UPSC 2024: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Apr 06 – Apr 12 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Current Affairs Monthly Magazine (Feb 2024)
Download PDF Here
UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from Apr 06 – Apr 12 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.
Post your scores in the comment section below!
Quiz-summary
0 of 30 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
Information
UPSC 2024: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Apr 06 – Apr 12
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 30 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Average score |
|
Your score |
|
Categories
- Art and Culture 0%
- Current Affairs 0%
- Defence & Security 0%
- Economy 0%
- G K 0%
- Geography 0%
- History 0%
- International Relations 0%
- Polity 0%
- Schemes 0%
- Science and Technology 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Category: PolityWhich of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Registration and Regulation of Foreign Lawyers and Foreign Law Firms in India, 2022 (Rules)? (Level – Moderate)
- A foreign lawyer registered under the Rules shall be entitled to practice law in India in Litigation and Non-Litigation matters.
- They shall be allowed to practice on transactional or corporate work on joint ventures, mergers and acquisitions, intellectual property matters, drafting of contracts and other related matters on a reciprocal basis.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, A foreign lawyer and law firms registered under the rules shall be entitled to practise law in India in non-litigious matters only.
- Statement 2 is correct, Further, foreign lawyers or foreign law firms shall not be permitted to appear before any courts, tribunals or other statutory or regulatory authorities.
- They shall be allowed to practise on transactional work or corporate work such as joint ventures, mergers and acquisitions, intellectual property matters, drafting of contracts and other related matters on a reciprocal basis.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, A foreign lawyer and law firms registered under the rules shall be entitled to practise law in India in non-litigious matters only.
- Statement 2 is correct, Further, foreign lawyers or foreign law firms shall not be permitted to appear before any courts, tribunals or other statutory or regulatory authorities.
- They shall be allowed to practise on transactional work or corporate work such as joint ventures, mergers and acquisitions, intellectual property matters, drafting of contracts and other related matters on a reciprocal basis.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Category: Defence & SecurityWith respect to Ex Sea Dragon, which of the following statements is/are correct? (Level – Easy)
- It is an annual, multinational high-end exercise hosted by the Australian Navy.
- The exercise primarily focuses on anti-submarine warfare amongst the participating countries.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, The Exercise Sea Dragon is an annual, multinational high-end exercise hosted by the U.S. Navy.
- Statement 2 is correct, The Exercise Sea Dragon focuses mainly on coordinated multilateral Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) exercises amongst the participating countries.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, The Exercise Sea Dragon is an annual, multinational high-end exercise hosted by the U.S. Navy.
- Statement 2 is correct, The Exercise Sea Dragon focuses mainly on coordinated multilateral Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) exercises amongst the participating countries.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Category: SchemesWhich of the following is the best description of ‘Mission Sahbhagita’? (Level – Moderate)
Correct
- Mission Sahbhagita is a platform for sharing wetland management experiences, best practices, success stories, and associated challenges.
- It was launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) in 2022 with a mission of a healthy and effectively managed network of 75 wetlands of national and international significance.
Incorrect
- Mission Sahbhagita is a platform for sharing wetland management experiences, best practices, success stories, and associated challenges.
- It was launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) in 2022 with a mission of a healthy and effectively managed network of 75 wetlands of national and international significance.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Category: HistoryWhich one of the following was a journal brought out by Abul Kalam Azad? [PYQ(2008)] (Level – Difficult)
Correct
- The Al-Hilal was a newspaper established by Indian leader Maulana Abul Kalam Azad and used as a medium for criticising the British Raj in India.
- The Comrade was a weekly English-language newspaper that was published and edited by Maulana Mohammad Ali.
- Shyamaji Krishnavarma who was the founder of the India House in London started to publish and edit “The Indian Sociologist”.
- The subtitle of “The Indian Sociologist “was “an Organ of Freedom, of Political, Social and Religious Reform”.
- The “Zamindar” is a newspaper edited by Maulana Zafar Ali Khan.
