UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Dec 17 – Dec 23 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from Dec 17 – Dec 23 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.
Post your scores in the comment section below!
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UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Dec 17 – Dec 23
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Category: HistoryConsider the following pairs:
Editor/Founder Paper/Journal
- Sasipada Banerji Deenbandhu
- Narayan Meghaji Lokhande Bharat Sramajivi
- Bal Gangadhar Tilak Mahratta
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Correct
In 1870 Sasipada Banerji founded the workers’ organisation Sramajivi Samiti and established the newspaper Bharat Sramajivi.
Narayan Meghaji Lokhande published the Deenbandhu from Bombay.
Bal Gangadhar Tilak was associated with Mahratta (English) and Kesari (Marathi) newspapers.Incorrect
In 1870 Sasipada Banerji founded the workers’ organisation Sramajivi Samiti and established the newspaper Bharat Sramajivi.
Narayan Meghaji Lokhande published the Deenbandhu from Bombay.
Bal Gangadhar Tilak was associated with Mahratta (English) and Kesari (Marathi) newspapers. -
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWith reference to Lithium, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is considered to be the lightest or the least dense metal on earth.
- It is one of the rare metals.
- It is highly reactive and flammable and must be stored in mineral oil.
Options:
Correct
- Lithium is considered to be the lightest or one of the least dense metals on earth. It has a density of 0.534 g/cm3. This makes lithium nearly half as dense as water which means lithium would float on the surface of water.
- Like all alkali metals, lithium is highly reactive and flammable, and must be stored in vacuum, inert atmosphere or inert liquid such as purified kerosene or mineral oil.
- Lithium is a comparatively rare element, although it is found in many rocks and some brines, but always in very low concentrations.
Incorrect
- Lithium is considered to be the lightest or one of the least dense metals on earth. It has a density of 0.534 g/cm3. This makes lithium nearly half as dense as water which means lithium would float on the surface of water.
- Like all alkali metals, lithium is highly reactive and flammable, and must be stored in vacuum, inert atmosphere or inert liquid such as purified kerosene or mineral oil.
- Lithium is a comparatively rare element, although it is found in many rocks and some brines, but always in very low concentrations.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Category: GeographyConsider the following statements:
- It is the smallest of the shallow seas covering the continental shelf of Europe.
- It is the busiest shipping lane in the world.
The above statements best describe:
Correct
- English Channel is one of the smallest of the shallow seas covering the continental shelf of Europe and it is one of the busiest shipping lanes in the world.
Incorrect
- English Channel is one of the smallest of the shallow seas covering the continental shelf of Europe and it is one of the busiest shipping lanes in the world.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Category: GeographyIndia’s Strategic crude oil storages are located in which of the following places?
- Mumbai
- Mangalore
- Chennai
- Visakhapatnam
- Padur
Options:
Correct
- India’s Strategic crude oil storages are located in Mangalore, Visakhapatnam and Padur. India stores 5.33 Million tonnes of crude oil in these reserves.
Incorrect
- India’s Strategic crude oil storages are located in Mangalore, Visakhapatnam and Padur. India stores 5.33 Million tonnes of crude oil in these reserves.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Category: PolityWith reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: (UPSC -2017)
- A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
- Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
A private member bill is introduced by any member of parliament other than ministers. ·
Around 14 private member’s bills have been passed so far by the Parliament.Incorrect
A private member bill is introduced by any member of parliament other than ministers. ·
Around 14 private member’s bills have been passed so far by the Parliament. -
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Category: International RelationsWhich of the given statements is/are INCORRECT with respect to the ASEM Process?
- ASEM is a platform for the countries in Asia and Europe to exchange views on regional and global issues and strengthen cooperation.
- The grouping comprises members of the European Union and ASEAN only.
- The latest summit marked the 25th anniversary of the ASEM process and was chaired by India.
