UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Dec 24 – Dec 30 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from Dec 24 – Dec 30 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.
Post your scores in the comment section below!
Quiz-summary
0 of 30 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
Information
UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Dec 24 – Dec 30
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 30 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Average score |
|
Your score |
|
Categories
- Art and Culture 0%
- Current Affairs 0%
- Economy 0%
- Environment and Ecology 0%
- G K 0%
- Geography 0%
- History 0%
- International Relations 0%
- Polity 0%
- Science and Technology 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Category: Current AffairsLocated in the Idukki district of Kerala, the Mullaperiyar dam is under the control of which of the following states or UTs?
Correct
- The dam is at the centre of a decades-long conflict between Tamil Nadu and Kerala, two southern Indian states.
- The dam, which is located in Kerala, poses a threat to thousands of people who live downstream.
- The water provided by the dam, which is controlled by Tamil Nadu, is a lifeline for residents in five districts.
- Hence Option B is Correct.
Incorrect
- The dam is at the centre of a decades-long conflict between Tamil Nadu and Kerala, two southern Indian states.
- The dam, which is located in Kerala, poses a threat to thousands of people who live downstream.
- The water provided by the dam, which is controlled by Tamil Nadu, is a lifeline for residents in five districts.
- Hence Option B is Correct.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Category: PolityWhich amongst the following is not one of the criteria to be eligible for reservation under the EWS category?
Correct
Eligibility Criteria for EWS Reservation:
- The quota would be available to persons who earn less than Rs 8 lakh per year.
- People who own a home on a plot of land larger than 1,000 square feet.
- Those who possess a residential parcel of land in a notified municipality that is larger than 100 square yards.
- People who possess a residential plot of more than 200 (NOT 250) yards in a non-notified region will be ineligible as well.
- Under the social backwardness criteria, those who currently benefit from education and job restrictions.
Hence Option D is Correct.
Incorrect
Eligibility Criteria for EWS Reservation:
- The quota would be available to persons who earn less than Rs 8 lakh per year.
- People who own a home on a plot of land larger than 1,000 square feet.
- Those who possess a residential parcel of land in a notified municipality that is larger than 100 square yards.
- People who possess a residential plot of more than 200 (NOT 250) yards in a non-notified region will be ineligible as well.
- Under the social backwardness criteria, those who currently benefit from education and job restrictions.
Hence Option D is Correct.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Category: PolityWhich of the following is incorrect with regards to the voluntary renunciation of Indian citizenship?
Correct
- If an Indian citizen is of full age and capacity, he can voluntarily resign his Indian citizenship.
- When a person relinquishes his citizenship, his or her minor children lose their Indian citizenship as well.
- When the youngster reaches the age of 18, he may reclaim his Indian citizenship.
- Hence Option D is Correct.
Incorrect
- If an Indian citizen is of full age and capacity, he can voluntarily resign his Indian citizenship.
- When a person relinquishes his citizenship, his or her minor children lose their Indian citizenship as well.
- When the youngster reaches the age of 18, he may reclaim his Indian citizenship.
- Hence Option D is Correct.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Category: EconomyAmongst the eight core sectors in the Index of Industrial Production, which sector has the lowest weightage?
Correct
- Coal, crude oil, natural gas, refinery products, fertiliser, steel, cement, and power are among the eight key sector industries.
- The eight core industries account for 40.27 percent of the weight of the items in the Industrial Production Index (IIP).
- In decreasing order of weightage, below are the eight Core Industries:
- Refinery Products
- Electricity
- Steel
- Coal
- Crude Oil
- Natural Gas
- Cement
- Fertilizers
Hence Option C is Correct.
Incorrect
- Coal, crude oil, natural gas, refinery products, fertiliser, steel, cement, and power are among the eight key sector industries.
- The eight core industries account for 40.27 percent of the weight of the items in the Industrial Production Index (IIP).
- In decreasing order of weightage, below are the eight Core Industries:
- Refinery Products
- Electricity
- Steel
- Coal
- Crude Oil
- Natural Gas
- Cement
- Fertilizers
Hence Option C is Correct.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyWhy is there a great concern about the 'microbeads' that are released into the environment?
Correct
- Microbeads are solid plastic particles with a greatest diameter of less than one millimetre.
- Polyethylene is the most common material, however other petrochemical plastics such as polypropylene and polystyrene can also be used.
- Exfoliating personal care items, toothpastes, and biomedical and health-science studies all employ them.
