example, the wings of a bat and the wings of a bird are both used for flying. But they have different origins and structures.

Question 141. If √512= 2^x, √15625= 5^y and √343= 7^z then what will be the value of x – y + z ?

a. 4
b. 6
c. 9
d. 3

Answer: (d)

Question 142.If a + b = 1 then what will be the value of a³ + b³ + 3ab

a. 5
b. 1
c. 3
d. 0

Answer: (b)

Given (a + b) = 1

∴ (a + b)³ = 1

⇒ a³ + b³ + 3ab(a + b) =1 ( since (a+b)³ = a³ + b³ + 3ab (a + b))

⇒ a³ + b³ + 3ab(1) = 1 ⇒ a³ + b³ + 3ab = 1

Question 143. The circumference of a circle exceeds its diameter by 270 cm then the length of its diameter will be

a. 252 cm
b. 126 cm
c. 31.5 cm
d. 63 cm

Answer: (b)

2πr – 2r = 270 (given)

⇒ 2r(π – 1) = 270 ⇒ 2r(22/7-1)=270

⇒ 2r × 15/7= 270

⇒ 2r = 270 × 7/15

⇒ 2r = 126

diameter = 2(radius)

⇒ diameter = 126

Question 144. A number when divided by 6, gives remainder 2 then what will be the remainder if square of that number is divided by 6?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

Answer: (d)

Let the number be m.

Given, m = 6p + 2, p ∈ Z ……(1)

Now, m² = 6q + R, q ∈ Z, R is the required remainder …..(2)

On squaring both the sides of eq.(1), we get

m² = (6p + 2)² = 36p² + 4 + 24p

= 6(6p² + 4p) + 4

= 6q + 4 …..(3)

{Because (6p² + 4p) = q}

From (2) and (3),

R = 4

Question 145.Find the value of 

a.

Question 146. In the adjoining figure, AB = BC, BD = CD and ∠BAC = 37° then what will be the value of x?

a. 32°
b. 74°
c. 106°
d. 34°

Answer: (a)

Given, AB = BC ⇒ ∠BCA = ∠BAC = 37°

∠CBD = ∠BAC + ∠BCA = 37° + 37° = 74° (Exterior angle property)

Also given, BD = CD

⇒ ∠CBD = ∠BCD = 74°

In ΔBCD,

⇒ ∠BCD + ∠CBD + ∠BDC = 180°

⇒ 74° + 74° + x = 180°

⇒ x = 32°

Question 147. Find the sum of all the integers from 1 to 100 that are divisible by 2 or 5.

a. 3000
b. 3050
c. 3600
d. 3100

Answer: (b)

Sum of integers divisible by 2

= 2 + 4 + 6 + ……..+ 100

a = 2, l = 100, n = 50

⇒ S₅₀ = (50/2)(2+100)=2550

Sum of integers divisible by 5

= 5 + 10 + 15 + …… + 100

a = 5, l = 100, n = 20

⇒ S₂₀ = (20/2)(5+100)=1050

Here number divisible by 10 is counted twice, so need to subtract

Sum of integers divisible by 10

= 10 + 20 + 30 + ……. + 100

a = 10, l = 100, n = 10

S₁₀ = (10/2)(10+100)=550

Required sum = 2550 + 1050 – 550 = 3050

Question 148. Find the value of xy if (1, 2), (4, y), (x, 6) and (3, 5) are vertices of rhombus taken in order.

a. 6
b. 9
c. 18
d. 24

Answer: (c)

Since, every rhombus is a parallelogram so,

Midpoint of PR = mid-point of QS

So, xy = 18

Though this is a parallelogram and not a rhombus, the result holds true in both cases.

Question 149. Evaluate: 

a. 3
b. 2
c. 6
d. 1

Answer: (a)

Let y = √(6+√(6+√(6+……)) )

⇒ y = √(6+y)

y² = 6 + y ⇒ y² – y – 6 = 0

⇒ (y – 3) (y + 2) = 0

⇒ y = 3, – 2

∴ y = 3 (since y > 0)

Question 150. Evaluate: cos²5° + cos²10° + cos²15° + ……. + cos²90°

a.

