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Question

If f(x)=xn then value of f(1)f(1)1!+f′′(1)2!f′′′(1)3!+....+(1)nfn(1)n! is

A
2n1
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B
0
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C
1
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D
2n
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Solution

The correct option is B 0
f(x)f(x)1!+f′′(x)2!....+(1)nfn(x)n!
=xnnxn11!+n(n1)xn22!+...+(1)n1x(n1)!+(1)nn!
=nC0xnnC1xn1+nC2xn2+...+(1)nnCnx0
=(x1)n
Now substituting x=1, we get
The sum of the series as 0.

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