- Microbeads in freshwater and ocean water can produce plastic particle contamination and constitute an environmental concern to aquatic species.
- Hence Option A is Correct.
Incorrect
- Microbeads are solid plastic particles with a greatest diameter of less than one millimetre.
- Polyethylene is the most common material, however other petrochemical plastics such as polypropylene and polystyrene can also be used.
- Exfoliating personal care items, toothpastes, and biomedical and health-science studies all employ them.
- Microbeads in freshwater and ocean water can produce plastic particle contamination and constitute an environmental concern to aquatic species.
- Hence Option A is Correct.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regards to the allocation of Election symbols in India:
- The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 empowers the Election Commission to recognize political parties and allot symbols.
- EC can decide disputes among rival groups or sections of a recognized political party staking claim to its name and symbol.
- The EC is the only authority to decide issues on a dispute or a merger under the order.
Choose the correct statements.
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct. The power to register and recognize political parties is with the Election Commission of India. It also has the power to allocate symbols that are regulated under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968.
- Statement 2 is correct. Under Para 15 of the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, the power to decide disputes among rival sections of a recognized political party is with the Election Commission of India.
- Statement 3 is also correct. EC is the only authority to decide issues arising out of a merger although it may be challenged in court.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct. The power to register and recognize political parties is with the Election Commission of India. It also has the power to allocate symbols that are regulated under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968.
- Statement 2 is correct. Under Para 15 of the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, the power to decide disputes among rival sections of a recognized political party is with the Election Commission of India.
- Statement 3 is also correct. EC is the only authority to decide issues arising out of a merger although it may be challenged in court.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Category: EconomyWhich amongst the following is not correct with regards to the GIFT City?
Correct
- Statement a is incorrect as the built-up area is proposed to be divided with 22% constituting residential space, 67% for commercial, and 11% for social space.
- Statements b, c, and d are correct. The government has provided various kinds of incentives and exemptions like tax incentives for the relocation of foreign funds. Also, it is attracting many international financial services.
Incorrect
- Statement a is incorrect as the built-up area is proposed to be divided with 22% constituting residential space, 67% for commercial, and 11% for social space.
- Statements b, c, and d are correct. The government has provided various kinds of incentives and exemptions like tax incentives for the relocation of foreign funds. Also, it is attracting many international financial services.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyRecently seen in the news, ‘Southern Birdwing’ and ‘Grass Jewel’ are-
Correct
- Southern Birdwing is the largest butterfly in India. It is seen up to a height of 3,000 ft in the Western Ghats limits. Karnataka has declared it as the state butterfly.
- The grass jewel is the smallest butterfly found in India. It is found in Africa, Arabia (United Arab Emirates, Oman, Saudi Arabia), southern Europe (Bulgaria and Greece), India.
Incorrect
- Southern Birdwing is the largest butterfly in India. It is seen up to a height of 3,000 ft in the Western Ghats limits. Karnataka has declared it as the state butterfly.
- The grass jewel is the smallest butterfly found in India. It is found in Africa, Arabia (United Arab Emirates, Oman, Saudi Arabia), southern Europe (Bulgaria and Greece), India.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Category: International RelationsWith reference to the G20, which amongst the following correctly defines ‘Troika’?
Correct
India is assuming the G20 presidentship for the year 2022-2023. Troika refers to the top grouping in G20 which consists of current, previous, and incoming presidencies. So, India joined Troika this year.
Incorrect
India is assuming the G20 presidentship for the year 2022-2023. Troika refers to the top grouping in G20 which consists of current, previous, and incoming presidencies. So, India joined Troika this year.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Category: EconomyWith reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?
Correct
The major weakness of land ceiling laws was that they were aimed at individual holdings. It allowed many zamindars to transfer land notionally to their relatives and thus escape the ceiling. The reason for land reforms was providing land to all landless people (redistribution) because landlessness was considered as one major reason for poverty and exploitation. Cultivation of cash crops requires much more inputs than the mere availability of holdings.
Cash crops, during British time, were induced by force while in post-independence India, major transformation for cash crops has happened where the capital, market access, technology and irrigation are available. After the Second Plan, a large number of exemptions kicked in for certain categories of land – tea/rubber plantations, orchards, dairying, etc. to promote certain kinds of capitalist expansion in place of absentee landlordism.
Incorrect
The major weakness of land ceiling laws was that they were aimed at individual holdings. It allowed many zamindars to transfer land notionally to their relatives and thus escape the ceiling. The reason for land reforms was providing land to all landless people (redistribution) because landlessness was considered as one major reason for poverty and exploitation. Cultivation of cash crops requires much more inputs than the mere availability of holdings.