Incorrect
- The Al-Hilal was a newspaper established by Indian leader Maulana Abul Kalam Azad and used as a medium for criticising the British Raj in India.
- The Comrade was a weekly English-language newspaper that was published and edited by Maulana Mohammad Ali.
- Shyamaji Krishnavarma who was the founder of the India House in London started to publish and edit “The Indian Sociologist”.
- The subtitle of “The Indian Sociologist “was “an Organ of Freedom, of Political, Social and Religious Reform”.
- The “Zamindar” is a newspaper edited by Maulana Zafar Ali Khan.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Category: Schemes‘Kudumbashree’, one of the largest women’s self-help networks in the world, seen in news is associated with which of the following States? (Level-Medium)
Correct
Kudumbashree is the poverty eradication and women empowerment programme implemented by the State Poverty Eradication Mission (SPEM) of the Government of Kerala. The name Kudumbashree in the Malayalam language means ‘prosperity of the family’.
Incorrect
Kudumbashree is the poverty eradication and women empowerment programme implemented by the State Poverty Eradication Mission (SPEM) of the Government of Kerala. The name Kudumbashree in the Malayalam language means ‘prosperity of the family’.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Category: G KConsider the following pairs: (Level-Difficult)
National Waterway (NW) Details of Waterways
- NW 16 Barak River
- NW 37 Gandak River
- NW 46 Indus River
- NW 100 Tapi River
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
- Pair 01 is correctly matched, Barak River (Lakhipur -Tuker Gram) in Assam was declared as National waterway 16.
- Pair 02 is correctly matched, Gandak River (Bhaisalotal Barrage to Hazipur) in Bihar and Uttar Pradesh was declared as National Waterway 37
- Pair 03 is correctly matched, Indus River in Jammu & Kashmir was declared as National Waterway 46.
- Pair 04 is correctly matched, Tapi River (Hatnur Dam to Gulf of Khambhat) in Maharashtra and Gujarat was declared as National Waterway 100.
Incorrect
- Pair 01 is correctly matched, Barak River (Lakhipur -Tuker Gram) in Assam was declared as National waterway 16.
- Pair 02 is correctly matched, Gandak River (Bhaisalotal Barrage to Hazipur) in Bihar and Uttar Pradesh was declared as National Waterway 37
- Pair 03 is correctly matched, Indus River in Jammu & Kashmir was declared as National Waterway 46.
- Pair 04 is correctly matched, Tapi River (Hatnur Dam to Gulf of Khambhat) in Maharashtra and Gujarat was declared as National Waterway 100.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Category: SchemesWhich of the following statements is/are correct w.r.t Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Vikas Mission? (Level-Medium)
- Under the Mission, Minor Forest Produce (MFP) gathered by tribals will be processed in Vandhan Kendras and marketed through Van Dhan Producer Enterprises.
- TRIFED would be the nodal agency for implementing the scheme.
- It aims to transform villages with significant tribal populations into ‘model villages’ (Adarsh Gram).
Options:
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, The Mission seeks to achieve livelihood-driven tribal development in the next five years through the formation of Van Dhan groups who have been organized into Vandhan Kendras. The MFP gathered by tribals will be processed in these kendras and marketed through Van Dhan Producer Enterprises.
- Statement 02 is correct, TRIFED would be the nodal agency for implementing the scheme. The products produced will be marketed through Tribe India Stores.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojana aims to transform villages with significant tribal population into model villages (Adarsh Gram) covering a population of 4.22 crore (About 40% of the total Tribal Population).
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, The Mission seeks to achieve livelihood-driven tribal development in the next five years through the formation of Van Dhan groups who have been organized into Vandhan Kendras. The MFP gathered by tribals will be processed in these kendras and marketed through Van Dhan Producer Enterprises.