Question 151. A cone of height 24 cm is divided into two parts by drawing a plane through the mid-point of its axis and parallel to its base. Find the ratio of the volume of two parts.

a. 1 : 4
b. 1 : 7
c. 4 : 1
d. 2 : 7

Answer: (b)

Given, h = 24 cm

Let V₁ be the volume of the cone with height h and V₂ be the volume of cone with height h/2 at top.

By similar triangles of heights h and h/2, their ratios of radius should be r and r/2 respectively.

The volume of a frustum with height h/2 is V₁-V₂.

⇒V₁ = 8V₂

Required ratio = (Volume of cone of height h/2)/(Volume of frustum of height h/2)=V₂/(V₁-V₂ )=V₂/(8V₂-V₂ )=V₂/(7V₂ )= 1:7

Question 152. If 1960 = 2^a5^b7^c then, find the value of 2^–a7^b5^–c

a. 175/8
b. 7/200
c. 7/2000
d. 56/25

Answer: (b)

1960 = 2^a × 5^b × 7^c (given)

⇒ 2³ × 5¹ × 7² = 2^a × 5^b × 7^c

⇒ a = 3, b = 1, c = 2

⇒ 2^–a .7^b .5^–c = 2^–3 × 7¹ × 5^–2

=7/200

Question 153.In ΔABC, D is a point on side BC such that 2BD = 5DC. If ar(ΔABC) = 49 cm² then ar(ΔABD) = ……

a. 28 cm²
b. 21 cm²
c. 14 cm²
d. 35 cm²

Answer: (d)

Height of ΔABC = Height of ΔABD = Height of triangle ΔADC

Hence, ar(ΔABD) and ar(ΔADC) are only dependent upon the lengths of their bases.

Let the bases be of lengths 5x and 2x for BD and DC respectively.

Given that, (1/2)(5x+2x)h =ar(ΔABC)= 49

Solving we get

xh = 7×2=14

ar(ΔABD) = (1/2)(5x)h = (1/2)×5×14 = 35 cm²

Question 154. A natural number when increased by 6 equals 280 times of its reciprocal. Find the number.

a. 20
b. 14
c. -20
d. 6

Answer: (b)

Let the natural number be P.

Now, P + 6 = 280/P (given)

⇒ P² + 6P – 280 = 0

⇒ (P + 20) (P – 14) = 0

⇒ P = – 20, 14

⇒ P = 14 (natural number can’t be negative)

Question 155.If a = 2, b = 3, c = 4 then find the value of 

a. 1/8
b. 9
c. 8
d. 1/9

Answer: (d)

Given a = 2, b = 3 and c = 4

Now,

Question 156. In a two digit number, the digit at ten’s place is three times the digit at unit place. The sum of the number and the digit at unit place is 32. Find the number.

a. 26
b. 31
c. 62
d. 23

Answer: (b)

Let the number be 10a+b

a = 3b and (10a + b) + b = 32

10a + 2b = 32

30b + 2b = 32

32b = 32 b = 1

a = 3b = 3

So, required number = 10(3) + 1 = 31

Question 157. Mean of 8, 12, 6, 22, 10 and 4 is 12. If each observation is increased by 25% then the resulting mean is

a. 9
b. 15
c. 12
d. 16

Answer: (b)

Mean = 12 (Given)

New mean = old mean + (25/100) old mean

=12(5/4) = 15

Question 158. Which of the following cannot be the probability of an event?

a. 5/7
b. 0.57
c. 7%
d. 18/17

Answer: (d)

Probability of an event because probability always lie from 0 to 1

Here (18/17) >1 , rest all are less than 1

Question 159. In given figure, EB and DA are perpendicular to AB if OE = 5 cm, OD = 7 cm, and ar(?BOE) = 150 cm² then ar(?AOD) =_________

a. 294cm²
b. 210 cm²
c. 150 cm²
d. 324 cm²

Answer: (a)

∠BOE = ∠AOD

And ∠EBO = ∠DAO

Clearly, By A-A Rule, ΔOBE∼ΔOAD

(ar(ΔBOE))/(ar(ΔAOD))=(OE/OD )²

(From theorem: Ratio of areas of similar triangles is directly proportional to square of their heights)