Cash crops, during British time, were induced by force while in post-independence India, major transformation for cash crops has happened where the capital, market access, technology and irrigation are available. After the Second Plan, a large number of exemptions kicked in for certain categories of land – tea/rubber plantations, orchards, dairying, etc. to promote certain kinds of capitalist expansion in place of absentee landlordism.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Category: GeographyWith reference to extra-tropical cyclones, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- They have a clear frontal system which is not present in tropical cyclones.
- They can originate over both land and sea.
- They move from west to east.
Options:
Correct
- Extratropical cyclone, also called wave cyclone or midlatitude cyclone, is a type of storm system formed in middle or high latitudes, in regions of large horizontal temperature variations called frontal zones.
Incorrect
- Extratropical cyclone, also called wave cyclone or midlatitude cyclone, is a type of storm system formed in middle or high latitudes, in regions of large horizontal temperature variations called frontal zones.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Category: G KConsider the following statements:
- The Central Institute of Indian Languages (CIIL), Mysore works on the protection, preservation and documentation of all the mother tongues/languages of India spoken by less than 1,00,000 people.
- UNESCO operates with four levels of language endangerment between “safe” and “extinct”.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- The policy of the Government is to promote all Indian Languages including endangered languages. The Government of India has initiated a Scheme known as “Scheme for Protection and Preservation of Endangered Languages of India” (SPPEL). Under this Scheme, the Central Institute of Indian Languages (CIIL), Mysore works on the protection, preservation and documentation of all the mother tongues/languages of India spoken by less than 10,000 people which are called endangered languages.
- UNESCO operates with four levels of language endangerment between “safe” (not endangered) and “extinct” (no living speakers), based on intergenerational transfer: “vulnerable” (not spoken by children outside the home), “definitely endangered” (children not speaking), “severely endangered” (only spoken by the oldest generations), and “critically endangered” (spoken by a few members of the oldest generation, often semi-speakers).
Incorrect
- The policy of the Government is to promote all Indian Languages including endangered languages. The Government of India has initiated a Scheme known as “Scheme for Protection and Preservation of Endangered Languages of India” (SPPEL). Under this Scheme, the Central Institute of Indian Languages (CIIL), Mysore works on the protection, preservation and documentation of all the mother tongues/languages of India spoken by less than 10,000 people which are called endangered languages.
- UNESCO operates with four levels of language endangerment between “safe” (not endangered) and “extinct” (no living speakers), based on intergenerational transfer: “vulnerable” (not spoken by children outside the home), “definitely endangered” (children not speaking), “severely endangered” (only spoken by the oldest generations), and “critically endangered” (spoken by a few members of the oldest generation, often semi-speakers).
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Category: Art and CultureWhich of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Festival State
- Hornbill Nagaland
- Wangala Meghalaya
- Myoko Assam
Options:
Correct
- Myoko festival is associated with the state of Arunachal Pradesh.
Incorrect
- Myoko festival is associated with the state of Arunachal Pradesh.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Category: International RelationsDonbas conflict is a dispute between
Correct
- The Donbas region is a conflict zone where Ukraine has been battling Russia-backed separatists.
Incorrect
- The Donbas region is a conflict zone where Ukraine has been battling Russia-backed separatists.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Category: HistoryWith reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events: (UPSC 2017)
- Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy
- Quit India Movement launched
- Second Round Table Conference
What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
Correct
- Second Round Table Conference – 1931.
- Quit India Movement was launched on 8 August 1942.
- The Royal Indian Navy mutiny or revolt, also called the 1946 Naval Uprising, was an insurrection of Indian naval ratings, soldiers, police personnel and civilians against the British government in India.
Incorrect
- Second Round Table Conference – 1931.
- Quit India Movement was launched on 8 August 1942.
- The Royal Indian Navy mutiny or revolt, also called the 1946 Naval Uprising, was an insurrection of Indian naval ratings, soldiers, police personnel and civilians against the British government in India.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Category: PolityWith respect to the word ‘Democratic’ mentioned in the Preamble, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Democratic polity stipulated in the Preamble is based on the doctrine of popular sovereignty.
- Independence of Judiciary can be considered as the manifestation of the democratic character of the Indian polity.
- The term used in the Preamble embraces political democracy and not social and economic democracy.