- Statement 02 is correct, TRIFED would be the nodal agency for implementing the scheme. The products produced will be marketed through Tribe India Stores.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojana aims to transform villages with significant tribal population into model villages (Adarsh Gram) covering a population of 4.22 crore (About 40% of the total Tribal Population).
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Category: Art and CultureConsider the following statements with respect to Tiwa Tribes: (Level-Difficult)
- Sokra Misawa is a Spring Time Festival of the Tiwas where they worship the deities of nature.
- They are recognized as a Scheduled Tribe within the State of Tripura.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, Sokra Misawa Festival is celebrated by Tiwas tribals in Karbi Anglong district, Assam.
- Tiwas worship nature during this spring-time festival and then prepare their fields for the next crop.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, Tiwas are recognized as a Scheduled Tribe in Assam excluding the autonomous districts.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, Sokra Misawa Festival is celebrated by Tiwas tribals in Karbi Anglong district, Assam.
- Tiwas worship nature during this spring-time festival and then prepare their fields for the next crop.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, Tiwas are recognized as a Scheduled Tribe in Assam excluding the autonomous districts.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Category: HistoryWhere was the First Session of the Indian National Congress held in December 1885? (PYQ-CSE-2008) (Level-Easy)
Correct
The Indian National Congress conducted its first session in Bombay from 28 to 31 December 1885.
Incorrect
The Indian National Congress conducted its first session in Bombay from 28 to 31 December 1885.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Category: GeographyRwanda shares a boundary with which of the following nations?(Level – Difficult)
- Uganda
- Tanzania
- Burundi
- Dep. Republic of Congo
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements with regards to Magellan mission:(Level–Difficult)
- NASA’s Magellan mission to Venus was one of the most successful deep space missions
- It was the first spacecraft to image the entire surface of Venus and made several discoveries about the planet; it was launched on May 4, 1989.
- On October 13, 1994, communication with Magellan was lost when it was instructed to descend into the atmosphere of Venus.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, Magellan, named after the Portuguese explorer Ferdinand Magellan (1480-1521), was the first probe launched by a space shuttle. The Magellan mission to Venus was one of the most successful deep space missions.
- Statement 02 is correct, It was the first spacecraft to image the entire surface of Venus and made several discoveries about the planet.
- Statement 03 is correct, On October 13, 1994, the spacecraft was commanded to plunge into the atmosphere to gather aerodynamic data. The spacecraft burned up in the Venusian atmosphere about 10 hours later after one of the most successful deep space missions.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, Magellan, named after the Portuguese explorer Ferdinand Magellan (1480-1521), was the first probe launched by a space shuttle. The Magellan mission to Venus was one of the most successful deep space missions.
- Statement 02 is correct, It was the first spacecraft to image the entire surface of Venus and made several discoveries about the planet.
- Statement 03 is correct, On October 13, 1994, the spacecraft was commanded to plunge into the atmosphere to gather aerodynamic data. The spacecraft burned up in the Venusian atmosphere about 10 hours later after one of the most successful deep space missions.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Category: SchemesConsider the following statements with regards to PM Gati Shakti: (Level – Easy)
- PM Gati Shakti Master Plan (2021), is a Rs. 100 lakh-crore project for developing ‘holistic infrastructure’.
- Integrated Approach: It intends to bring together 16 infrastructure related Ministries.
- PM GatiShakti is based on six pillars: Comprehensiveness, Prioritization, Optimization, Synchronisation, Analytical, Dynamic.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, PM Gati Shakti Master Plan is a 100 lakh crore rupees ambitious plan to provide multi-modal connectivity to more than 1,200 industrial clusters, including two defence corridors across the country.
- Statement 02 is correct, Objective of the plan is to ensure integrated planning and implementation of infrastructure projects in the next four years, with focus on expediting works on the ground, saving costs and creating jobs. It intends to bring together 16 infrastructure related Ministries.
