CameraIcon
CameraIcon
SearchIcon
MyQuestionIcon
MyQuestionIcon
1
You visited us 1 times! Enjoying our articles? Unlock Full Access!
Question

Show that: π40log(1+tanx)dx=π8log2

Open in App
Solution

Consider the given integral.
I=π/40log(1+tanx)dx ..........(1)

On applying property
baf(x)dx=baf(a+bx)dx

Therefore,
I=π/40log(1+tan(π4x))dx
I=π/40log⎜ ⎜1+tanπ4tanx1+tanπ4tanx⎟ ⎟dx
I=π/40log(1+1tanx1+tanx)dx
I=π/40log(1+tanx+1tanx1+tanx)dx
I=π/40log(21+tanx)dx
I=π/40[log2log(1+tanx)]dx ............(2)

On adding eqaution (1) and (2), we get
2I=π/40log2dx
2I=log2[x]π/40
2I=π4log2
I=π8log2

Hence, this is the answer.

flag
Suggest Corrections
thumbs-up
0
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
similar_icon
Related Videos
thumbnail
lock
Property 1
MATHEMATICS
Watch in App
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
CrossIcon