Question

By selling 32 clips for a rupee, a man loses 40%. How many clips he must have to sell for a rupee to gain 20%?

• A. 64
• B. 30
• C. 24
• D. 16

Answer 1

The correct option is D 16

S.P. of 32 clip $=1$ rupee

S.P. of 1 clip $=\frac{1}{32}$ of a rupee

We know that:

$SP=CP(1-\frac{\%loss}{100})$

After $40\%$ loss for $1$ clip,

$SP=\frac{1}{32}=CP(1-\frac{40}{100})$

$CP=\frac{1}{32}\times \frac{10}{6}=\frac{5}{96}$ of a rupee.

For the gain of $20\%$ for $1$ clip,

$SP=\frac{5}{96}(1+\frac{20}{100})=\frac{1}{16}$ of a rupee.

Number of clips that can be sold with a $20\%$ profit in a rupee $=\left(\frac{1}{\frac{1}{16}}\right)=16$

$⟹$ he should sell 16 clips for a rupee.