UPSC 2017-18: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Aug 20 – Aug 26 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Exam Preparation: This week GK and current affairs quiz from August 26 to August 02 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
NOTE: If candidates find any questions repeated they need not panic and continue with the quiz and attempt the questions and consider repeated questions as practice.
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UPSC 2017: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz(Aug 27 – Sept02)
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Question 1 of 60
1. Question
Category: EconomyQuestion 1. Which of the following make the components of India’s forex reserves?
- Reverse tranche of World Bank
- Gold
- Special drawing Rights
- Foreign currencies
Select the correct options.
Correct
Reverse tranche are part of IMF.
Components of Indian Forex are: Reverse tranche of IMF, Gold, SDR’s and foreign currencies.
Incorrect
Reverse tranche are part of IMF.
Components of Indian Forex are: Reverse tranche of IMF, Gold, SDR’s and foreign currencies.
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Question 2 of 60
2. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyQuestion 2. Consider the following statements:
- Thorium is thrice as abundant as Uranium in Earth’s crust
- Thorium is difficult to weaponries
Choose the correct statements.
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 3 of 60
3. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyQuestion 3. Which of the following satellites is used by ISRO for monitoring crop acreage?
Correct
IRNSS is for navigation and location services, RISAT is for all-weather, 24×7 surveillance and Megha-Tropiques is for meteorology. Resourcesat-2A is primarily for remote sensing applications including monitoring crop acreage.
Incorrect
IRNSS is for navigation and location services, RISAT is for all-weather, 24×7 surveillance and Megha-Tropiques is for meteorology. Resourcesat-2A is primarily for remote sensing applications including monitoring crop acreage.
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Question 4 of 60
4. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyQuestion 4. Consider the following statements with reference to Bele-II experiment which was in news recently:
- Belle-II is designed to study violations of the Standard Model of particle physics.
- Belle-II experiment is being conducted at IISC ,Bangalore
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
- The High Energy Accelerator Research Organisation (KEK) completed the much-awaited ‘rolling-in’ of the Belle-II experiment in Tsukuba, Japan.
- Belle-II is designed to study violations of the Standard Model of particle physics.
Incorrect
Explanation
- The High Energy Accelerator Research Organisation (KEK) completed the much-awaited ‘rolling-in’ of the Belle-II experiment in Tsukuba, Japan.
- Belle-II is designed to study violations of the Standard Model of particle physics.
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Question 5 of 60
5. Question
Category: PolityQuestion 5. Which of the following articles in the Indian Constitution deal specifically with Jammu & Kashmir?
- Article 368
- Article 370
- Article 352
- Article 35A
Choose the right option from the below given codes.
Correct
Article 370 and 35A provide for special provisions to the state of J&K.
Incorrect
Article 370 and 35A provide for special provisions to the state of J&K.
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Question 6 of 60
6. Question
Category: GeographyQuestion 6. Hurricane Harvey, the most powerful to hit the United States in 13 years, has been classified as:
Correct
Hurricane Harvey, the most powerful to hit the United States in 13 years, left a trail of destruction as it swept across Texas on Sunday, pummelling the region with heavy rains and claiming at least two lives since making landfall on the US’ Gulf Coast.
With winds topping 130 mph, Harvey is the first Category 4 storm to make landfall in the US since Hurricane Charley struck Florida in 2004, and the first to hit Texas since Hurricane Carla in 1961.
Harvey bombarded the stretch of the Gulf Coast in Texas with home-ripping winds and torrential rains.
Incorrect
Hurricane Harvey, the most powerful to hit the United States in 13 years, left a trail of destruction as it swept across Texas on Sunday, pummelling the region with heavy rains and claiming at least two lives since making landfall on the US’ Gulf Coast.
With winds topping 130 mph, Harvey is the first Category 4 storm to make landfall in the US since Hurricane Charley struck Florida in 2004, and the first to hit Texas since Hurricane Carla in 1961.
Harvey bombarded the stretch of the Gulf Coast in Texas with home-ripping winds and torrential rains.
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Question 7 of 60
7. Question
Category: EconomyQuestion 7. Consider the following statements with reference to the Finance Act, 2017, the passage of which by the Parliament, was a part of enactment of the budget:
- It amended the provisions under different laws to allow the executive to determine the qualifications, tenure, conditions of service and removal of members of some tribunals
- It merged several tribunals
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- The controversy over the Finance Bill, 2017, being passed as a money bill may have died down, but questions about the legality of the merger of several tribunals remain alive.
- The Bill included amendments to legislation on multiple subjects, in an attempt to rationalise the functioning of multiple tribunals.
- As a result, what used to be 26 tribunals are now down to 19. For instance, the Telecom Dispute Appellate Tribunal will also do the work of the Cyber Law Appellate Tribunal and the Airports Economic Regulatory Authority Appellate Tribunal.
- The bill (now act) also allows the central government to specify the appointments, tenure, removal, and reappointment of chairpersons and members of Tribunals through Rules (and not laws, as is the current method).
Incorrect
- The controversy over the Finance Bill, 2017, being passed as a money bill may have died down, but questions about the legality of the merger of several tribunals remain alive.
- The Bill included amendments to legislation on multiple subjects, in an attempt to rationalise the functioning of multiple tribunals.
- As a result, what used to be 26 tribunals are now down to 19. For instance, the Telecom Dispute Appellate Tribunal will also do the work of the Cyber Law Appellate Tribunal and the Airports Economic Regulatory Authority Appellate Tribunal.
- The bill (now act) also allows the central government to specify the appointments, tenure, removal, and reappointment of chairpersons and members of Tribunals through Rules (and not laws, as is the current method).
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Question 8 of 60
8. Question
Category: PolityQuestion 8. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to the functioning of the NALSA?
- NALSA organises Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes.
- NALSA identifies specific categories of the marginalised and excluded groups and formulates various schemes for the implementation of preventive and strategic legal service programmes.
Select the correct option/s.
Correct
- NALSA organises Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes.
- NALSA identifies specific categories of the marginalised and excluded groups and formulates various schemes for the implementation of preventive and strategic legal service programmes.
- Services provided by the agency include free legal aid in civil and criminal matters for the poor and marginalised people who cannot afford the service of a lawyer in any court or tribunal.
- Free legal services include provision of aid and advice to beneficiaries to access the benefits under the welfare statutes and schemes and to ensure access to justice in any other manner.
Incorrect
- NALSA organises Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes.
- NALSA identifies specific categories of the marginalised and excluded groups and formulates various schemes for the implementation of preventive and strategic legal service programmes.