150/(ar(ΔAOD))=(5/7 )²

⇒ar(ΔAOD) = 150×49/25 = 294 cm²

Question 160. In the given figure PQ is the diameter of the circle. If PR = 5 cm and QR = 12 cm then find the area of the shaded region.

a.(25π – 30)cm²
b.(26π – 30)cm²
c.(169π – 30)cm²
d.(169/4)π – 30)cm²

Answer: (d)

Given:

PR = 5 cm, QR = 12 cm

∠PRQ = 90° (angle subtended by diameter)

 ∴ PR² + QR²= PQ² (By Pythagoras theorem)

Question 161. What is the latitudinal extent of India?

a. 4^o8′ N to 37^o6′ N 
b. 8^o4′ N to 37^o6′ N
c. 8^o4′ N to 37^o6′ S
d. 10^o N to 40^o N

Answer: (b)

India is located in the northern hemisphere. The mainland of India extends between latitudes 8°4’N and 37°6’N and longitudes 68°7’E and 97°25’E.

Question 162. Sardar Sarovar Dam is built on which one of the following rivers?

a. Narmada
b. Tapi
c. Ganga
d. Satluj

Answer: (a)

Sardar Sarovar Dam was built on the Narmada river. It is located in the village of Kevadia in the state of Gujarat. It provides electricity and supplies water for drinking and irrigation to Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.

Question 163. Which of the following has been declared the Union Territory (U.T.) by the Government of India recently?

a. Bhopal
b. Ladakh
c. Gangtok
d. Kerala

Answer: (b)

Ladakh became a Union Territory in August 2019. Earlier, It was a part of the state of Jammu and Kashmir. Ladakh is headed by a lieutenant governor.

Question 164. Marble is a

a. Metamorphic Rock
b. Igneous Rock
c. Basalt Rock
d. Sedimentary Rock

Answer: (a)

Igneous or sedimentary rocks turn (metamorph) to metamorphic rocks due to intense heat and pressure within the Earth’s crust. Slate, marble are such metamorphic rocks. Clay changes into slate and limestone into marble.

Question 165. Kaziranga Sanctuary is situated in which one of the following states?

a. Haryana
b. Himachal Pradesh
c. Assam
d. Punjab

Answer: (c)

Kaziranga Sanctuary is situated in the district of Golaghat and Nagaon in Assam. It is famous for its one-horned rhinos. Apart from many species of plants, it is home to many animals like Hoolock Gibbon, Tiger, Leopard, Indian Elephant, Sloth Bear, Wild water buffalo, swamp deer, etc.

Question 166. Match the following

(i) Iron a. Digboi

(ii) Coal b. Singhbhnm

(iii) Manganese c. Balaghat

(iv) Oil d. Raniganj

a. (i)d, (ii)-c, (iii)-b, (iv)-a
b. (i)-b, (ii)-c, (iii)-d, (iv)-a
c. (i)-b, (ii)-d, (iii)-c, (iv)-a
d. (i)-a, (ii) -b,(iv)-a, (iii)-c

Answer: (c)

The following list provides the names of minerals and respective mining areas.

Question 167. The Dried and flat area extending from the southern part of Punjab and Haryana to the Rann of Kutch is known as

a. The Thar Desert
b. The Aravali Hills
c. The Himalayas
d. The Northern plains

Answer: (a)

The Dried and flat area extending from the southern part of Punjab and Haryana to the Rann of Kutch is known as the Thar Desert. It lies towards the western margins of the Aravali Hills. This arid region receives very low rainfall below 150 mm per year.

Question 168. Which one of the following states receives rainfall in the winter season

a. Punjab
b. Uttar Pradesh
c. Gujarat
d. Tamil Nadu

Answer: (d)

Tamil Nadu receives rainfall during the winter season. During October and November, the northeast monsoon brings moisture from the Bay of Bengal. It causes torrential rain over the Tamil Nadu coast, southern Andhra Pradesh, southeast Karnataka and southeast Kerala.

Question 169. Which one of the following states produces more Coffee?

a. Karnataka
b. Andhra Pradesh
c. Tamil Nadu
d. Madhya Pradesh

Answer: (a)

Karnataka is the leading coffee-producing state in India. During 2018-19, Karnataka produced 2,19,550 metric tonnes of coffee. The coffee plantations are majorly located in the districts of Chikkamagaluru, Hassan, and Kodagu in Karnataka.