Options:
Correct
- The Asia-Europe Meeting (ASEM) is an informal forum for dialogue and cooperation, bringing together partners from across Europe and Asia. Its main purpose is to provide a platform for fostering political dialogue, strengthening economic cooperation and tackling together global challenges. ASEM is conducted as an informal and flexible process on the basis of equal partnership, mutual respect and benefit.
- Currently, ASEM comprises 51 partner countries: the 28 Member States of the European Union plus Norway and Switzerland on the European side and the 10 ASEAN countries plus Australia, Bangladesh, China, India, Japan, Kazakhstan, Republic of Korea, Mongolia, New Zealand, Pakistan and Russia on the Asian side. It also includes two institutional partners: the European Union and the ASEAN Secretariat.
- 2021 marks the 25th anniversary of the ASEM process. Cambodia currently holds the rotating ASEM presidency.
Incorrect
- The Asia-Europe Meeting (ASEM) is an informal forum for dialogue and cooperation, bringing together partners from across Europe and Asia. Its main purpose is to provide a platform for fostering political dialogue, strengthening economic cooperation and tackling together global challenges. ASEM is conducted as an informal and flexible process on the basis of equal partnership, mutual respect and benefit.
- Currently, ASEM comprises 51 partner countries: the 28 Member States of the European Union plus Norway and Switzerland on the European side and the 10 ASEAN countries plus Australia, Bangladesh, China, India, Japan, Kazakhstan, Republic of Korea, Mongolia, New Zealand, Pakistan and Russia on the Asian side. It also includes two institutional partners: the European Union and the ASEAN Secretariat.
- 2021 marks the 25th anniversary of the ASEM process. Cambodia currently holds the rotating ASEM presidency.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Category: Defence & SecurityConsider the following statements with respect to INS Vela:
- It is the first of the Indian Navy’s six submarines under Project 75.
- It is a Stealth Scorpene-Class Submarine.
- It is a diesel-electric attack submarine of Kalvari-class.
Which of the given statements is/are INCORRECT?
Correct
- INS Vela is the fourth of the Indian Navy’s six submarines under Project 75.
- It is a Scorpene-Class Submarine. It is a diesel-electric attack submarine of Kalvari-class.
Incorrect
- INS Vela is the fourth of the Indian Navy’s six submarines under Project 75.
- It is a Scorpene-Class Submarine. It is a diesel-electric attack submarine of Kalvari-class.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyThe herb “Withania somnifera” is often seen in News as:
Correct
- Withania somnifera, known commonly as ashwagandha is an annual evergreen shrub in the Solanaceae or nightshade family that grows in India, the Middle East, and parts of Africa. It is a very revered herb of the Indian Ayurvedic system of medicine as a Rasayana (tonic).
Incorrect
- Withania somnifera, known commonly as ashwagandha is an annual evergreen shrub in the Solanaceae or nightshade family that grows in India, the Middle East, and parts of Africa. It is a very revered herb of the Indian Ayurvedic system of medicine as a Rasayana (tonic).
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Category: SchemesWhich of the given statements with repsect to Rashtriya Gokul Mission is/are correct?
- It is a component of the National Programme for Bovine Breeding and Dairy Development.
- It was initiated in 2018 with a focus on the conservation and development of indigenous breeds and improve their genetic makeup.
- Its components include the establishment of integrated indigenous cattle centres (Gokul Gram) and breeder’s societies (Gopalan Sangh).
Options:
Correct
- Rashtriya Gokul Mission is one of the components of the National Programme for Bovine Breeding and Dairy Development.
- Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM) was launched in 2014 for the development and conservation of indigenous breeds through selective breeding in the breeding tract and genetic up-gradation of non-descript breeds.
- The mission envisages the establishment of integrated cattle development centres, Gokul Grams and breeder’s societies (Gopalan Sangh) to develop indigenous breeds.
Incorrect
- Rashtriya Gokul Mission is one of the components of the National Programme for Bovine Breeding and Dairy Development.
- Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM) was launched in 2014 for the development and conservation of indigenous breeds through selective breeding in the breeding tract and genetic up-gradation of non-descript breeds.