- Services provided by the agency include free legal aid in civil and criminal matters for the poor and marginalised people who cannot afford the service of a lawyer in any court or tribunal.
- Free legal services include provision of aid and advice to beneficiaries to access the benefits under the welfare statutes and schemes and to ensure access to justice in any other manner.
-
Question 9 of 60
9. Question
Category: GeographyQuestion 9. The Doklam Plateau supervises the _______.
Correct
The Doklam Plateau lies immediately east of Indian defences in Sikkim. Chinese occupation of Doklam would turn the flank of Indian defences completely. This piece of dominating ground not only has a commanding view of the Chumbi Valley but also overlooks the Silguri Corridor further to the east.
Incorrect
The Doklam Plateau lies immediately east of Indian defences in Sikkim. Chinese occupation of Doklam would turn the flank of Indian defences completely. This piece of dominating ground not only has a commanding view of the Chumbi Valley but also overlooks the Silguri Corridor further to the east.
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Question 10 of 60
10. Question
Category: G KQuestion 10. In India, the steel production industry requires the import of
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 11 of 60
11. Question
Category: Current AffairsQuestion 11. The area known as ‘Golan Heights’ sometimes appears in the news in the context of the events related to ______.
Correct
- Golan Heights is in Syria. However, the western two-thirds of this region are currently occupied by Israel, whereas the eastern third is controlled by Syria.
Incorrect
- Golan Heights is in Syria. However, the western two-thirds of this region are currently occupied by Israel, whereas the eastern third is controlled by Syria.
-
Question 12 of 60
12. Question
Category: International RelationsQuestion 12. Which one of the following issues the ‘Global Economic Prospectus’ report periodically?
Correct
The World Bank issues ‘Global Economic Prospectus’ report periodically.
Incorrect
The World Bank issues ‘Global Economic Prospectus’ report periodically.
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Question 13 of 60
13. Question
Category: EconomyQuestion 13. In the ‘Index of Eight Core Industries’, which one of the following is given the highest weight?
Correct
Sector Weight Coal 4.379 Crude Oil 5.216 Natural Gas 1.708 Refinery Products 5.939 Fertilizers 1.254 Steel 6.684 Cement 2.406 OVERALL INDEX 37.903 Incorrect
Sector Weight Coal 4.379 Crude Oil 5.216 Natural Gas 1.708 Refinery Products 5.939 Fertilizers 1.254 Steel 6.684 Cement 2.406 OVERALL INDEX 37.903 -
Question 14 of 60
14. Question
Category: PolityQuestion 14. ‘Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana’ has been launched for ______.
Correct
-
Objective of “Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)” is ensuring access to various financial services like availability of basic savings bank account, access to need based credit, remittances facility, insurance and pension to the excluded sections i.e. weaker sections & low income groups. This deep penetration at affordable cost is possible only with effective use of technology.
-
PMJDY is a National Mission on Financial Inclusion encompassing an integrated approach to bring about comprehensive financial inclusion of all the households in the country. The plan envisages universal access to banking facilities with at least one basic banking account for every household, financial literacy, access to credit, insurance and pension facility. In addition, the beneficiaries would get RuPay Debit card having inbuilt accident insurance cover of र 1 lakh. The plan also envisages channeling all Government benefits (from Centre / State / Local Body) to the beneficiaries accounts and pushing the Direct Benefits Transfer (DBT) scheme of the Union Government. The technological issues like poor connectivity, on-line transactions will be addressed. Mobile transactions through telecom operators and their established centres as Cash Out Points are also planned to be used for Financial Inclusion under the Scheme. Also an effort is being made to reach out to the youth of this country to participate in this Mission Mode Programme.
Incorrect
-
Objective of “Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)” is ensuring access to various financial services like availability of basic savings bank account, access to need based credit, remittances facility, insurance and pension to the excluded sections i.e. weaker sections & low income groups. This deep penetration at affordable cost is possible only with effective use of technology.
-
PMJDY is a National Mission on Financial Inclusion encompassing an integrated approach to bring about comprehensive financial inclusion of all the households in the country. The plan envisages universal access to banking facilities with at least one basic banking account for every household, financial literacy, access to credit, insurance and pension facility. In addition, the beneficiaries would get RuPay Debit card having inbuilt accident insurance cover of र 1 lakh. The plan also envisages channeling all Government benefits (from Centre / State / Local Body) to the beneficiaries accounts and pushing the Direct Benefits Transfer (DBT) scheme of the Union Government. The technological issues like poor connectivity, on-line transactions will be addressed. Mobile transactions through telecom operators and their established centres as Cash Out Points are also planned to be used for Financial Inclusion under the Scheme. Also an effort is being made to reach out to the youth of this country to participate in this Mission Mode Programme.
-
Question 15 of 60
15. Question
Category: PolityQuestion 15. Which of the following articles under Part 3 of the constitution safeguard the minority educational institution?
- Article 29
- Article 15
- Article 30
- All the above
Select the correct options.
Correct
- Article 30, titled “Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions”, says:
- “(1) All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice
- (1A) In making any law providing for the compulsory acquisition of any property of an educational institution established and administered by a minority, referred to in clause (1), the State shall ensure that the amount fixed by or determined under such law for the acquisition of such property is such as would not restrict or abrogate the right guaranteed under that clause
- (2) The state shall not, in granting aid to educational institutions, discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a minority, whether based on religion or language.
- Article 29, “Protection of interests of minorities”, says:
- “(1) Any section of the citizens residing in the territory of India or any part thereof having a distinct language, script or culture of its own shall have the right to conserve the same.”
Incorrect
- Article 30, titled “Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions”, says:
- “(1) All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice
- (1A) In making any law providing for the compulsory acquisition of any property of an educational institution established and administered by a minority, referred to in clause (1), the State shall ensure that the amount fixed by or determined under such law for the acquisition of such property is such as would not restrict or abrogate the right guaranteed under that clause
- (2) The state shall not, in granting aid to educational institutions, discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a minority, whether based on religion or language.
- Article 29, “Protection of interests of minorities”, says:
- “(1) Any section of the citizens residing in the territory of India or any part thereof having a distinct language, script or culture of its own shall have the right to conserve the same.”
-
Question 16 of 60
16. Question
Category: PolityQuestion 16. The inter-state council consists of ______.
- Prime Minister
- Chief Ministers of all states
- Chief Ministers of all UT’s with legislatures
- Eight union cabinet ministers
- Administrators of UT’s
Select the incorrect options.
Correct
PM, CM of all states and of UT’s with legislature make the members of the council.
Incorrect
PM, CM of all states and of UT’s with legislature make the members of the council.
