If a function is defined such that its inverse exists then the domain of the function becomes the range of the inverse function

True

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False

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Solution

The correct option is A
True

We know that inverse of a function defined on f : A $\to$ B will be defined as $f^{- 1}$ : B $\to$ A . So the domain of function becomes the range of inverse function and range of function becomes the domain of inverse.

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If a function is defined such that its inverse exists then the domain of the function becomes the range of the inverse function

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