- The mission envisages the establishment of integrated cattle development centres, Gokul Grams and breeder’s societies (Gopalan Sangh) to develop indigenous breeds.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Category: PolityIn the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the: (UPSC-2014)
Correct
- Article 51 of the Indian Constitution deals with the promotion of international peace and security. It states that the State shall endeavour to—
- promote international peace and security;
- maintain just and honourable relations between nations;
- foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organized peoples with one another; and
- encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.
Incorrect
- Article 51 of the Indian Constitution deals with the promotion of international peace and security. It states that the State shall endeavour to—
- promote international peace and security;
- maintain just and honourable relations between nations;
- foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organized peoples with one another; and
- encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Category: Art and CultureWhich of the following are the works of Rabindranath Tagore?
- Satya Ke Prayog
- Gitanjali
- Ghare Baire
- Sonar Tori
Options:
Correct
- Rabindranath Tagore was not only the first Asian to receive the Nobel Prize for Literature, but also the first non-European to do so.
- Tagore was the author of two national anthems. For India, “Jana Gana Mana” and for Bangladesh, “Amar Sonar Bangla.”
- He played an important part in modernising Bengali poetry and prose. Gitanjali, Ghare-Baire, Gora, Manasi, Balaka, and Sonar Tori are among his major works. He is also known for his song ‘Ekla Chalo Re.’
- Hence Option B is correct.
Incorrect
- Rabindranath Tagore was not only the first Asian to receive the Nobel Prize for Literature, but also the first non-European to do so.
- Tagore was the author of two national anthems. For India, “Jana Gana Mana” and for Bangladesh, “Amar Sonar Bangla.”
- He played an important part in modernising Bengali poetry and prose. Gitanjali, Ghare-Baire, Gora, Manasi, Balaka, and Sonar Tori are among his major works. He is also known for his song ‘Ekla Chalo Re.’
- Hence Option B is correct.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Category: Current AffairsConsider the following statements:
- Constitution Day is celebrated in our country on 26th January every year to commemorate the enactment of the Constitution of India.
- The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment in 2015 notified the decision of the Government of India to celebrate Constitution Day every year to promote Constitution values among citizens.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Every year on November 26th (Not on 26th January), Constitution Day, also known as ‘Samvidhan Divas,’ is commemorated in our nation to honour the promulgation of the Indian Constitution. The Constituent Assembly of India enacted the Indian Constitution on November 26, 1949, and it went into force on January 26, 1950. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
- On November 19, 2015, the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment announced that the Government of India has decided to commemorate the 26th of November each year as ‘Constitution Day’ in order to promote constitutional principles among citizens. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
- Every year on November 26th (Not on 26th January), Constitution Day, also known as ‘Samvidhan Divas,’ is commemorated in our nation to honour the promulgation of the Indian Constitution. The Constituent Assembly of India enacted the Indian Constitution on November 26, 1949, and it went into force on January 26, 1950. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
- On November 19, 2015, the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment announced that the Government of India has decided to commemorate the 26th of November each year as ‘Constitution Day’ in order to promote constitutional principles among citizens. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Category: PolityWith reference to the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court to grant Special Leave, which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
- It can be granted against any court or tribunal in the country.
- It is a discretionary power of the Supreme Court and cannot be claimed as a matter of right.
- It is applicable to constitutional, civil and criminal matters.
Options:
Correct
- The Supreme Court can grant special leave to appeal from any judgement rendered by any court or body in the country at its discretion (except military tribunal and court martial). Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
- As a result of such a special leave appeal, the Supreme Court can either approve or reject the appellant’s application, because the Supreme Court has the discretionary ability to accept or reject such an application. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- In matters of right for parties in civil, criminal, and constitutional proceedings, the supreme court gives special permission to special appeal. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
- The Supreme Court can grant special leave to appeal from any judgement rendered by any court or body in the country at its discretion (except military tribunal and court martial). Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
- As a result of such a special leave appeal, the Supreme Court can either approve or reject the appellant’s application, because the Supreme Court has the discretionary ability to accept or reject such an application. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- In matters of right for parties in civil, criminal, and constitutional proceedings, the supreme court gives special permission to special appeal. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Category: GeographyConsider the following pairs:
Islands Dispute
- Kuril Japan- Russia
- Senkaku China- Japan
- Dokdo Japan- South Korea
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Correct
- The sovereignty of the four southernmost Kuril Islands is the subject of a territorial dispute between Japan and the Russian Federation.