-
Question 17 of 60
17. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyQuestion 17. Consider the following statements:
- Influenza A (H1N1) virus is the subtype of influenza A virus that was the most common cause of human influenza in 2009.
- H1N1 flu is also known as swine flu caused by swine influenza virus that is endemic in pigs.
Select the incorrect options.
Correct
Influenza A (H1N1) virus is the subtype of influenza A virus that was the most common cause of human influenza in 2009. H1N1 flu is also known as swine flu caused by swine influenza virus that is endemic in pigs.
Incorrect
Influenza A (H1N1) virus is the subtype of influenza A virus that was the most common cause of human influenza in 2009. H1N1 flu is also known as swine flu caused by swine influenza virus that is endemic in pigs.
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Question 18 of 60
18. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyQuestion 18. Contamination of drinking water with which of the following causes Blackfoot disease (BFD)?
Correct
- Arsenicosis or Black foot is caused by exposure over a period of time to Arsenic in drinking water. It may also be due to intake of arsenic via food or air. Kindly note that Itai-itai disease is caused by Cadmium poisoning.
Incorrect
- Arsenicosis or Black foot is caused by exposure over a period of time to Arsenic in drinking water. It may also be due to intake of arsenic via food or air. Kindly note that Itai-itai disease is caused by Cadmium poisoning.
-
Question 19 of 60
19. Question
Category: PolityQuestion 19. Once appointed, the Chief Justice remains in office until the age of ______.
Correct
- Once appointed, the Chief Justice remains in office until the age of 65 years.
Incorrect
- Once appointed, the Chief Justice remains in office until the age of 65 years.
-
Question 20 of 60
20. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyQuestion 20. Minocycline, a drug which was in news recently can be a potential drug to treat _________.
Correct
- Minocycline — an antibiotic typically used to treat severe acne — surprisingly seemed to cure rats infected with the JE virus.
Incorrect
- Minocycline — an antibiotic typically used to treat severe acne — surprisingly seemed to cure rats infected with the JE virus.
-
Question 21 of 60
21. Question
Category: PolityQuestion 21. Seniority at the Supreme court is determined by age ______.
Correct
Seniority at the apex court is determined not by age, but by:
- The date a judge was appointed to the Supreme Court.
- If two judges are elevated to the Supreme Court on the same day,
- The one who was sworn in first as a judge would trump another;
- If both were sworn in as judges on the same day, the one with more years of high court service would ‘win’ in the seniority stakes;
- An appointment from the bench would ‘trump’ in seniority an appointee from the bar.
Incorrect
Seniority at the apex court is determined not by age, but by:
- The date a judge was appointed to the Supreme Court.
- If two judges are elevated to the Supreme Court on the same day,
- The one who was sworn in first as a judge would trump another;
- If both were sworn in as judges on the same day, the one with more years of high court service would ‘win’ in the seniority stakes;
- An appointment from the bench would ‘trump’ in seniority an appointee from the bar.
-
Question 22 of 60
22. Question
Category: GeographyQuestion 22. The Makran Trench is located in _______.
Correct
- The Makran Trench is the physiographic expression of a subduction zone along the northeastern margin of the Gulf of Oman adjacent to the southwestern coast of Balochistan of Pakistan and the southeastern coast of Iran. In this region the oceanic crust of the Arabian Plate is being subducted beneath the continental crust of the Eurasian Plate.
Incorrect
- The Makran Trench is the physiographic expression of a subduction zone along the northeastern margin of the Gulf of Oman adjacent to the southwestern coast of Balochistan of Pakistan and the southeastern coast of Iran. In this region the oceanic crust of the Arabian Plate is being subducted beneath the continental crust of the Eurasian Plate.
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Question 23 of 60
23. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyQuestion 23. Consider the following statement with reference to Egyptian vultures, which was in news recently:
- It is the largest among all the vultures.
- It is an endangered species as per IUCN’s Red data book.
- It is also called as white scavengers
Choose the correct answer.
Correct
Egyptian vultures (Neophron percnopterus) are also called white scavenger vulture or pharaoh’s chicken and are the smallest among all vultures. They are a globally endangered species on the IUCN Red List.
Incorrect
Egyptian vultures (Neophron percnopterus) are also called white scavenger vulture or pharaoh’s chicken and are the smallest among all vultures. They are a globally endangered species on the IUCN Red List.
-
Question 24 of 60
24. Question
Category: Current AffairsQuestion 24. Which among the following vaccines come under Penatavalent vaccine?
Correct
Pentavalent vaccine- The pentavalent vaccine is a combination of DPT (diphtheria, Pertussis/whooping cough and tetanus), Hepatitis B and Hib vaccines. DPT and Hepatitis B vaccines are already a part of the immunisation programme. They are being replaced by pentavalent vaccine in a phased manner in the country.
Incorrect
Pentavalent vaccine- The pentavalent vaccine is a combination of DPT (diphtheria, Pertussis/whooping cough and tetanus), Hepatitis B and Hib vaccines. DPT and Hepatitis B vaccines are already a part of the immunisation programme. They are being replaced by pentavalent vaccine in a phased manner in the country.
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Question 25 of 60
25. Question
Category: Current AffairsQuestion 25. The 2017 session of the “IAS Conference” is being held in Paris, France. This conference is related to which one of the following subjects/issues?
Correct
‘IAS’ stands for ‘International Aids Society’
A nine-year-old infected with HIV at birth has spent most of its life without needing any treatment, say doctors in South Africa.
In the news: The results of this case are being presented at the IAS Conference on HIV Science.
Incorrect
‘IAS’ stands for ‘International Aids Society’
A nine-year-old infected with HIV at birth has spent most of its life without needing any treatment, say doctors in South Africa.
In the news: The results of this case are being presented at the IAS Conference on HIV Science.
-
Question 26 of 60
26. Question
Category: PolityQuestion 26. Which of the following statements is/are provisions found in the Whistleblowers Protection (Amendment) Bill, 2015?
- It prohibits disclosures to be made if they are covered by the Official Secrets Act, 1923
- It prohibits the reporting of a corruption-related disclosure if it falls under certain prohibited categories which are modelled on those under the RTI Act
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
The amendment Bill seeks to remove immunity provided to whistle-blowers from prosecution under the draconian Official Secrets Act (OSA) for disclosures made under the WBP law. Offences under the OSA are punishable by imprisonment of up to 14 years. Threat of such stringent penalties would deter even genuine whistle-blowers. The basic purpose of the WBP Act is to encourage people to report wrongdoing. If whistle-blowers are prosecuted for disclosing information as part of their complaints and not granted immunity from the OSA, the very purpose of the law would be defeated.
