CameraIcon
CameraIcon
SearchIcon
MyQuestionIcon
MyQuestionIcon
1
You visited us 1 times! Enjoying our articles? Unlock Full Access!
Question

Assertion :Let the function f(x)=x2x+1x12 and g(x)=12+x34, then f(x)=g(x) has two solutions. Reason: f(x) and g(x) are inverse of each other.

A
Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
B
Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
C
Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
D
Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct
Right on! Give the BNAT exam to get a 100% scholarship for BYJUS courses
Open in App
Solution

The correct option is D Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct
f(x)=x2x+1
Substitute f(x)=y
y=x2x+1
x2x+1y=0
x=1±4y32
x=12±y34
Since, x12
x=12+y34
f1(y)=12+y34
f1(x)=12+x34 ....(1)
Given, g(x)=12+x34 .....(2)
From (1) and (2), we have
g(x)=f1(x)
Therefore, f(x) and g(x) are inverses of each other.
Hence, reason is true.
Since ,f(x)=g(x)
f(x)=f1(x)
f(x)=x
x2x+1=x
(x1)2=0
x=1
i.e there is only one solution.
Hence, assertion is incorrect.

flag
Suggest Corrections
thumbs-up
0
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
similar_icon
Related Videos
thumbnail
lock
Inverse of a Function
MATHEMATICS
Watch in App
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
CrossIcon