- The Senkaku Islands dispute is a territorial dispute between Japan and the People’s Republic of China (PRC) over uninhabited islands known as the Senkaku Islands in Japan.
- South Korea and Japan have a territorial dispute over the Liancourt Rocks. Both nations claim ownership over the Liancourt Rocks, a collection of tiny rocks in the Sea of Japan. It is known as “Dokdo” in the Korean language.
- Hence All the Statements are Correct.
Incorrect
- The sovereignty of the four southernmost Kuril Islands is the subject of a territorial dispute between Japan and the Russian Federation.
- The Senkaku Islands dispute is a territorial dispute between Japan and the People’s Republic of China (PRC) over uninhabited islands known as the Senkaku Islands in Japan.
- South Korea and Japan have a territorial dispute over the Liancourt Rocks. Both nations claim ownership over the Liancourt Rocks, a collection of tiny rocks in the Sea of Japan. It is known as “Dokdo” in the Korean language.
- Hence All the Statements are Correct.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Category: HistoryWho among the following is associated with ‘Songs from Prison’, a translation of ancient Indian religious lyrics in English?
Correct
- In 1934, Mahatma Gandhi was affiliated with “Songs from Prison,” an English translation of traditional Indian devotional hymns.
- Hence Option C is Correct.
Incorrect
- In 1934, Mahatma Gandhi was affiliated with “Songs from Prison,” an English translation of traditional Indian devotional hymns.
- Hence Option C is Correct.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Category: Current AffairsWhich nuclear power plant in India is being built in partnership with France?
Correct
- Recently, the French company EDF and Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL) are working together to take the Jaitapur project off the ground.
- EDF, a French corporation, recently submitted a binding offer for the Jaitapur project to NPCIL.
- Hence Option D is correct.
Incorrect
- Recently, the French company EDF and Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL) are working together to take the Jaitapur project off the ground.
- EDF, a French corporation, recently submitted a binding offer for the Jaitapur project to NPCIL.
- Hence Option D is correct.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Category: Current Affairs‘Operation HAECHI-II’, recently seen in news, refers to -
Correct
- The operation codenamed ‘HAECHI-II’ was conducted by INTERPOL underlining the global threat of cyber-enabled financial crime.
- It is the second such operation in a three-year project launched to tackle cyber-enabled financial crime.
- Hence Option D is correct.
Incorrect
- The operation codenamed ‘HAECHI-II’ was conducted by INTERPOL underlining the global threat of cyber-enabled financial crime.
- It is the second such operation in a three-year project launched to tackle cyber-enabled financial crime.
- Hence Option D is correct.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Category: Defence & SecurityWhich of the following statements are incorrect?
- The Communist Party of India (Maoist) is a violent, extremist organization.
- It was formed in 1967, following the armed-Maoist uprising at Naxalbari.
- It has been designated as a terrorist organisation under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act.
Options:-
Correct
- According to a study provided by the US State Department, the Communist Party of India (Maoist) is the world’s sixth deadliest terrorist organisation. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- It was founded on 21 September 2004, through the merger of the Communist Party of India (Marxist–Leninist) and the Maoist Communist Centre of India (MCCI). Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Since 2009, India’s Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act has branded the CPI (Maoist) as a terrorist organisation. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
- According to a study provided by the US State Department, the Communist Party of India (Maoist) is the world’s sixth deadliest terrorist organisation. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- It was founded on 21 September 2004, through the merger of the Communist Party of India (Marxist–Leninist) and the Maoist Communist Centre of India (MCCI). Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Since 2009, India’s Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act has branded the CPI (Maoist) as a terrorist organisation. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Category: PolityWhich of the following are seen as features of the Indian Judiciary?