- Statement 03 is correct, PM Gati Shakti is based on six pillars: Comprehensiveness, Prioritization, Optimization, Synchronisation, Analytics and Dynamic. Instead of planning and designing the projects separately in silos, the projects will be designed and executed with a common vision.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, PM Gati Shakti Master Plan is a 100 lakh crore rupees ambitious plan to provide multi-modal connectivity to more than 1,200 industrial clusters, including two defence corridors across the country.
- Statement 02 is correct, Objective of the plan is to ensure integrated planning and implementation of infrastructure projects in the next four years, with focus on expediting works on the ground, saving costs and creating jobs. It intends to bring together 16 infrastructure related Ministries.
- Statement 03 is correct, PM Gati Shakti is based on six pillars: Comprehensiveness, Prioritization, Optimization, Synchronisation, Analytics and Dynamic. Instead of planning and designing the projects separately in silos, the projects will be designed and executed with a common vision.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Category: PolityIn India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by (PYQ-CSE-2020) (Level – Easy)
Correct
Article 36 to Article 51 of our Constitution deals with Directive Principles of the State Policy. Article 50 of the Indian Constitution provides that the State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the state.
Incorrect
Article 36 to Article 51 of our Constitution deals with Directive Principles of the State Policy. Article 50 of the Indian Constitution provides that the State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the state.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Category: EconomyWhich of the below statements are true? (Level – Moderate)
- The tighter monetary policy is implemented to reduce the inflation in the markets.
- It is associated with a reduction in the short-term interest rates by the central banks.
- In India, increasing the Cash Reserve Ratio is an example of tight monetary policy.
Options:
Correct
Statement 1 is correct, Tightening of monetary policy is usually implemented to tackle rising inflation.
Statement 2 is not correct, in case of tighter monetary policy, the central banks look to increase short-term interest rates in a bid to shrink the money supply.
Statement 3 is correct, In India, increasing the cash reserve ratio and the repo rate by RBI is an example of tight monetary policy.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct, Tightening of monetary policy is usually implemented to tackle rising inflation.
Statement 2 is not correct, in case of tighter monetary policy, the central banks look to increase short-term interest rates in a bid to shrink the money supply.
Statement 3 is correct, In India, increasing the cash reserve ratio and the repo rate by RBI is an example of tight monetary policy. -
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Category: International RelationsIdentify the country/group based on the below statements: (Level – Easy)
- India had a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement with it since 2011.
- We conducted the inaugural session of “Veer Guardian” exercise with them in 2023.
- India has a clean energy partnership, and a nuclear deal with them.
Options:
Correct
- The inaugural edition of the bilateral air exercise “Veer Guardian” between the Indian Air Force and Japan Air Self Defence Force was conducted in Japan in January 2023.
- Japan and India had signed a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement in 2011.
- Japan and India had announced the “India-Japan Clean Energy Partnership (CEP)” in March 2022 during the visit of the Japanese Prime Minister to India.
- The landmark “India-Japan Agreement for Cooperation in the Peaceful Uses of Nuclear Energy” came into force in July 2017. The agreement was signed in Tokyo during the visit of Prime Minister Narendra to Japan in November 2016.
Incorrect
- The inaugural edition of the bilateral air exercise “Veer Guardian” between the Indian Air Force and Japan Air Self Defence Force was conducted in Japan in January 2023.
- Japan and India had signed a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement in 2011.
- Japan and India had announced the “India-Japan Clean Energy Partnership (CEP)” in March 2022 during the visit of the Japanese Prime Minister to India.
- The landmark “India-Japan Agreement for Cooperation in the Peaceful Uses of Nuclear Energy” came into force in July 2017. The agreement was signed in Tokyo during the visit of Prime Minister Narendra to Japan in November 2016.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Category: International RelationsHow many of the statements are true regarding the International Criminal Court (Level – Moderate)
- It is the main judicial body of the United Nations.
- India was one of its founding members.
- It can take up cases based on Suo moto cognizance.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, The International Criminal Court (ICC) is an intergovernmental organisation and international tribunal headquartered in The Hague.
