CameraIcon
CameraIcon
SearchIcon
MyQuestionIcon
MyQuestionIcon
1
You visited us 1 times! Enjoying our articles? Unlock Full Access!
Question

Let g(x) = 1 + x - [x] and f(x)=āŽ§āŽØāŽ©āˆ’1,x<00,x=01,x>0, then for all x, f(g(x)) is equal to

A
x
No worries! Weā€˜ve got your back. Try BYJUā€˜S free classes today!
B
1
Right on! Give the BNAT exam to get a 100% scholarship for BYJUS courses
C
f(x)
No worries! Weā€˜ve got your back. Try BYJUā€˜S free classes today!
D
g(x)
No worries! Weā€˜ve got your back. Try BYJUā€˜S free classes today!
Open in App
Solution

The correct option is B 1

Here g(x) = 1 + n - n = 1, x=nZ

1+n+kn=1+k(where nZ,0<K<1)

Now f(g(x))=1,g(x)<00,g(x)=01,g(x)>0

Clearly, g(x)>0 for all x. So, f(g(x)) = 1 for all x.


flag
Suggest Corrections
thumbs-up
0
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
similar_icon
Related Videos
thumbnail
lock
Introduction to Differentiability
MATHEMATICS
Watch in App
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
CrossIcon