- Independent from the executive and legislature
- President appoints judges to the higher judiciary
- Transparent and accountable appointment process
Options:-
Correct
- The Indian Constitution establishes a unified, integrated judicial system.The Indian Constitution establishes a separation of powers between the judiciary and the other two branches of government, i.e. executive and legislative. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- The President has the ability to nominate the Chief Justice of India (C.J.I.) and Supreme Court Judges under Article 124. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- The appointment of judges by the Collegium system is criticised for being opaque, and there was no method for verifying the appointment’s reasonableness. There is a complete absence of responsibility on the part of the Judiciary. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
- The Indian Constitution establishes a unified, integrated judicial system.The Indian Constitution establishes a separation of powers between the judiciary and the other two branches of government, i.e. executive and legislative. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- The President has the ability to nominate the Chief Justice of India (C.J.I.) and Supreme Court Judges under Article 124. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- The appointment of judges by the Collegium system is criticised for being opaque, and there was no method for verifying the appointment’s reasonableness. There is a complete absence of responsibility on the part of the Judiciary. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements:
- Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into the environment.
- Cattle release ammonia into the environment.
- Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into the environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- According to a Indian Nitrogen Assessment study:
- Agricultural soils contributed to over 70% of N2O emissions from India in 2010, followed by waste water (12%) and residential and commercial activities (6%).
- Cattle produce 80% of the ammonia, despite the fact that their yearly growth rate is only 1% due to a constant population.
- The poultry business, on the other hand, had an annual growth rate of 6% and excreted 0.415 tonnes of reactive nitrogen compounds in 2016.
- Hence All Statements are correct.
Incorrect
- According to a Indian Nitrogen Assessment study:
- Agricultural soils contributed to over 70% of N2O emissions from India in 2010, followed by waste water (12%) and residential and commercial activities (6%).
- Cattle produce 80% of the ammonia, despite the fact that their yearly growth rate is only 1% due to a constant population.
- The poultry business, on the other hand, had an annual growth rate of 6% and excreted 0.415 tonnes of reactive nitrogen compounds in 2016.
- Hence All Statements are correct.
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Category: EconomyConsider the following statements with regards to the Minimum Support Price:
- It was first introduced in 1965 to encourage farmers to grow foodgrains.
- At present, it covers 23 crops.
- No MSP is offered for pulses in India.
Choose the correct statements:
Correct
- The MSP system was introduced in 1965 to encourage farmers to grow foodgrains.
- It was initially declared for paddy and wheat, but later extended to 23 crops, including 7 cereals (paddy, wheat, maize, sorghum, pearl millet, barley and ragi); 5 pulses (gram, tur, moong, urad, lentil); 7 oilseeds (groundnut, rapeseed-mustard, soyabean, seasmum, sunflower, safflower, nigerseed); and 4 commercial crops (copra, sugarcane, cotton and raw jute).
Incorrect
- The MSP system was introduced in 1965 to encourage farmers to grow foodgrains.
- It was initially declared for paddy and wheat, but later extended to 23 crops, including 7 cereals (paddy, wheat, maize, sorghum, pearl millet, barley and ragi); 5 pulses (gram, tur, moong, urad, lentil); 7 oilseeds (groundnut, rapeseed-mustard, soyabean, seasmum, sunflower, safflower, nigerseed); and 4 commercial crops (copra, sugarcane, cotton and raw jute).
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Category: HealthConsider the following statements with regards to Norovirus:
- It is a group of viruses that leads to gastrointestinal illness.
- Norovirus is resistant to many disinfectants and can heat up to 60°C.
- The virus can also survive many common hand sanitisers.
Choose the correct statements:
Correct
- Norovirus is a group of viruses that leads to gastrointestinal illness. It is a very contagious virus that causes vomiting and diarrhea.
- Norovirus is resistant to heat with some of the norovirus capable of withstanding temperatures up to 60 degree Celsius. They are also found to survive freezing low temperatures.