Question 170. Which one of the following countries is not a member of South Asia Association of Regional Cooperation (SAARC)?

a. Bhutan
b. India
c. Nepal
d. China

Answer: (d)

The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is an organization of South Asian nations. It was founded in 1985 in Dhaka, Bangladesh. It is dedicated to the economic, technological, social, and cultural development of the region with an emphasis on collective self-reliance. It has eight members: India, Bangladesh, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Maldives, Bhutan, Afghanistan, Pakistan.

Question 171. What do you understand by the term ‘Loo’?

a. Sea breeze
b. Land breeze
c. Hot and dry wind
d. cold wind

Answer: (c)

Loo is the name given to strong, gusty, hot, dry winds blowing during the day over the north and northwestern India during the hot weather season. Loo is common in states like Punjab, Haryana, Eastern Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.

Question 172. Which Viceroy made Delhi the capital of India in 1911 A.D?

a. Lord Curzon
b. Lord William Bentinck
c. Lord Hardinge
d. Lord Mountbatten

Answer: (c)

Hardinge announced that the capital or the seat of the British Raj would shift from Calcutta to Delhi in 1911 AD. He made this announcement during the Delhi Durbar on 12th December 1912. It was on the occasion of George V, the then emperor of India’s visit to India.

Question 173. In 1519 A. D. Zahir – Ud – Din Unbnr was the king of

a. Kabul
b. Fargana
c. Afghanistan
d. Kandhar

Answer: (a)

Zahir-Ud-Din Babur attacked Kabul in 1519 AD. He also laid the foundation of the Mughal Empire in the Indian subcontinent. The Mughal Empire went on to rule the Indian subcontinent till the 19th century.

Question 174. When was the battle of Samugarh fought?

a. 1658 A.D.
b. 1659 A.D.
c. 1657 A.D.
d. 1660 A.D.

Answer: (a)

The Battle of Samugarh was fought in 1658 AD. It was a battle of succession between Dara Shikoh and his brothers, Aurangzeb and Murad Baksh. They were the sons of Mughal emperor Shah Jahan.

Question 175. Which Guru Sahib composed ‘Thit’ bani?

a. Guru Ramdasji
b. Guru Amardas Ji
c. Guru Angad Dev Ji
d. Guru Nanak Dev Ji

Answer: (d)

Guru Nanak Dev Ji is the founder of Sikhism. He composed several banis like the Thit, Onkar, Japuji Sahib, Var Malhar, Var-Majh, Var Asa, Bara Mah and many others at Kartarpur.

Question 176. When did French troops Land in Vietnam?

a. 1856 A.D.
b. 1854 A.D.
c. 1858 A.D.
d. 1830 A.D.

Answer: (c)

Napoleon made the decision to attack Vietnam in 1857 AD. The French troops landed in Vietnam in 1858 AD. The French wanted a market for their goods after a boom in their production due to industrialisation.

Question 177.Print technology of China was brought to Italy by the great explorer-

a. Marco Polo
b. Vasco Da Gama
c. Columbus
d. Magellan

Answer: (a)

Marco Polo was a Venetian traveller who visited China in the thirteenth century during the reign of Kublai Khan. There, he learnt about print technology and brought it to Italy. His travelogues helped future explorers find their way across the Atlantic Ocean.

Question 178. During India’s freedom struggle, which one of the following led to the first ‘All India Hartal’

a. Protest against Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
b. Protest against Rowlatt Act
c. Arrest of Mahatma Gandhi
d. Arrival of Simon Commission

Answer: (b)

The Rowlatt Act was passed by the Imperial Legislative Council in March 1919. The act allowed British administrators to arrest dissenters without any trial. In order to protest against this draconian law, Mahatma Gandhi along with other leaders called for an All India Hartal. This was the first pan India hartal.

Question 179.On 31 January 1930, Mahatma Gandhi sent a letter to Viceroy Irwin stating – demands.

a. 10
b. 11
c. 12
d. 13

Answer: (b)

During the Civil Disobedience Movement, Mahatma Gandhi put forth 11 demands to Irwin, the then Viceroy of India with an ultimatum to accept or reject it by January 31st, 1930. The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed on 5th March, 1931. According to this peace pact, Irwin agreed to release political prisoners except those who were involved in violence and to allow Indians to make salt for domestic use. In return, Gandhi agreed to call off the Civil Disobedience movement and to attend the Second Round Table Conference in London.