The amendment bill tries to bring the WBP act in line with the RTI Act. The amendments ignore the fact that the two laws have completely different objectives. The RTI Act seeks to provide information to people, while the WBP Act provides a mechanism for disclosures to be made to competent authorities within the government to enable inquiry into allegations of corruption and provide protection to whistle-blowers.
Incorrect
The amendment Bill seeks to remove immunity provided to whistle-blowers from prosecution under the draconian Official Secrets Act (OSA) for disclosures made under the WBP law. Offences under the OSA are punishable by imprisonment of up to 14 years. Threat of such stringent penalties would deter even genuine whistle-blowers. The basic purpose of the WBP Act is to encourage people to report wrongdoing. If whistle-blowers are prosecuted for disclosing information as part of their complaints and not granted immunity from the OSA, the very purpose of the law would be defeated.
The amendment bill tries to bring the WBP act in line with the RTI Act. The amendments ignore the fact that the two laws have completely different objectives. The RTI Act seeks to provide information to people, while the WBP Act provides a mechanism for disclosures to be made to competent authorities within the government to enable inquiry into allegations of corruption and provide protection to whistle-blowers.
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Question 27 of 60
27. Question
Category: PolityQuestion 27. Consider the following statements with respect to National Commission for Backward Classes (Repeal) Bill, 2017:
- The bill is meant to upgrade the Backward Classes Commission from a statutory body to a constitutional body.
- The Constitution (123rd Amendment) Bill, 2017, providing for setting up of a National Commission for Backward Classes, is passed by the Rajya Sabha and Lok sabha awaiting the President’s assent.
Select the correct option.
Correct
- The bill is meant to upgrade the Backward Classes Commission from a statutory body to a constitutional body.
- The Constitution (123rd Amendment) Bill, 2017, providing for setting up of a National Commission for Backward Classes, is passed by the Rajya Sabha and Lok sabha awaiting the President’s assent.
- Functions: Under the Constitution Amendment Bill, the duties of the NCBC will include: (i) investigating and monitoring how safeguards provided to the backward classes under the Constitution and other laws are being implemented, (ii) inquiring into specific complaints regarding violation of rights, and (iii) advising and making recommendations on socio-economic development of such classes. The central and state governments will be required to consult with the NCBC on all major policy matters affecting the socially and educationally backward classes.
- The NCBC will be required to present annual reports to the President on working of the safeguards for backward classes. These reports will be tabled in Parliament, and in the state legislative assemblies of the concerned states.
Incorrect
- The bill is meant to upgrade the Backward Classes Commission from a statutory body to a constitutional body.
- The Constitution (123rd Amendment) Bill, 2017, providing for setting up of a National Commission for Backward Classes, is passed by the Rajya Sabha and Lok sabha awaiting the President’s assent.
- Functions: Under the Constitution Amendment Bill, the duties of the NCBC will include: (i) investigating and monitoring how safeguards provided to the backward classes under the Constitution and other laws are being implemented, (ii) inquiring into specific complaints regarding violation of rights, and (iii) advising and making recommendations on socio-economic development of such classes. The central and state governments will be required to consult with the NCBC on all major policy matters affecting the socially and educationally backward classes.
- The NCBC will be required to present annual reports to the President on working of the safeguards for backward classes. These reports will be tabled in Parliament, and in the state legislative assemblies of the concerned states.
-
Question 28 of 60
28. Question
Category: PolityQuestion 28. Which of the following judgements are related to section 377 of IPC?
- Naz Foundation v. Government of NCT of Delhi (2009)
- Suresh Kumar Koushal v. Naz Foundation (2013) case
Select the correct option.
Correct
The Delhi High Court in Naz Foundation v. Government of NCT of Delhi (2009) rightly held that criminalising sexual activities with consent in private not only impairs the dignity of those persons targeted by the law, but it is also discriminatory and impacts the health of those people.
The top court had set aside a historic Delhi High Court judgment that had decriminalized homosexuality.
Supreme Court, in Suresh Kumar Koushal v. Naz Foundation (2013) case, set aside the Delhi High Court judgment and said that homosexuality or unnatural sex between two consenting adults under Section 377 of IPC is illegal and will continue to be an offense. The court said that Section 377 did not suffer from any “constitutional infirmity”.
The astounding claim made in Koushal case that there was no need to challenge Section 377 because the LGBT community constitutes only a minuscule minority has been completely discredited. It was unreasonable to advance the view that constitutional protection is available to a group based on its size.
Incorrect
The Delhi High Court in Naz Foundation v. Government of NCT of Delhi (2009) rightly held that criminalising sexual activities with consent in private not only impairs the dignity of those persons targeted by the law, but it is also discriminatory and impacts the health of those people.
The top court had set aside a historic Delhi High Court judgment that had decriminalized homosexuality.
Supreme Court, in Suresh Kumar Koushal v. Naz Foundation (2013) case, set aside the Delhi High Court judgment and said that homosexuality or unnatural sex between two consenting adults under Section 377 of IPC is illegal and will continue to be an offense. The court said that Section 377 did not suffer from any “constitutional infirmity”.
The astounding claim made in Koushal case that there was no need to challenge Section 377 because the LGBT community constitutes only a minuscule minority has been completely discredited. It was unreasonable to advance the view that constitutional protection is available to a group based on its size.
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Question 29 of 60
29. Question
Category: Current AffairsQuestion 29. The National Nutrition Week will be observed throughout the country from 1st to 7th September. Consider the following statements with respect to it
- The theme of the National Nutrition Week for 2017 is “Optimal Infant & Young Child Feeding Practices: Better Child Health”.
- The basic objective of this annual event is to intensify awareness generation on the importance of nutrition for health
Select the correct option.
Correct
Theme: The theme of the National Nutrition Week for 2017 is “Optimal Infant & Young Child Feeding Practices: Better Child Health”.
Objective: The basic objective of this annual event is to intensify awareness generation on the importance of nutrition for health which has an impact on development, productivity, economic growth and ultimately National development.
Incorrect
Theme: The theme of the National Nutrition Week for 2017 is “Optimal Infant & Young Child Feeding Practices: Better Child Health”.
Objective: The basic objective of this annual event is to intensify awareness generation on the importance of nutrition for health which has an impact on development, productivity, economic growth and ultimately National development.
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Question 30 of 60
30. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyQuestion 30. The Murlen National Park (MNP) is located in which state?