- The ICC is governed by the Rome Statute
- The ICC is not part of the UN.
- Statement 2 is not correct, India is not a member of the International Criminal Court.
- Statement 3 is correct, ICC investigates and tries people charged with serious and grave crimes such as genocide, crimes against humanity, war crimes and the crime of aggression. The ICC can start investigation in three ways:
- A state-party brings a case to the Court
- The Court takes a suo motu cognizance
- The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) refers a case to the Court.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, The International Criminal Court (ICC) is an intergovernmental organisation and international tribunal headquartered in The Hague.
- The ICC is governed by the Rome Statute
- The ICC is not part of the UN.
- Statement 2 is not correct, India is not a member of the International Criminal Court.
- Statement 3 is correct, ICC investigates and tries people charged with serious and grave crimes such as genocide, crimes against humanity, war crimes and the crime of aggression. The ICC can start investigation in three ways:
- A state-party brings a case to the Court
- The Court takes a suo motu cognizance
- The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) refers a case to the Court.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWhich of the statements are true regarding Convalescent Plasma Therapy? (Level – Diffcult)
- It has been designated as the best cure for the Covid-19 infections.
- It includes transfusion of only the plasma part of the blood into the patient.
- The donor must have in the past been infected and should have recovered from the disease.
- It can be used only for the treatment of infectious diseases.
Options:
Correct
Statement 1 is not correct, The WHO recommended against the use of Convalescent Plasma Therapy because such therapies did not increase the clinical improvement or reduce the mortality risk.
Statement 2 is correct, Under Convalescent Plasma Therapy, convalescent plasma, or blood plasma collected from patients who have recovered from an infection, will be used to treat various infectious diseases.
Statement 3 is correct, Under Convalescent Plasma Therapy, the donor must have in the past been infected and should have recovered from the disease.
Statement 4 is not correct, Studies have found that convalescent plasma therapy is associated with a survival benefit in patients with hematologic cancers and few other genetic diseases.Incorrect
Statement 1 is not correct, The WHO recommended against the use of Convalescent Plasma Therapy because such therapies did not increase the clinical improvement or reduce the mortality risk.
Statement 2 is correct, Under Convalescent Plasma Therapy, convalescent plasma, or blood plasma collected from patients who have recovered from an infection, will be used to treat various infectious diseases.
Statement 3 is correct, Under Convalescent Plasma Therapy, the donor must have in the past been infected and should have recovered from the disease.
Statement 4 is not correct, Studies have found that convalescent plasma therapy is associated with a survival benefit in patients with hematologic cancers and few other genetic diseases. -
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements: (Level – Easy) [PYQ-2020]
- The Constitution of India defines its basic structure in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
- The Constitution of India provides for ‘Judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, In the landmark Kesavananda Bharati case 1973, the Supreme Court laid down a new doctrine of the “Basic Structure of the Constitution”.
- There is no mention of the term “Basic Structure” anywhere in the Constitution of India.
- Statement 2 is not correct, There is no direct reference to the provision of the “Judicial review” in the constitution which empowers the courts to invalidate laws.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, In the landmark Kesavananda Bharati case 1973, the Supreme Court laid down a new doctrine of the “Basic Structure of the Constitution”.
- There is no mention of the term “Basic Structure” anywhere in the Constitution of India.
- Statement 2 is not correct, There is no direct reference to the provision of the “Judicial review” in the constitution which empowers the courts to invalidate laws.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Category: SchemesIdentify the correct statements: (Level – Easy)
- The Central Sector Schemes are entirely funded by the Central government.
- The Centrally Sponsored Schemes are entirely funded by the central government but implemented by the state governments.
- The NITI Aayog has the authority to conduct an evaluation of both of the above schemes.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, Central sector schemes are 100% funded by the Union government and implemented by the Central Government machinery.
- Central sector schemes are mainly formulated on subjects from the Union List.