Question 180. Nationalism aligned with which factor led Europe to disaster in 1914?

a. Liberalism
b. Isolationism
c. Imperialism
d. Nonintervention

Answer: (c)

Nationalism aligned with imperialism led Europe to a disaster in 1914. Major European powers used imperialist policies to advance themselves in lands away from the European mainland. This caused severe discontent among the common masses. This imperial war amongst European powers also led to World War I.

Question 181. When did Shiromani Gurudwara Prabandhak Committee come to be in existence?

a. 16 November 1920
b. 14 December 1920
c. 18 November 1920
d. 29 December 1920

Answer: (a)

The Shiromani Gurudwara Prabandhak Committee came into existence on 16 November, 1920. It is the apex body responsible for the maintenance of gurudwaras and other places of Sikh importance in India and Pakistan.

Question 182. In which year Neta ji Subash Chander Bose passed the ICS examination?

a. 1919 A.D.
b. 1920 A.D.
c. 1921 A.D.
d. 1922 A.D.

Answer: (b)

Netaji Subash Chander Bose passed the Indian Civil Services (ICS) examination in 1920 AD. He left it and was a part of the Indian National Congress for some time. Later, he went on to be a part of the Indian National Army. He is an important figure in the Indian National Movement.

Question 183. The constitution of India was enforced on

a. 26 January 1949
b. 26 January 1950
c. 20 January 1948
d. 28 January 1950

Answer: (b)

The Constitution of India was drafted by the Constituent Assembly and was signed on 26th November, 1949. But the major part of it was brought into force from 26th January, 1950 for historical reasons. Therefore, India celebrates 26th January as Republic day.

Question 184.Which chapter includes the fundamental rights of the citizens?

a. Chapter 3
b. Chapter 4
c. Chapter 5
d. Chapter 6

Answer: (a)

The Constitution of India guarantees six fundamental rights to the citizens of India which are defined in part III or chapter 3 of the constitution. Articles 12 to 35 of the Indian Constitution deal with fundamental rights.

Question 185.Total fundamental duties included in the constitution are :

a. 10
b. 11
c. 12
d. 13

Answer: (b)

Fundamental Duties are the moral obligations of the citizens of India. To promote a spirit of unity and fraternity under the common nationhood the Constitution of India originally enlisted 10 fundamental duties. However, the 86th amendment in 2002 added one more fundamental duty to be fulfilled by the citizens of India and made it 11 altogether.

Question 186. What is the minimum age to become the president of India?

a. 25 years
b. 30 Years
c. 35 Years
d. 40 Years

Answer: (c)

According to Article 58 of the Indian Constitution, no person shall be eligible for election as President unless he is a citizen of India, has completed the age of 35 years and is qualified for election as a member of the House of the People.

Question 187.How many members President can nominate in the council of states?

a. 8
b. 12
c. 2
d. 10

Answer: (b)

The Constitution empowers the President of India to nominate 12 members out of the total 250 members in the Rajya Sabha or the council of states. The 12 members are nominated on the basis of expertise in the fields of literature, science, art and social service.

Question 188. How much delay the council of states can cause in the passing of the Money Bill?

a. 14 days
b. 20 days
c. 25 days
d. 30days

Answer: (a)

The Council of states or the Rajya Sabha can simply delay the money bill by 14 days from the day of receiving it from the Lok Sabha. However, the money bill is considered to be passed by both houses if the Rajya Sabha returns the bill to the Lok Sabha with or without recommendations within a span of 14 days.

Question 189. The judges of the Supreme court retire after completing the age of

a. 60 years
b. 62 years
c. 65 years
d. 70 years

Answer: (c)

According to Article 124 (2) of the Indian Constitution, the Supreme Court Judges can retire after the age of 65 years.

Question 190. Who administers the oath of office and secrecy to the members of union council of ministers?

a. President
b.Vice President
c. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
d. Prime Minister

Answer: (a)

According to Article 74 of the Indian Constitution, the President of India shall administer the oath of office and secrecy to the members of the union council of ministers.