Correct
The Murlen National Park (MNP) is located in the Champhai district of Mizoram and covers an area of 200 square kilometres. The tropical, semi-evergreen and sub montane Forests of Murlen are home to a rich variety of flora and fauna. It is home to the tiger, leopard, sambar, barking deer, Malayan giant squirrel, Hume’s pheasant, etc. About 15 species of mammals, 150 species of birds, 35 species of Medicinal plants, 2 species of bamboos, and 4 species of orchids so far have been recorded in this Park.
Incorrect
The Murlen National Park (MNP) is located in the Champhai district of Mizoram and covers an area of 200 square kilometres. The tropical, semi-evergreen and sub montane Forests of Murlen are home to a rich variety of flora and fauna. It is home to the tiger, leopard, sambar, barking deer, Malayan giant squirrel, Hume’s pheasant, etc. About 15 species of mammals, 150 species of birds, 35 species of Medicinal plants, 2 species of bamboos, and 4 species of orchids so far have been recorded in this Park.
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Question 31 of 60
31. Question
Category: GeographyQuestion 31. Temperate grasslands in Argentina is popularly known as ______.
Correct
Temperate grassland
- Argentia- Pampas
- N.America- Prairie
- Africa-Veld
- C. Asia- Steppe
Incorrect
Temperate grassland
- Argentia- Pampas
- N.America- Prairie
- Africa-Veld
- C. Asia- Steppe
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Question 32 of 60
32. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyQuestion 32. Consider the following statements:
- Bromeliads can be found at altitudes from sea level to 4200 meters, from rainforests to deserts.
- Pineapple is a bromeliads
Choose the correct statements.
Correct
- Plants in the Bromeliaceae are widely represented in their natural climates across the Americas. One species can be found in Africa. They can be found at altitudes from sea level to 4200 meters, from rainforests to deserts. 1814 species are epiphytes, some are lithophytes, and some are terrestrial. Accordingly, these plants can be found in the Andean highlands, from northern Chile to Colombia, in the Sechura Desert of coastal Peru, in the cloud forests of Central and South America, in southern United States from southern Virginia to Florida to Texas, and in far southern Arizona.
Incorrect
- Plants in the Bromeliaceae are widely represented in their natural climates across the Americas. One species can be found in Africa. They can be found at altitudes from sea level to 4200 meters, from rainforests to deserts. 1814 species are epiphytes, some are lithophytes, and some are terrestrial. Accordingly, these plants can be found in the Andean highlands, from northern Chile to Colombia, in the Sechura Desert of coastal Peru, in the cloud forests of Central and South America, in southern United States from southern Virginia to Florida to Texas, and in far southern Arizona.
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Question 33 of 60
33. Question
Category: PolityQuestion 33. Consider the following statements:
- Article 164, provided for limiting the number of ministers in the state cabinet.
- Article 164 was inserted in the Constitution based on the recommendation of the National Commission for Review of the Working of the Constitution headed by former Chief Justice of India, M.N. Venkatachaliah
Choose the correct statements.
Correct
- Article 164 (1A) provides for limiting the number of ministers in the state cabinets. The total number of ministers including the Chief Minister, has to be within 15 per cent of the total number of members of the legislative assembly of the state.
- Article 164 (1A) was inserted in the Constitution on the recommendation of the National Commission for Review of the Working of the Constitution headed by former Chief Justice of India, M.N. Venkatachaliah on misuse and drainage of public money to put a ban on over-sized cabinet.
Incorrect
- Article 164 (1A) provides for limiting the number of ministers in the state cabinets. The total number of ministers including the Chief Minister, has to be within 15 per cent of the total number of members of the legislative assembly of the state.
- Article 164 (1A) was inserted in the Constitution on the recommendation of the National Commission for Review of the Working of the Constitution headed by former Chief Justice of India, M.N. Venkatachaliah on misuse and drainage of public money to put a ban on over-sized cabinet.
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Question 34 of 60
34. Question
Category: International RelationsQuestion 34. Identify the correct statements.
- Global Retirement Index is created by French asset management company Natixis Global.
- Index ranks countries on the basis of four factors — the material means to live comfortably in retirement; access to quality financial services to help preserve savings value and maximize income; access to quality health services; and a clean and safe environment.
Select the correct option.
Correct
The index created by French asset management company Natixis Global, ranks countries on the basis of four factors — the material means to live comfortably in retirement; access to quality financial services to help preserve savings value and maximize income; access to quality health services; and a clean and safe environment.
The index ranks 43 countries which include International Monetary Fund (IMF) advanced economies, members of the Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) and the BRIC countries (Brazil, Russia, India and China).
Incorrect
The index created by French asset management company Natixis Global, ranks countries on the basis of four factors — the material means to live comfortably in retirement; access to quality financial services to help preserve savings value and maximize income; access to quality health services; and a clean and safe environment.
The index ranks 43 countries which include International Monetary Fund (IMF) advanced economies, members of the Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) and the BRIC countries (Brazil, Russia, India and China).
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Question 35 of 60
35. Question
Category: PolityQuestion 35. Identify the correct statements with respect to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojna’ (PMKVY).
Correct
- Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is the flagship outcome-based skill training scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE).
- The objective of this skill certification and reward scheme is to enable and mobilize a large number of Indian youth to take up outcome based skill training and become employable and earn their livelihood.
- Under the scheme, monetary reward would be provided to trainees who are successfully trained, assessed and certified in skill courses run by affiliated training providers.
Incorrect
- Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is the flagship outcome-based skill training scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE).
- The objective of this skill certification and reward scheme is to enable and mobilize a large number of Indian youth to take up outcome based skill training and become employable and earn their livelihood.
- Under the scheme, monetary reward would be provided to trainees who are successfully trained, assessed and certified in skill courses run by affiliated training providers.
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Question 36 of 60
36. Question
Category: PolityQuestion 36. Consider the following statements with respect to YUVA initiative:
- YUVA is a skill development program and an initiative by Delhi Police under Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana
- ‘YUVA’ initiative by Delhi Police aims to connect with youth by upgrading their skill as per their competencies.
Select the correct option.
Correct
- ‘YUVA’ initiative by Delhi Police aims to connect with youth by upgrading their skill as per their competencies.
- It will help them to get a gainful employment under Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojna under the Ministry of Skill Development.
- National Skill Development Corporation shall be providing skill training to the youth under ‘Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojna’ (PMKVY) and CII will provide job linked training through its Sector Skill Councils who are connected to industry and thereby provide job guarantee.
Incorrect
- ‘YUVA’ initiative by Delhi Police aims to connect with youth by upgrading their skill as per their competencies.
- It will help them to get a gainful employment under Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojna under the Ministry of Skill Development.
