UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Jan 07 – Jan 13 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from Jan 07 – Jan 13 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.
Post your scores in the comment section below!
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UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Jan 07 – Jan 13
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Category: International RelationsNoumea Accord is a promise by the French Republic to grant political power to
Correct
- New Caledonia is a French special collectivity located in the southwest Pacific Ocean that is now controlled under the “Noumea Accord.”
- The Nouméa Accord of 1998 is a commitment made by the French Republic to give New Caledonia and its native inhabitants, the Kanaks, more political authority.
- Hence Option C is correct.
Incorrect
- New Caledonia is a French special collectivity located in the southwest Pacific Ocean that is now controlled under the “Noumea Accord.”
- The Nouméa Accord of 1998 is a commitment made by the French Republic to give New Caledonia and its native inhabitants, the Kanaks, more political authority.
- Hence Option C is correct.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Category: GeographyConsider the following statements with respect to Tornadoes:
- They occur most often in association with thunderstorms in both the Northern and Southern Hemispheres
- Tornadoes have been observed on every continent except Antarctica.
- They occur mostly in tropical warm areas
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Tornado is a small-diameter column of furiously rotating air that forms within a convective cloud and comes into contact with the ground.
- Tornadoes most commonly occur in conjunction with thunderstorms in the mid-latitudes of both the Northern and Southern Hemispheres throughout the spring and summer.
- Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- Tornadoes have been observed on all continents except Antarctica, and they are most prevalent in the middle latitudes, where circumstances are generally conducive for the formation of convective storms. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- Tornadoes occur most frequently in the spring and least frequently in the winter. The seasonal shift between autumn and spring encourages the formation of extratropical cyclones and frontal systems that sustain intense convective storms. They do not exist in tropical warm climates.
- Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
- Tornado is a small-diameter column of furiously rotating air that forms within a convective cloud and comes into contact with the ground.
- Tornadoes most commonly occur in conjunction with thunderstorms in the mid-latitudes of both the Northern and Southern Hemispheres throughout the spring and summer.
- Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- Tornadoes have been observed on all continents except Antarctica, and they are most prevalent in the middle latitudes, where circumstances are generally conducive for the formation of convective storms. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- Tornadoes occur most frequently in the spring and least frequently in the winter. The seasonal shift between autumn and spring encourages the formation of extratropical cyclones and frontal systems that sustain intense convective storms. They do not exist in tropical warm climates.
- Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Category: PolityThe Governor of a State is the Chancellor of
Correct
The Governor serves as the State Universities’ ex-officio Chancellor.
According to the terms of the relevant University’s Act, the Governor selects the Vice Chancellor on the advice of the State Government.
The honorary chancellor of all State-owned colleges is the governor of the state, who is selected by the president as the union’s representative.
Hence Option A is correct.Incorrect
The Governor serves as the State Universities’ ex-officio Chancellor.
According to the terms of the relevant University’s Act, the Governor selects the Vice Chancellor on the advice of the State Government.
The honorary chancellor of all State-owned colleges is the governor of the state, who is selected by the president as the union’s representative.
Hence Option A is correct. -
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Category: Art and CultureWhich of the following statements with respect to Parliament House is/are correct?
- The building was designed by the British architects, Sir Edwin Lutyens and Sir Herbert Baker.
- The foundation stone was laid by Prince Arthur, Duke of Connaught and Strathearn, in 1921.
- It is said to have been based on Chausath Yogini Temple in Rajasthan.
Options:
Correct
- Sir Edwin Landseer Lutyens was crucial in the design and construction of New Delhi, which would eventually serve as the seat of the Government of India. New Delhi is often known as “Lutyens’ Delhi” in honour of his contribution. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- He was also the major architect of various landmarks in New Delhi, including the India Gate, which he created in partnership with Sir Herbert Baker; he also designed Viceroy’s House, which is now known as the Rashtrapati Bhavan.
- During the Delhi phase of his India journey in 1921, the Duke of Connaught, together with Prince Arthur and Strathearn, laid the groundwork for Parliament House. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- The Indian parliament building is reported to be built on the Chausath Yogini temple in Madhya Pradesh. (NOT Rajasthan) Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
- Sir Edwin Landseer Lutyens was crucial in the design and construction of New Delhi, which would eventually serve as the seat of the Government of India. New Delhi is often known as “Lutyens’ Delhi” in honour of his contribution. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- He was also the major architect of various landmarks in New Delhi, including the India Gate, which he created in partnership with Sir Herbert Baker; he also designed Viceroy’s House, which is now known as the Rashtrapati Bhavan.