Question 191. How many members are there in the Punjab legislature assembly?

a. 117
b. 119
c. 120
d. 122

Answer: (a)

The Punjab Legislative assembly consists of 117 members directly elected from the 117 constituencies in the state of Punjab. Punjab follows a unicameral legislature which means it has only the legislative assembly and not the legislative council.

Question 192. The electoral college for the election of the vice president includes.

a. Lok Sabha
b. Rajya Sabha
c. State Legislative Assembly
d. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

Answer: (d)

The Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament, in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and the voting in such elections is by secret ballot.

Question 193.Which type of Investment is passed on the volume of profit and income?

a. Autonomous Investment
b. Induced Investment
c. Net Investment
d. Total Investment

Answer: (b)

Induced investments are those investments made by an individual or an institution depending on various economic considerations like the volume of profit and income. Induced investments aim to generate a profit. It increases or decreases in response to economic growth levels.

Question 194.Rahul installed a computerized machine in his factory. Some workers of his factory become unemployed due to having no knowledge of computer, which type of unemployment is this?

a. Seasonal unemployment
b. Disguised unemployment
c. Volunteer unemployment
d. Technical unemployment

Answer: (d)

Technical unemployment results in the loss of workers’ jobs when they lack the required knowledge and skills to complete their respective work. Technical unemployment is considered a structural problem since lack of skills is a macro-issue related to factors such as education, skill development programmes and institutional support.

Question 195.In which state India has the maximum population under the poverty line?

a. Bihar
b. Punjab
c. Kerala
d. Haryana

Answer: (a)

According to the report by NITI (National Institution for Transforming India) Aayog SDG (Sustainable Development Goals) India Index, Baseline report, Bihar contains 33.74 per cent of its total population living in BPL or below the poverty line.

Question 196.Which Co-operative Society sells milk products in Gujarat?

a. Amul
b. Verka
c. Mother Dairy
d. Sudha

Answer: (a)

Amul (Anand Milk-producers Union Limited), formed in 1946, is a dairy cooperative movement in India. It is a brand name managed by an apex cooperative organisation, Gujarat Cooperative Milk Marketing Federation Ltd. (GCMMF), which today is jointly owned by some 2.41 million milk producers in Gujarat.

Question 197. Name the Indian who won the Nobel Prize in Economics.

a. Dr. Rajindra Prasad
b. Rabindranath Tagore
c. Mother Teresa
d. Dr. Amartya Sen

Answer: (d)

Amartya Sen is a renowned economist in India who won the Nobel Prize in 1998 for his contribution to welfare economics. Amartya Sen has authored important works like “The Argumentative Indian” and “Development as Freedom” which is used widely by academicians and policymakers.

Question 198.In India which means of transport is considered more

cheaper and better?

a. Water transport
b. Air transport
c. Railway transport
d. Road transport

Answer: (a)

The waterway is an important mode of transport for both passenger and cargo traffic in India. It is the cheapest means of transport and is most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky material. It is a fuel-efficient and eco-friendly mode of transport.

Question 199.What are industries which produce goods that are used for the production of other goods called?

a. Capital goods industries
b. Intermediate goods industries
c. Basic industries
d. Consumer goods industries

Answer: (a)

Capital goods industries are those industries that can produce goods like machine tools, iron and steel etc which are, in turn, used for producing other goods and articles for final consumption.

Question 200.Find growth rate in India, if per capita in 1996 is Rs.8000/-and in 1997 is Rs. 10,000 in India.

a. +80%
b. +20%
c. -20%
d. +25%

Answer: (d)

An economic growth rate is the percentage change in the value of all of the goods and services produced in a nation during a specific period of time, as compared to the previous period.

Here,

per capita in 1996 is Rs.8,000

per capita in 1997 is Rs.10,000

Therefore,

Growth Rate = (Per capita in 1996 – per capita in 1997)/(per capita in 1996) x 100

Growth Rate = (10,000-8,000)/8,000 x 100

Growth Rate = 25 %

Punjab 2020-21 NTSE Stage 1 – Question Paper With Solutions

Download PDF

carouselExampleControls111

Previous



Next