- National Skill Development Corporation shall be providing skill training to the youth under ‘Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojna’ (PMKVY) and CII will provide job linked training through its Sector Skill Councils who are connected to industry and thereby provide job guarantee.
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Question 37 of 60
37. Question
Category: GeographyQuestion 37. Consider the following statements:
- Monazite is an important ore for thorium,lanthanum, and cerium
- India, Madagascar, and South Africa have large deposits of monazite sands.
- The deposits in India are particularly rich in monazite
Identify the correct statements from the options given below.
Correct
Monazite is an important ore for thorium,lanthanum, and cerium. It is often found in placer deposits. India, Madagascar, and South Africa have large deposits of monazite sands. The deposits in India are particularly rich in monazite.
Incorrect
Monazite is an important ore for thorium,lanthanum, and cerium. It is often found in placer deposits. India, Madagascar, and South Africa have large deposits of monazite sands. The deposits in India are particularly rich in monazite.
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Question 38 of 60
38. Question
Category: PolityQuestion 38. The word “Budget” is mentioned in which of the following Article of Indian Constitution?
Correct
- Article 112. Annual financial statement.
Incorrect
- Article 112. Annual financial statement.
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Question 39 of 60
39. Question
Category: PolityQuestion 39. The ultimate responsibility of taking due action to the comments of the C & AG vests with:
Correct
- The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is an authority, established by the Constitution under Constitution of India/Part V – Chapter V/Sub-part 7B/Article 148, which audits all receipts and expenditure of the Government of India and the state governments, including those of bodies and authorities substantially financed by the government.
- The CAG is also the external auditor of Government-owned corporations and conducts supplementary audit of government companies, i.e., any non-banking/ non-insurance company in which Union Government has an equity share of at least 51 per cent or subsidiary companies of existing government companies.
- The reports of the CAG are taken into consideration by the Public Accounts Committees (PACs) and Committees on Public Undertakings (COPUs), which are special committees in the Parliament of India and the state legislatures.
Incorrect
- The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is an authority, established by the Constitution under Constitution of India/Part V – Chapter V/Sub-part 7B/Article 148, which audits all receipts and expenditure of the Government of India and the state governments, including those of bodies and authorities substantially financed by the government.
- The CAG is also the external auditor of Government-owned corporations and conducts supplementary audit of government companies, i.e., any non-banking/ non-insurance company in which Union Government has an equity share of at least 51 per cent or subsidiary companies of existing government companies.
- The reports of the CAG are taken into consideration by the Public Accounts Committees (PACs) and Committees on Public Undertakings (COPUs), which are special committees in the Parliament of India and the state legislatures.
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Question 40 of 60
40. Question
Category: HistoryQuestion 40. Which among the following depicts the correct meaning of the term Jins-i-kamil concerning crops in Mughal India?
Correct
- Cash crops like cotton and Sugarcane were known as Jins-i-Kamil or Jins-i-Ala. Cotton was produced mostly in Khandesh and Bengal.
Incorrect
- Cash crops like cotton and Sugarcane were known as Jins-i-Kamil or Jins-i-Ala. Cotton was produced mostly in Khandesh and Bengal.
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Question 41 of 60
41. Question
Category: GeographyQuestion 41. Sargasso Sea is characterized by _____.
Correct
- The Sargasso Sea is a region of the North Atlantic Ocean bounded by four currents forming an ocean gyre. Unlike all other regions called seas, it has no land boundaries. It is distinguished from other parts of the Atlantic Ocean by its characteristic brown Sargassum seaweed and often calm blue water.
- The sea is bounded on the west by the Gulf Stream, on the north by the North Atlantic Current, on the east by the Canary Current, and on the south by the North Atlantic Equatorial Current, a clockwise-circulating system of ocean currents termed the North Atlantic Gyre.
- It lies between 70º and 40º W, and 20º to 35º N, and is approximately 1,100 km wide by 3,200 km long (700 by 2,000 statute miles).[5][6] Bermuda is near the western fringes of the sea.
- All the currents deposit the marine plants and refuse they carry into this sea, yet the ocean water in the Sargasso Sea is distinctive for its deep blue color and exceptional clarity, with underwater visibility of up to 61 m (200 ft).It is also a body of water that has captured the public imagination, and so is seen in a wide variety of literary and artistic works and in popular culture.
Incorrect
- The Sargasso Sea is a region of the North Atlantic Ocean bounded by four currents forming an ocean gyre. Unlike all other regions called seas, it has no land boundaries. It is distinguished from other parts of the Atlantic Ocean by its characteristic brown Sargassum seaweed and often calm blue water.
- The sea is bounded on the west by the Gulf Stream, on the north by the North Atlantic Current, on the east by the Canary Current, and on the south by the North Atlantic Equatorial Current, a clockwise-circulating system of ocean currents termed the North Atlantic Gyre.
- It lies between 70º and 40º W, and 20º to 35º N, and is approximately 1,100 km wide by 3,200 km long (700 by 2,000 statute miles).[5][6] Bermuda is near the western fringes of the sea.
- All the currents deposit the marine plants and refuse they carry into this sea, yet the ocean water in the Sargasso Sea is distinctive for its deep blue color and exceptional clarity, with underwater visibility of up to 61 m (200 ft).It is also a body of water that has captured the public imagination, and so is seen in a wide variety of literary and artistic works and in popular culture.
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Question 42 of 60
42. Question
Category: Art and CultureQuestion 42. Identify the incorrect statements.
- Nuakhai is the chief festival of Western Odisha.
- It is the harvest festival of Odisha wherein farmers are in possession of new rice of the season.
Select the correct option.
Correct
Nuakhai is the chief festival of Western Odisha. It is the harvest festival of Odisha wherein farmers are in possession of new rice of the season. They offer the first produce of their respective lands to Goddess Samaleswari and then consume it personally.
Incorrect
Nuakhai is the chief festival of Western Odisha. It is the harvest festival of Odisha wherein farmers are in possession of new rice of the season. They offer the first produce of their respective lands to Goddess Samaleswari and then consume it personally.
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Question 43 of 60
43. Question
Category: Current AffairsQuestion 43. Consider the following statements:
- Gobindobhog is a sweet variety of Bengal.
- Gobindobhog has recently been given the Geographical indicator tag.
Select the correct option/s.
Correct
Gobindobhog rice, a speciality from Burdwan district of West Bengal, has got the geographical indication (GI) status. It is a short grain, white, aromatic, sticky rice having a sweet buttery flavor.
Incorrect
Gobindobhog rice, a speciality from Burdwan district of West Bengal, has got the geographical indication (GI) status. It is a short grain, white, aromatic, sticky rice having a sweet buttery flavor.
