  Question

Assertion :$$C_{P} - C_{V} = R$$ for an ideal gas. Reason: $$\left (\dfrac {\partial E}{\partial V}\right )_{T} = 0$$ for an ideal gas.

A
Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion  B
Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion  C
Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect  D
Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct  Solution

The correct option is B Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion$$C_v={(\cfrac{\partial E}{\partial T})}_v\longrightarrow 1$$For an ideal gas, $$C_p-C_v=R$$From $$(1) no.$$ Equation, $${ (\cfrac { \partial C_{ v } }{ \partial v } ) }_{ T }={ (\cfrac { \partial }{ \partial v } { (\cfrac { \partial E }{ \partial T } ) }_{ v }) }_{ T }={ (\cfrac { \partial }{ \partial T } { (\cfrac { \partial E }{ \partial v } ) }_{ T }) }_{ v }$$For an ideal gas $${(\cfrac { \partial E }{ \partial v } )}_T=0$$$$\Longrightarrow { (\cfrac { \partial C_{ v } }{ \partial v } ) }_{ T }={ (\cfrac { \partial }{ \partial T } (0)) }_{ v }=0$$But due to this $$C_P-C_v=R$$ is not reasoned.Chemistry

Suggest Corrections  0  Similar questions
View More  People also searched for
View More 