If f(x)=xn then value of f(1)−f′(1)1!+f′′(1)2!−f′′′(1)3!+....+(−1)nfn(1)n! is
A
2n−1
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B
0
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C
1
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D
2n
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Solution
The correct option is B0 f(x)−f′(x)1!+f′′(x)2!−....+(−1)nfn(x)n! =xn−nxn−11!+n(n−1)xn−22!+...+(−1)n−1x(n−1)!+(−1)nn! =nC0xn−nC1xn−1+nC2xn−2+...+(−1)nnCnx0 =(x−1)n Now substituting x=1, we get The sum of the series as 0.