- Norovirus are resistant to many disinfectants. Hand sanitizers aren’t as effective against Norovirus as some of these viruses can also survive many common hand sanitizers.
Incorrect
- Norovirus is a group of viruses that leads to gastrointestinal illness. It is a very contagious virus that causes vomiting and diarrhea.
- Norovirus is resistant to heat with some of the norovirus capable of withstanding temperatures up to 60 degree Celsius. They are also found to survive freezing low temperatures.
- Norovirus are resistant to many disinfectants. Hand sanitizers aren’t as effective against Norovirus as some of these viruses can also survive many common hand sanitizers.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Category: GeographyThe famous Yelagiri Hills lie in which of the following states?
Correct
- Yelagiri is a hill station in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu. t is situated in the district of Vellore close to city Krishnagiri. Yelagiri has plenty of spectacular green valleys, rose-gardens, and orchards and is fast emerging as a popular tourist destination.
Incorrect
- Yelagiri is a hill station in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu. t is situated in the district of Vellore close to city Krishnagiri. Yelagiri has plenty of spectacular green valleys, rose-gardens, and orchards and is fast emerging as a popular tourist destination.
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regards to Drugs Controller General of India:
- The DCGI establishes standards for the manufacturing, sales, import, and distribution of drugs in India.
- The DCGI also regulates medical and pharmaceutical devices.
- DCGI is also responsible for the training of Drug Analysts deputed by State Drug Control Laboratories and other Institutions.
Choose the correct statements:
Correct
Drugs Controller General of India is the head of department of the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization of the Government of India responsible for approval of licences of specified categories of drugs such as blood and blood products, IV fluids, vaccines, and sera in India.
Drugs Controller General of India, comes under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare. DCGI also sets standards for manufacturing, sales, import, and distribution of drugs in India.
The DCGI also regulates medical and pharmaceutical devices.
DCGI is also responsible for the training of Drug Analysts deputed by State Drug Control Laboratories and other Institutions.Incorrect
Drugs Controller General of India is the head of department of the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization of the Government of India responsible for approval of licences of specified categories of drugs such as blood and blood products, IV fluids, vaccines, and sera in India.
Drugs Controller General of India, comes under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare. DCGI also sets standards for manufacturing, sales, import, and distribution of drugs in India.
The DCGI also regulates medical and pharmaceutical devices.
DCGI is also responsible for the training of Drug Analysts deputed by State Drug Control Laboratories and other Institutions. -
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Category: GeographyWhich one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?
Correct
- Valley of Flowers National Park is situated in the state of Uttarakhand. It is situated at an altitude of about 3352 to 3658 metres above sea level and so lies completely in the temperate alpine zone.
Incorrect
- Valley of Flowers National Park is situated in the state of Uttarakhand. It is situated at an altitude of about 3352 to 3658 metres above sea level and so lies completely in the temperate alpine zone.
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regards to suspension of the Members of Parliament:
- The MPs can be suspended by the President on the recommendation of the presiding officer of the house.
- The MPs can only be suspended for their conduct in the ongoing session of the Parliament.
Choose the correct statements:
Correct
- The presiding officer (NOT President) is permitted to suspend a member of Parliament (MP). The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the authority to force a Member to resign from the House or to suspend him or her. The Rajya Sabha Chairman, unlike the Speaker, does not have the authority to suspend a member. Hence Statement 1 is not correct.
- The act of ‘naming’ such a member opens the door for a motion to be introduced in that House requesting that the member thus ‘named’ be “suspended from the service (of the House) for a time not exceeding the remainder of the session.” Hence Statement 2 is not correct.
Incorrect
- The presiding officer (NOT President) is permitted to suspend a member of Parliament (MP). The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the authority to force a Member to resign from the House or to suspend him or her. The Rajya Sabha Chairman, unlike the Speaker, does not have the authority to suspend a member. Hence Statement 1 is not correct.