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Question 44 of 60
44. Question
Category: Current AffairsQuestion 44. Identify the correct statements with respect to the GI Tag.
Correct
- GI is covered under the Intellectual Property Rights and the Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights.
- A GI tag certifies the origin of a product or produce from a particular region as the quality or other features of the product is attributable only to the place of its origin.
- The tag helps farmers or manufacturers, as the case may be, to get a better price in the market.
Incorrect
- GI is covered under the Intellectual Property Rights and the Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights.
- A GI tag certifies the origin of a product or produce from a particular region as the quality or other features of the product is attributable only to the place of its origin.
- The tag helps farmers or manufacturers, as the case may be, to get a better price in the market.
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Question 45 of 60
45. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyQuestion 45. Arsenic present in groundwater can be partially removed ______.
Correct
The presence of elevated levels of arsenic in groundwater has become a major concern around the world, especially in South Asia. Up to date, there is no effective treatment for curing health impacts due to the intake of high levels of arsenic. A wide range of technologies has been developed for the removal of high concentrations of arsenic from drinking water. The most common arsenic removal technologies use oxidation, coagulation, precipitation adsorption, ion exchange and membrane techniques. Other potential approaches would include phytoremediation or the use of bacteria, which can play an important role in catalysing biological arsenic removal processes. All the arsenic treatment technologies ultimately concentrate arsenic in the sorption media, the residual sludge or in a liquid media. To avoid indiscriminate disposal and environmental pollution, these wastes need to be treated or disposed of properly.
Incorrect
The presence of elevated levels of arsenic in groundwater has become a major concern around the world, especially in South Asia. Up to date, there is no effective treatment for curing health impacts due to the intake of high levels of arsenic. A wide range of technologies has been developed for the removal of high concentrations of arsenic from drinking water. The most common arsenic removal technologies use oxidation, coagulation, precipitation adsorption, ion exchange and membrane techniques. Other potential approaches would include phytoremediation or the use of bacteria, which can play an important role in catalysing biological arsenic removal processes. All the arsenic treatment technologies ultimately concentrate arsenic in the sorption media, the residual sludge or in a liquid media. To avoid indiscriminate disposal and environmental pollution, these wastes need to be treated or disposed of properly.
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Question 46 of 60
46. Question
Category: Art and CultureQuestion 46. Which of the following criteria are to be met to be included in the UNESCO world Heritage sites list?
Correct
For a property to be included on the World Heritage List, the World Heritage Committee must find that it meets one or more of the following criteria:
- to represent a masterpiece of human creative genius;
- to exhibit an important interchange of human values, over a span of time or within a cultural area of the world, on developments in architecture or technology, monumental arts, town-planning or landscape design;
- to bear a unique or at least exceptional testimony to a cultural tradition or to a civilization which is living or which has disappeared;
- to be an outstanding example of a type of building, architectural or technological ensemble or landscape which illustrates (a) significant stage(s) in human history;
- to be an outstanding example of a traditional human settlement, land-use, or sea-use which is representative of a culture (or cultures), or human interaction with the environment especially when it has become vulnerable under the impact of irreversible change;
- to be directly or tangibly associated with events or living traditions, with ideas, or with beliefs, with artistic and literary works of outstanding universal significance. (The Committee considers that this criterion should preferably be used in conjunction with other criteria);
- to contain superlative natural phenomena or areas of exceptional natural beauty and aesthetic importance;
- to be outstanding examples representing major stages of earth’s history, including the record of life, significant on-going geological processes in the development of landforms, or significant geomorphic or physiographic features;
- to be outstanding examples representing significant on-going ecological and biological processes in the evolution and development of terrestrial, fresh water, coastal and marine ecosystems and communities of plants and animals;
- to contain the most important and significant natural habitats for in-situ conservation of biological diversity, including those containing threatened species of outstanding universal value from the point of view of science or conservation.
Incorrect
For a property to be included on the World Heritage List, the World Heritage Committee must find that it meets one or more of the following criteria:
- to represent a masterpiece of human creative genius;
- to exhibit an important interchange of human values, over a span of time or within a cultural area of the world, on developments in architecture or technology, monumental arts, town-planning or landscape design;
- to bear a unique or at least exceptional testimony to a cultural tradition or to a civilization which is living or which has disappeared;
- to be an outstanding example of a type of building, architectural or technological ensemble or landscape which illustrates (a) significant stage(s) in human history;
- to be an outstanding example of a traditional human settlement, land-use, or sea-use which is representative of a culture (or cultures), or human interaction with the environment especially when it has become vulnerable under the impact of irreversible change;
- to be directly or tangibly associated with events or living traditions, with ideas, or with beliefs, with artistic and literary works of outstanding universal significance. (The Committee considers that this criterion should preferably be used in conjunction with other criteria);
- to contain superlative natural phenomena or areas of exceptional natural beauty and aesthetic importance;
- to be outstanding examples representing major stages of earth’s history, including the record of life, significant on-going geological processes in the development of landforms, or significant geomorphic or physiographic features;
- to be outstanding examples representing significant on-going ecological and biological processes in the evolution and development of terrestrial, fresh water, coastal and marine ecosystems and communities of plants and animals;
- to contain the most important and significant natural habitats for in-situ conservation of biological diversity, including those containing threatened species of outstanding universal value from the point of view of science or conservation.
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Question 47 of 60
47. Question
Category: Art and CultureQuestion 47. Which of the following are not Natural UNESCO World Heritage sites?
Correct
Keoladeo National Park
This former duck-hunting reserve of the Maharajas is one of the major wintering areas for large numbers of aquatic birds from Afghanistan, Turkmenistan, China and Siberia. Some 364 species of birds, including the rare Siberian crane, have been recorded in the park.
Group of Monuments at Hampi
The austere, grandiose site of Hampi was the last capital of the last great Hindu Kingdom of Vijayanagar. Its fabulously rich princes built Dravidian temples and palaces which won the admiration of travellers between the 14th and 16th centuries. Conquered by the Deccan Muslim confederacy in 1565, the city was pillaged over a period of six months before being abandoned.
Nanda Devi and Valley of Flowers National Parks
Nestled high in West Himalaya, India’s Valley of Flowers National Park is renowned for its meadows of endemic alpine flowers and outstanding natural beauty. This richly diverse area is also home to rare and endangered animals, including the Asiatic black bear, snow leopard, brown bear and blue sheep. The gentle landscape of the Valley of Flowers National Park complements the rugged mountain wilderness of Nanda Devi National Park. Together they encompass a unique transition zone between the mountain ranges of the Zanskar and Great Himalaya, praised by mountaineers and botanists for over a century and in Hindu mythology for much longer.
