Consider the given integral.
I=∫π/40log(1+tanx)dx ..........(1)
On applying property
∫baf(x)dx=∫baf(a+b−x)dx
Therefore,
I=∫π/40log(1+tan(π4−x))dx
I=∫π/40log⎛⎜
⎜⎝1+tanπ4−tanx1+tanπ4tanx⎞⎟
⎟⎠dx
I=∫π/40log(1+1−tanx1+tanx)dx
I=∫π/40log(1+tanx+1−tanx1+tanx)dx
I=∫π/40log(21+tanx)dx
I=∫π/40[log2−log(1+tanx)]dx ............(2)
On adding eqaution (1) and (2), we get
2I=∫π/40log2dx
2I=log2[x]π/40
2I=π4log2
I=π8log2
Hence, this is the answer.