Options:-
Correct
- As stated in the Preamble, a democratic government is founded on the notion of popular sovereignty, or the people’s possession of supreme authority. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- The democratic nature of the Indian polity is manifested through universal adult franchise, periodic elections, rule of law, judiciary independence, and the lack of discrimination on certain grounds. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- In the Preamble, the term “democratic” is used in a broad meaning, encompassing not just political democracy but also social and economic democracy. Hence Statement 3 is not correct.
Incorrect
- As stated in the Preamble, a democratic government is founded on the notion of popular sovereignty, or the people’s possession of supreme authority. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- The democratic nature of the Indian polity is manifested through universal adult franchise, periodic elections, rule of law, judiciary independence, and the lack of discrimination on certain grounds. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- In the Preamble, the term “democratic” is used in a broad meaning, encompassing not just political democracy but also social and economic democracy. Hence Statement 3 is not correct.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Category: PolityWhich of the following words were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act?
- Integrity
- Liberty
- Secular
- Socialist
Options:
Correct
- India’s status was altered from “sovereign democratic republic” to “sovereign, socialist secular democratic republic” with the 42nd Amendment. It also modified the phrase “national unity” to “national unity and integrity.”
- During the Emergency, the administration led by Indira Gandhi adopted the 42nd Amendment to the Indian Constitution, formally known as The Constitution Amendment Act, 1976.
- The 42nd Constitutional Amendment introduced the phrases socialist, secular, and integrity to the Preamble.
- Hence only terms 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
Incorrect
- India’s status was altered from “sovereign democratic republic” to “sovereign, socialist secular democratic republic” with the 42nd Amendment. It also modified the phrase “national unity” to “national unity and integrity.”
- During the Emergency, the administration led by Indira Gandhi adopted the 42nd Amendment to the Indian Constitution, formally known as The Constitution Amendment Act, 1976.
- The 42nd Constitutional Amendment introduced the phrases socialist, secular, and integrity to the Preamble.
- Hence only terms 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with respect to Private Member's Bill:
- A member of the ruling dispensation who is not a minister or that of the opposition can be said to be a ‘Private Member’.
- No private member’s Bill has been passed by Parliament since 1970.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
- A private member of parliament (MP) is a member of parliament who is not a minister. Private Member’s Bills are bills introduced by private members of Parliament.
- Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- So far, 14 such Bills have been enacted by Parliament, six of them were passed in 1956.
- According to PRS Legislative Research, no Private Member’s Bill has been enacted by Parliament since 1970.
- Hence Statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
- A private member of parliament (MP) is a member of parliament who is not a minister. Private Member’s Bills are bills introduced by private members of Parliament.
- Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- So far, 14 such Bills have been enacted by Parliament, six of them were passed in 1956.
- According to PRS Legislative Research, no Private Member’s Bill has been enacted by Parliament since 1970.
- Hence Statement 2 is correct.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyWith respect to Lesser florican, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is endemic to the Indian Subcontinent.
- The bird is listed as “critically endangered” on the International Union for Conservation of Nature’s Red List of Threatened Species.
Options:
Correct
- Lesser Florican is a small and thin bustard-like bird that lives in tall grasses.
- Sypheotides indicus is the scientific name for Lesser Floricans.
- During the monsoon season, the endangered bird may be seen in Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and other areas. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- The International Union for Conservation of Nature’s Red List of Threatened Species classifies the bird as “Endangered.” Hence Statement 2 is not correct.
Incorrect
- Lesser Florican is a small and thin bustard-like bird that lives in tall grasses.
- Sypheotides indicus is the scientific name for Lesser Floricans.
- During the monsoon season, the endangered bird may be seen in Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and other areas. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- The International Union for Conservation of Nature’s Red List of Threatened Species classifies the bird as “Endangered.” Hence Statement 2 is not correct.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Category: EconomyConsider the following statements:
- National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting financial inclusion in the country.
- NPCI has launched RuPay, a card payment scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) is a government-owned corporation that manages retail payment and settlement systems and promotes financial inclusion in India.
- It is the result of a collaboration between the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA).
- NPCI has launched RuPay which is an Indian-developed payment system that is tailored to the expectations and needs of Indian consumers, banks, and merchants.
- Hence both statements are correct.
Incorrect
- The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) is a government-owned corporation that manages retail payment and settlement systems and promotes financial inclusion in India.
- It is the result of a collaboration between the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA).
- NPCI has launched RuPay which is an Indian-developed payment system that is tailored to the expectations and needs of Indian consumers, banks, and merchants.
- Hence both statements are correct.
