Let g(x)=1+x–[x]and f(x)=-1x<00x=01x>0Then for allx, f(g(x)) is equal to
x
1
f(x)
g(x)
Determine the value of f(g(x))
We know that:
x=x+x⇒x-x=xx∈[0,1)
Here x is the fractional part of x. Now we have:
f(g(x))=f(1+x-x)=f(1+x)
Here, 1+x>0. So, for x>0,f(x)=1.
Therefore, f(g(x))=1
Hence, option B is the correct answer.