- Statement 2 is not correct, Centrally sponsored schemes are jointly funded by the Centre and State Governments
- Centrally sponsored schemes are formulated in subjects from the State List and are implemented by the State Governments.
- Statement 3 is correct, The NITI Aayog has the authority to conduct an evaluation of both of the above schemes.
- Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office (DMEO), an attached office of NITI Aayog, conducts independent evaluation studies of both Central Sector as well as Centrally Sponsored Schemes.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, Central sector schemes are 100% funded by the Union government and implemented by the Central Government machinery.
- Central sector schemes are mainly formulated on subjects from the Union List.
- Statement 2 is not correct, Centrally sponsored schemes are jointly funded by the Centre and State Governments
- Centrally sponsored schemes are formulated in subjects from the State List and are implemented by the State Governments.
- Statement 3 is correct, The NITI Aayog has the authority to conduct an evaluation of both of the above schemes.
- Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office (DMEO), an attached office of NITI Aayog, conducts independent evaluation studies of both Central Sector as well as Centrally Sponsored Schemes.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Category: International RelationsWhich of the following are matched correctly? (Level – Moderate)
Options:
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWhat do you understand about LVM-3, in the news recently? (Level – Moderate)
Correct
- The Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM3) is ISRO’s medium-heavy lift launch vehicle.
- The LVM3 rocket was previously known as Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle Mark III (GSLV Mk3).
Incorrect
- The Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM3) is ISRO’s medium-heavy lift launch vehicle.
- The LVM3 rocket was previously known as Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle Mark III (GSLV Mk3).
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Category: SchemesWhich of the following statements are incorrect? (Level – Moderate)
- The TOPS funding to sportspersons is only for the purpose to win medals in the Olympic Games.
- TOPS funding is given to new sportspersons who have never represented India in the Olympics yet.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, Target Olympic Podium is a scheme under the National Sports Development Fund of the Department of Sports under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
- The objective of the TOP Scheme is to improve India’s performance at the Olympics and Paralympics.
- Further, the support for customised training of medal prospects including for the Olympic Games and Asian Games is provided under TOP Scheme.
- Statement 2 is not correct, There is no such restriction that TOPS funding is given to new sportspersons who have never represented India in the Olympics yet.
- Neeraj Chopra, who won India’s first-ever gold medal in athletics at Tokyo Olympics 2020, is being provided TOPS funding to train in Gloria Sports Arena, Turkey.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, Target Olympic Podium is a scheme under the National Sports Development Fund of the Department of Sports under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
- The objective of the TOP Scheme is to improve India’s performance at the Olympics and Paralympics.
- Further, the support for customised training of medal prospects including for the Olympic Games and Asian Games is provided under TOP Scheme.
- Statement 2 is not correct, There is no such restriction that TOPS funding is given to new sportspersons who have never represented India in the Olympics yet.
- Neeraj Chopra, who won India’s first-ever gold medal in athletics at Tokyo Olympics 2020, is being provided TOPS funding to train in Gloria Sports Arena, Turkey.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Category: HistoryWhich of the following statements correctly explains the impact of the Industrial Revolution on India during the first half of the nineteenth century? (Level – Easy) [PYQ 2020]
Correct
- The Industrial Revolution revolutionised economies that were based on agriculture and handicrafts into economies based on large-scale industry, mechanized manufacturing, and the factory system.
- Post the Industrial Revolution, Britain started producing machine-made goods and textiles that were much cheaper than Indian goods which ruined the market for Indian handicrafts.
Incorrect
- The Industrial Revolution revolutionised economies that were based on agriculture and handicrafts into economies based on large-scale industry, mechanized manufacturing, and the factory system.
- Post the Industrial Revolution, Britain started producing machine-made goods and textiles that were much cheaper than Indian goods which ruined the market for Indian handicrafts.
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Category: Art and CultureQ1. Which of these statements is/are correct? (Level – Easy)
- Navroz is celebrated on spring equinox day.
- Ugadi is mainly celebrated in Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
- Gudi Padwa marks the beginning of the harvest of Rabi crops.