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Category: Art and CultureWhich amongst the following is the string puppet native to the state of Rajasthan?
Correct
Kalasutri Bahulya:
- Kalasutri Bahulya comes from Maharashtra which has a long tradition of string puppet theatre.
- ‘Kal’ refers to the forefingers of the human hand, ‘Sutri’ to black thread, and ‘Bahuliya’ to puppets.
Sakhi kandhei:
- ‘Sakhi Kandhei Nacha’ is a puppet dance from Odisha.
- The string puppetry show Sakhi kandhei is particularly in the Kendrapara area of Odisha.
Putala Natch:
- Putola Nach is a traditional Assamese string puppet theatre from North East India.
- It is typically used to perform episodes from epics like the Ramayana or Mahabharatha.
- Putala bhaona is another name for Putala nach.
Kathputli:
- Kathputli is Rajasthan’s traditional string puppetry which is costumed in authentic Rajasthani dress.
- The Kathputli term originates from ‘Kath’ means wood and ‘Putli’ means doll.
- Hence Option D is correct.
Incorrect
Kalasutri Bahulya:
- Kalasutri Bahulya comes from Maharashtra which has a long tradition of string puppet theatre.
- ‘Kal’ refers to the forefingers of the human hand, ‘Sutri’ to black thread, and ‘Bahuliya’ to puppets.
Sakhi kandhei:
- ‘Sakhi Kandhei Nacha’ is a puppet dance from Odisha.
- The string puppetry show Sakhi kandhei is particularly in the Kendrapara area of Odisha.
Putala Natch:
- Putola Nach is a traditional Assamese string puppet theatre from North East India.
- It is typically used to perform episodes from epics like the Ramayana or Mahabharatha.
- Putala bhaona is another name for Putala nach.
Kathputli:
- Kathputli is Rajasthan’s traditional string puppetry which is costumed in authentic Rajasthani dress.
- The Kathputli term originates from ‘Kath’ means wood and ‘Putli’ means doll.
- Hence Option D is correct.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements with respect to the ICON mission:
- It is a collaboration between the European Space Agency (ESA) and its Russian equivalent Roscosmos
- Its objective is to help understand the origin and evolution of the Solar System
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- The Ionospheric Connection Explorer (ICON) is a satellite that studies changes in the Earth’s ionosphere.
- The ionosphere is a dynamic zone high in our atmosphere where weather from the ground collides with weather from space.
- ICON examines interaction between Earth’s weather systems and space weather caused by the Sun. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
Incorrect
- The Ionospheric Connection Explorer (ICON) is a satellite that studies changes in the Earth’s ionosphere.
- The ionosphere is a dynamic zone high in our atmosphere where weather from the ground collides with weather from space.
- ICON examines interaction between Earth’s weather systems and space weather caused by the Sun. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyWith respect to Antarctic Fur Seals, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Antarctic Fur Seals are widely distributed in the Southern Ocean near the Antarctic Convergence
- Its IUCN status is Vulnerable
- They do have any natural Predators
Options:
Correct
- Antarctic Fur Seals can be found in large numbers at the Antarctic Convergence in the Southern Ocean. South Georgia, as well as other sub-Antarctic islands, are home to the majority of the inhabitants. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- IUCN Status: Least Concern.(NOT Vulnerable) Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Sharks and Killer Whales attack Antarctic Fur Seals, and the pups are vulnerable to Leopard Seals. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
- Antarctic Fur Seals can be found in large numbers at the Antarctic Convergence in the Southern Ocean. South Georgia, as well as other sub-Antarctic islands, are home to the majority of the inhabitants. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- IUCN Status: Least Concern.(NOT Vulnerable) Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Sharks and Killer Whales attack Antarctic Fur Seals, and the pups are vulnerable to Leopard Seals. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyColony collapse disorder an abnormal phenomenon is associated with
Correct
- Colony Collapse Disorder(CCD) occurs when the majority of worker bees in a colony vanish, leaving behind just a queen.
- Pesticides, mites, fungus, beekeeping methods ,malnutrition, low quality queens, hunger, various diseases, and immunodeficiencies are all being considered as possible causes of CCD.
- Hence Option D is correct.
Incorrect
- Colony Collapse Disorder(CCD) occurs when the majority of worker bees in a colony vanish, leaving behind just a queen.
- Pesticides, mites, fungus, beekeeping methods ,malnutrition, low quality queens, hunger, various diseases, and immunodeficiencies are all being considered as possible causes of CCD.
- Hence Option D is correct.