Sundarbans National Park
The Sundarbans covers 10,000 km2 of land and water (more than half of it in India, the rest in Bangladesh) in the Ganges delta. It contains the world’s largest area of mangrove forests. A number of rare or endangered species live in the park, including tigers, aquatic mammals, birds and reptiles.
Incorrect
Keoladeo National Park
This former duck-hunting reserve of the Maharajas is one of the major wintering areas for large numbers of aquatic birds from Afghanistan, Turkmenistan, China and Siberia. Some 364 species of birds, including the rare Siberian crane, have been recorded in the park.
Group of Monuments at Hampi
The austere, grandiose site of Hampi was the last capital of the last great Hindu Kingdom of Vijayanagar. Its fabulously rich princes built Dravidian temples and palaces which won the admiration of travellers between the 14th and 16th centuries. Conquered by the Deccan Muslim confederacy in 1565, the city was pillaged over a period of six months before being abandoned.
Nanda Devi and Valley of Flowers National Parks
Nestled high in West Himalaya, India’s Valley of Flowers National Park is renowned for its meadows of endemic alpine flowers and outstanding natural beauty. This richly diverse area is also home to rare and endangered animals, including the Asiatic black bear, snow leopard, brown bear and blue sheep. The gentle landscape of the Valley of Flowers National Park complements the rugged mountain wilderness of Nanda Devi National Park. Together they encompass a unique transition zone between the mountain ranges of the Zanskar and Great Himalaya, praised by mountaineers and botanists for over a century and in Hindu mythology for much longer.
Sundarbans National Park
The Sundarbans covers 10,000 km2 of land and water (more than half of it in India, the rest in Bangladesh) in the Ganges delta. It contains the world’s largest area of mangrove forests. A number of rare or endangered species live in the park, including tigers, aquatic mammals, birds and reptiles.
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Question 48 of 60
48. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyQuestion 48. BRT wildlife sanctuary is located in which of the following states?
Correct
BRT wildlife sanctuary is located in Karnataka.
Incorrect
BRT wildlife sanctuary is located in Karnataka.
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Question 49 of 60
49. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyQuestion 49. Which of the following is/are used in cloud seeding?
Correct
The most common chemicals used for cloud seeding include silver iodide, potassium iodide and dry ice (solid carbon dioxide). Liquid propane, which expands into a gas, has also been used.
Incorrect
The most common chemicals used for cloud seeding include silver iodide, potassium iodide and dry ice (solid carbon dioxide). Liquid propane, which expands into a gas, has also been used.
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Question 50 of 60
50. Question
Category: PolityQuestion 50. Which city public transport system has been recognized as the country’s first technology-driven public transport system which has become “smart, safe, efficient” and beneficial to lakhs of people across the city according to the recent World Bank report?
Correct
The country’s first technology-driven Mysuru public transport system has become “smart, safe, efficient” and beneficial to lakhs of people across the city, the World Bank has said in its latest newsletter.
Incorrect
The country’s first technology-driven Mysuru public transport system has become “smart, safe, efficient” and beneficial to lakhs of people across the city, the World Bank has said in its latest newsletter.
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Question 51 of 60
51. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyQuestion 51. Natural habitat of the common bonnet monkey is ______.
Correct
Researchers have found that the common bonnet monkey of South India may soon become an ‘endangered’ species.
They say the distributional range of this monkey is shrinking in eastern Maharashtra, northern parts of Karnataka, and western Telangana because of the slow incursion of the larger, more aggressive rhesus monkey from the northern region.
Incorrect
Researchers have found that the common bonnet monkey of South India may soon become an ‘endangered’ species.
They say the distributional range of this monkey is shrinking in eastern Maharashtra, northern parts of Karnataka, and western Telangana because of the slow incursion of the larger, more aggressive rhesus monkey from the northern region.
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Question 52 of 60
52. Question
Category: International RelationsQuestion 52. Consider the following statements:
- The Gulf Co-operation Council consists of Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, United Arab Emirates and Iran as its member states.
- The GCC is headquartered in Doha, Qatar.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
Correct
Iran is not a part of GCC and its headquarters is in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia.
Incorrect
Iran is not a part of GCC and its headquarters is in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia.
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Question 53 of 60
53. Question
Category: Current AffairsQuestion 53. India has imported the Hawk advanced jet trainer from which of the following countries?
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 54 of 60
54. Question
Category: PolityQuestion 54. Consider the following statements:
- The NITI Aayog has the Prime Minister as its chairperson and four ex-officio members of the Union Council of Ministers.
- The Governing Council is composed ofChief Ministers of all States (and Delhi and Puducherry) and Lieutenant Governors of remaining Union Territories.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 55 of 60
55. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyQuestion 55. Internet of Things, which is frequently in news, refers to _____.
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 56 of 60
56. Question
Category: EconomyQuestion 56. Indian agriculture is termed to be an Intensive Subsistence Farming type. What are the characteristics that have made Indian agriculture to be categorized into that type?
- Very high population density
- Labour intensive farming
- Lower yield of production in terms of per capita labour force
- Very small and fragmented land holdings
- Usage of farm machinery
Choose the correct code from the following.
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 57 of 60
57. Question
Category: International RelationsQuestion 57. India has frequently voted against Sri Lanka at which of the following international organisations?
Correct
- India has voted against Sri Lanka for its role in violating human rights of its ethnic Tamil population.
Incorrect
- India has voted against Sri Lanka for its role in violating human rights of its ethnic Tamil population.
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Question 58 of 60
58. Question
Category: EconomyQuestion 58: Consider the following statements, regarding the recently signed Protocol to amend the Double Taxation Avoidance Convention (DTAC) between India and Kazakhstan:
- The Protocol provides internationally accepted standards for effective exchange of information on tax matters.
- The information received from Kazakhstan for tax purposes can be shared with other law enforcement agencies with authorisation of the competent authority of Kazakhstan and vice versa.
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 59 of 60
59. Question
Category: PolityQuestion 59: Consider the following statements
- Article 123 of the Constitution of India gives the President legislative powers to promulgate ordinances.
- Article 213 of the Constitution of India gives the Governor the power to promulgate ordinances.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 60 of 60
60. Question
Category: PolityQuestion 60: Consider the following statements:
- Article 123 of the Constitution grants the President certain law making powers to promulgate Ordinances when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session and hence it is not possible to enact laws in the Parliament.
- An Ordinance may relate to any subject that the Parliament has the power to legislate on.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Incorrect
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