- The act of ‘naming’ such a member opens the door for a motion to be introduced in that House requesting that the member thus ‘named’ be “suspended from the service (of the House) for a time not exceeding the remainder of the session.” Hence Statement 2 is not correct.
-
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regards to ‘Office of Profit’ in India:
- There is a clear statement in the Indian Constitution under Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a), that an MP or MLA is not allowed to hold any office of profit as this would fetch them financial gains and benefits.
- It doesn’t apply when an individual holds two executive positions simultaneously.
- The office of profit concept has been adopted from the British Parliamentary model.
Choose the correct statements:
Correct
- According to Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a) of the Constitution, an MP or MLA is prohibited from holding a profit-making post since it places them in a position to profit financially. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- Articles 102 and 191 also safeguard a legislator who holds a government position if the office in issue is protected from disqualification by law. The provision does not apply to the executive. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- The notion of the office of profit was derived from the British Parliamentary model and is in line with the English Act of Settlement 1701. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
- According to Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a) of the Constitution, an MP or MLA is prohibited from holding a profit-making post since it places them in a position to profit financially. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- Articles 102 and 191 also safeguard a legislator who holds a government position if the office in issue is protected from disqualification by law. The provision does not apply to the executive. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- The notion of the office of profit was derived from the British Parliamentary model and is in line with the English Act of Settlement 1701. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Category: GeographyThe drainage path of Krishna River doesn’t include which of the following states?
Correct
- The Krishna is the second largest eastward draining interstate river basin in Peninsular India covering large areas in the States of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
- Hence Option A is correct.
Incorrect
- The Krishna is the second largest eastward draining interstate river basin in Peninsular India covering large areas in the States of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
- Hence Option A is correct.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Category: Current AffairsWhich of the following is correct with regards to the Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC), as per the RBI?
Correct
- Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) suggested revisions to the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, allowing it to introduce a Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC).
- The CBDC is a digital form of fiat currency that can be traded using blockchain-backed wallets and is governed by the central bank.
- It differs from decentralised virtual currencies and crypto assets, which are not issued by the government and do not have the status of ‘legal tender.’
- CBDCs allow users to perform domestic and cross-border transactions without the involvement of a third party or a bank.
- Hence Option B is correct.
Incorrect
- Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) suggested revisions to the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, allowing it to introduce a Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC).
- The CBDC is a digital form of fiat currency that can be traded using blockchain-backed wallets and is governed by the central bank.
- It differs from decentralised virtual currencies and crypto assets, which are not issued by the government and do not have the status of ‘legal tender.’
- CBDCs allow users to perform domestic and cross-border transactions without the involvement of a third party or a bank.
- Hence Option B is correct.
-
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyIn the context of which one of the following are the terms 'pyrolysis and plasma gasification' mentioned?
Correct
- Pyrolysis is the chemical decomposition of organic compounds in the absence of oxygen.
- Plasma gasification is a high-temperature thermal process that uses plasma to transform organic materials into a syngas (synthesis gas) largely composed of hydrogen and carbon monoxide.
- Pyrolysis transforms organic materials into a solid residue including ash and carbon, as well as minor amounts of liquid and gases.
- While plasma gasification is used commercially as a waste-to-energy system, converting municipal solid trash, tyres, hazardous waste, and sewage sludge into synthesis gas (syngas), which contains hydrogen and carbon monoxide and this may be used to create electricity.
- Hence Option D is correct.
Incorrect
- Pyrolysis is the chemical decomposition of organic compounds in the absence of oxygen.
- Plasma gasification is a high-temperature thermal process that uses plasma to transform organic materials into a syngas (synthesis gas) largely composed of hydrogen and carbon monoxide.
- Pyrolysis transforms organic materials into a solid residue including ash and carbon, as well as minor amounts of liquid and gases.
- While plasma gasification is used commercially as a waste-to-energy system, converting municipal solid trash, tyres, hazardous waste, and sewage sludge into synthesis gas (syngas), which contains hydrogen and carbon monoxide and this may be used to create electricity.
- Hence Option D is correct.
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