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyIt is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry?
- Production of algae-based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents.
- Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuel production requires a high level of expertise/technology until the construction is completed.
- Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large scale facilities which may raise ecological and social concerns.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
- Algae may be produced on land and in water. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
- Selection of particular species for production and extraction of important co-products requires technological expertise. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- Some algae biodiesel ideas call for aquaculture-style operations in open ocean waters, which might have negative environmental consequences, particularly if biotech algae is employed.
- Large-scale facilities are required for economically sustainable manufacturing, which may generate environmental and social problems. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
- Algae may be produced on land and in water. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
- Selection of particular species for production and extraction of important co-products requires technological expertise. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- Some algae biodiesel ideas call for aquaculture-style operations in open ocean waters, which might have negative environmental consequences, particularly if biotech algae is employed.
- Large-scale facilities are required for economically sustainable manufacturing, which may generate environmental and social problems. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with respect to Vice- President of India:
- He/she is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of only elected members from both houses of Parliament
- An election to fill a vacancy in the office of Vice-President occurring by reason of his death, resignation or removal, or otherwise shall be held as soon as possible after, and in no case later than six months from, the date of occurrence of the vacancy
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament, in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and the voting in such election is by secret ballot. The Electoral College to elect a person to the office of the Vice-President consists of all members of both Houses of Parliament
- Article 68(2) of the Constitution provides that an election to fill a vacancy in the office of Vice-President occurring by reason of his death, resignation or removal or otherwise shall be held as soon as possible.
Incorrect
- The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament, in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and the voting in such election is by secret ballot. The Electoral College to elect a person to the office of the Vice-President consists of all members of both Houses of Parliament
- Article 68(2) of the Constitution provides that an election to fill a vacancy in the office of Vice-President occurring by reason of his death, resignation or removal or otherwise shall be held as soon as possible.
-
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Category: GeographyWith respect to Mithi River, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is a River flowing through the city of Mumbai
- It is a confluence of tail-water discharges of the Tulsi and Vihar lakes
Options:
Correct
- The Mithi River is a river on Salsette Island, the island of the city of Mumbai, India. It is a confluence of tail-water discharges of the Powai and Vihar lakes.
- The river is seasonal and rises during the monsoons. The overflowing lakes also contribute to the river flow, which is stopped by a dam at other times.
Incorrect
- The Mithi River is a river on Salsette Island, the island of the city of Mumbai, India. It is a confluence of tail-water discharges of the Powai and Vihar lakes.
- The river is seasonal and rises during the monsoons. The overflowing lakes also contribute to the river flow, which is stopped by a dam at other times.
-
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Category: GeographyMount Semeru recently seen in news is in which country?
Correct
- Mount Semeru is located on the Java Island of Indonesia.
- It is an active volcano in East Java. It is located in a subduction zone.
Incorrect
- Mount Semeru is located on the Java Island of Indonesia.
- It is an active volcano in East Java. It is located in a subduction zone.
-
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Category: GeographyConsider the following statements:
- They are one of the major Naga ethnic groups
- They are known in Arunachal Pradesh as the Wanchos
- They were the last to give up the practice of head-hunting – severing heads of enemies after attacking rival tribes
The above statements describe which amongst the following tribes?
Correct
- The Konyaks are one of the major Naga ethnic groups. In Nagaland, they inhabit the Mon District—also known as ‘The Land of The Anghs’.
- The Konyaks are known in Arunachal Pradesh as the Wanchos.
- The Konyaks were the last to give up the practice of head-hunting.
Incorrect
- The Konyaks are one of the major Naga ethnic groups. In Nagaland, they inhabit the Mon District—also known as ‘The Land of The Anghs’.
- The Konyaks are known in Arunachal Pradesh as the Wanchos.
- The Konyaks were the last to give up the practice of head-hunting.
-
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Category: GeographyWith reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC-2017)
- IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.
- An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino’s impact on the monsoon.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
- IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between Western Indian Ocean and Eastern Indian Ocean.
- An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino’s impact on the monsoon. A positive IOD leads to greater monsoon rainfall and more active (above normal rainfall) monsoon days while negative IOD leads to less rainfall and more monsoon break days (no rainfall).
Incorrect
- IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between Western Indian Ocean and Eastern Indian Ocean.
- An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino’s impact on the monsoon. A positive IOD leads to greater monsoon rainfall and more active (above normal rainfall) monsoon days while negative IOD leads to less rainfall and more monsoon break days (no rainfall).
Comments