Options:
Correct
Statement 1 is correct, Navroz/Nowruz is the Iranian or Persian New Year celebrated on the spring equinox day.
Statement 2 is correct, Ugadi is mainly celebrated in Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
Statement 3 is correct, Gudi Padwa, also known as Samvatsara Padvo or the Maharashtrian New Year marks the beginning of harvest season for Rabi crops.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct, Navroz/Nowruz is the Iranian or Persian New Year celebrated on the spring equinox day.
Statement 2 is correct, Ugadi is mainly celebrated in Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
Statement 3 is correct, Gudi Padwa, also known as Samvatsara Padvo or the Maharashtrian New Year marks the beginning of harvest season for Rabi crops. -
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Category: GeographyHow many of these statements are correct? (Level – Difficult)
- The Chambal River is the right-bank tributary of the Yamuna River.
- The Yamuna Action Plan is being undertaken with the assistance of AFD (French Development Agency).
- Yamuna passes through 4 states of India.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, Chambal river is the right-bank tributary of the Yamuna river.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The Yamuna Action Plan is being undertaken with the assistance of the Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA).
- Statement 3 is correct, the Yamuna river mainly flows through 4 Indian states namely Uttarakhand, Haryana, Delhi and Uttar Pradesh.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, Chambal river is the right-bank tributary of the Yamuna river.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The Yamuna Action Plan is being undertaken with the assistance of the Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA).
- Statement 3 is correct, the Yamuna river mainly flows through 4 Indian states namely Uttarakhand, Haryana, Delhi and Uttar Pradesh.
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Category: GeographyHow many of these statements are correct? (Level – Moderate)
- Deep Earthquakes affect large geographical areas and are stronger than shallow earthquakes.
- The epicentre is the point in the Earth’s crust where the earthquake originated.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, Shallow quakes tend to be more dangerous and damaging compared to deeper quakes as seismic waves from deep quakes have to travel farther to reach the surface and hence would have lost their energy.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The focus is the place inside Earth’s crust where an earthquake originates.
- The point on the Earth’s surface directly above the focus is the epicentre.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, Shallow quakes tend to be more dangerous and damaging compared to deeper quakes as seismic waves from deep quakes have to travel farther to reach the surface and hence would have lost their energy.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The focus is the place inside Earth’s crust where an earthquake originates.
- The point on the Earth’s surface directly above the focus is the epicentre.
-
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Category: EconomyWhich of the following correctly defines “Windfall Taxes”? (Level – Easy)
- Windfall profits are an unexpected rise in profits of a company as a consequence of an external incident which might be due to long-term or short-term reasons and not because of a business decision.
- A tax imposed on such an unanticipated rise in profits is called a windfall profit tax.
Correct
- Windfall profits are an unexpected rise in profits of a company as a consequence of an external incident which might be due to long-term or short-term reasons and not because of a business decision.
- A tax imposed on such an unanticipated rise in profits is called a windfall profit tax.
Incorrect
- Windfall profits are an unexpected rise in profits of a company as a consequence of an external incident which might be due to long-term or short-term reasons and not because of a business decision.
- A tax imposed on such an unanticipated rise in profits is called a windfall profit tax.
-
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Category: Current AffairsConsider the following pairs: (Level – Easy) [PYQ 2020]
International agreements Subjects
- Alma Ata declaration Health care of the people
- Hague convention Biological and chemical weapon
- Talanoa declaration Global climate change
- Under 2 coalition Child rights
Which of the pair given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
- Pair 1 is correct, The Alma-Ata Declaration of 1978 identified primary health care as the key to the attainment of the goal of Health for All.
- Pair 2 is not correct, The Hague Convention is a treaty that gives the basic framework for dealing with children who are abducted between member countries.
- Pair 3 is correct, The Talanoa declaration is a process which would help countries implement their Intended Nationally Determined Contributions by the end of 2020.
- Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDC) are reductions in greenhouse gas emissions under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
- Pair 4 is not correct, The Under2 Coalition is the largest global network of states, regions, provinces and other subnational governments committed to achieving net zero emissions by 2050 in line with the Paris Agreement.
Incorrect
- Pair 1 is correct, The Alma-Ata Declaration of 1978 identified primary health care as the key to the attainment of the goal of Health for All.
- Pair 2 is not correct, The Hague Convention is a treaty that gives the basic framework for dealing with children who are abducted between member countries.
- Pair 3 is correct, The Talanoa declaration is a process which would help countries implement their Intended Nationally Determined Contributions by the end of 2020.
- Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDC) are reductions in greenhouse gas emissions under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
- Pair 4 is not correct, The Under2 Coalition is the largest global network of states, regions, provinces and other subnational governments committed to achieving net zero emissions by 2050 in line with the Paris Agreement.
-
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Category: International RelationsConsider the following statements with regard to the High Seas: (Level – Easy)
- UNCLOS (UN Convention on the Law of the Sea) defined the rights and duties of countries in the oceans, the extent of ocean areas over which countries could claim sovereignty, and the legal status of marine resources.
- UNCLOS established exclusive economic zones (EEZ), ocean areas up to 200 miles from the coastline, where a country would have exclusive rights over all economic resources such as fish, oil, minerals, and gas.
- The high seas are the areas beyond the EEZ of any country.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, UNCLOS defined the rights and duties of countries in the oceans, the extent of ocean areas over which countries could claim sovereignty, and the legal status of marine resources.
- UNCLOS also specified general rules for a range of activities in the oceans such as navigation, scientific research, and deep-sea mining.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The treaty established exclusive economic zones (EEZ), ocean areas up to 200 nautical miles (370 km) from the coastline, where a country would have exclusive rights over all economic resources such as fish, oil, minerals, and gas.
- Statement 3 is correct, The high seas are the areas beyond the EEZ of any country.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, UNCLOS defined the rights and duties of countries in the oceans, the extent of ocean areas over which countries could claim sovereignty, and the legal status of marine resources.
- UNCLOS also specified general rules for a range of activities in the oceans such as navigation, scientific research, and deep-sea mining.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The treaty established exclusive economic zones (EEZ), ocean areas up to 200 nautical miles (370 km) from the coastline, where a country would have exclusive rights over all economic resources such as fish, oil, minerals, and gas.
- Statement 3 is correct, The high seas are the areas beyond the EEZ of any country.
-
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Category: EconomyConsider the following statements with regard to the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC): (Level – Moderate)
- It is a reform enacted in 2016 which amalgamates various laws relating to the insolvency resolution of business firms.
- Section 53 of the Code prescribes an order of priority in which proceeds will be distributed to the creditors based on the liquidation value.
- Financial creditors like banks have the last claim until exhaustion.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC) is the bankruptcy law of India which seeks to consolidate the existing framework by creating a single law for insolvency and bankruptcy.
- Statement 2 is correct, Section 53 of the Code prescribes an order of priority in which proceeds will be distributed to the creditors based on the liquidation value.
- According to this waterfall mechanism, secured financial creditors rank the highest in the order of priority followed by unsecured financial creditors, government dues and operational creditors.
- Statement 3 is not correct, The creditors receive proceeds under the resolution plan in order of the mentioned priority and hence financial creditors like banks have the first claim until exhaustion.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC) is the bankruptcy law of India which seeks to consolidate the existing framework by creating a single law for insolvency and bankruptcy.
- Statement 2 is correct, Section 53 of the Code prescribes an order of priority in which proceeds will be distributed to the creditors based on the liquidation value.
- According to this waterfall mechanism, secured financial creditors rank the highest in the order of priority followed by unsecured financial creditors, government dues and operational creditors.
- Statement 3 is not correct, The creditors receive proceeds under the resolution plan in order of the mentioned priority and hence financial creditors like banks have the first claim until exhaustion.
Comments