Does division follow the associative law? Explain it with help of examples. [3 MARKS]

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Solution

Answer: 1 Mark
Example: 2 Marks

No, the "Associative Law" states that it doesn't matter how we group the numbers (i.e. which we calculate first) we will get same result.

a $\div$ (b $\div$ c) ≠ (a $\div$ b) $\div$ c (except in a few special cases)

Let assume a = 48, b = 16 and c = 2

48 $\div$ (16 $\div$ 2) = 48 $\div$ 8 = 6;

But (48 $\div$ 16) $\div$ 2 = 3 $\div$ 2 = 1.5

This example illustrates how division doesn't follow the associative property.

Regrouping the numbers resulted in two different answers.
So division does not follow the associative law.

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