- During the Delhi phase of his India journey in 1921, the Duke of Connaught, together with Prince Arthur and Strathearn, laid the groundwork for Parliament House. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- The Indian parliament building is reported to be built on the Chausath Yogini temple in Madhya Pradesh. (NOT Rajasthan) Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Category: HistoryWith reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements:
- Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the sects of Jainism.
- Sarvastivadin held that the constituents of phenomena were not wholly momentary, but existed forever in a latent form.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Buddhist sects include the Sautrantikas and Sammtiyas. The term “Sautrantika” refers to a sutra-follower. Sautrantika is often regarded as another school of Buddhism that arose inside the Sarvastivada sect. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
- Sarvastivadin believes that everything empirical is ephemeral, but that the dharma components are eternally persistent realities. This Buddhist group believes that all things exist and will continue to exist in the past, future, and present.
- Hence Statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
- Buddhist sects include the Sautrantikas and Sammtiyas. The term “Sautrantika” refers to a sutra-follower. Sautrantika is often regarded as another school of Buddhism that arose inside the Sarvastivada sect. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
- Sarvastivadin believes that everything empirical is ephemeral, but that the dharma components are eternally persistent realities. This Buddhist group believes that all things exist and will continue to exist in the past, future, and present.
- Hence Statement 2 is correct.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Category: G KConsider the following statements with regards to India’s Republic Day parade:
- No Central Asian leader has ever been the chief guest at India’s Republic Day parade.
- 10 leaders from ASEAN nations were invited to India’s Republic Day parade as guests in 2016.
- A beating retreat ceremony signifies the beginning of the parade.
Which of these statements is/are not correct?
Correct
- Kazakhstan’s former President Nursultan Nazarbayev was the chief guest in 2009 for India’s republic day parade.
- 10 leaders from ASEAN nations were invited to India’s Republic Day parade as guests in 2018.
- A beating retreat ceremony signifies the end of the parade.
Incorrect
- Kazakhstan’s former President Nursultan Nazarbayev was the chief guest in 2009 for India’s republic day parade.
- 10 leaders from ASEAN nations were invited to India’s Republic Day parade as guests in 2018.
- A beating retreat ceremony signifies the end of the parade.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Category: Current AffairsConsider the following statements with regards to the UNCLOS:
- UNCLOS is the only international convention that stipulates a framework for state jurisdiction in maritime spaces.
- The territorial sea extends seaward up to 24 nautical miles (nm) from its baselines.
- Exclusive Economic Zone does not give a coastal state the right to prohibit or limit freedom of navigation or overflight, subject to very limited exceptions.
Choose the correct statements:
Correct
- The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, also called the Law of the Sea Convention, is an international agreement that establishes a legal framework for all marine and maritime activities. It lays down a comprehensive regime of law and order in the world’s oceans and seas establishing rules governing all uses of the oceans and their resources.
- The territorial sea extends seaward up to 12 nautical miles (nm) from its baselines.
- Exclusive Economic Zone does not give a coastal state the right to prohibit or limit freedom of navigation or overflight, subject to very limited exceptions. It only grants it the right to make use of the natural resources available in the region.
Incorrect
- The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, also called the Law of the Sea Convention, is an international agreement that establishes a legal framework for all marine and maritime activities. It lays down a comprehensive regime of law and order in the world’s oceans and seas establishing rules governing all uses of the oceans and their resources.
- The territorial sea extends seaward up to 12 nautical miles (nm) from its baselines.
- Exclusive Economic Zone does not give a coastal state the right to prohibit or limit freedom of navigation or overflight, subject to very limited exceptions. It only grants it the right to make use of the natural resources available in the region.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Category: PolityWho amongst the following is/are not a part of the collegium that recommends the appointment of judges in the Supreme Court to the President?
- Prime Minister
- Chief Justice of India
- Union Law Minister
- 4th senior-most judge of the Supreme Court
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Collegium system is a system under which appointments and transfers of judges are decided by a forum of the Chief Justice of India and the four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court.
Incorrect
- Collegium system is a system under which appointments and transfers of judges are decided by a forum of the Chief Justice of India and the four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Category: PolityWhich amongst the following motions are moved against a member of Parliament for disregarding their rights and immunities granted to them so that they can effectively discharge their duties?
Correct
- All Members of Parliament (MPs) enjoy rights and immunities, individually and collectively, so that they can discharge their duties and functions effectively. Any instance when these rights and immunities are disregarded by any member of Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha is an offence, called ‘breach of privilege’, which is punishable under the Laws of Parliament.
- Any member from either house can move a notice in the form of a motion against the member who he/she thinks is guilty of the breach of privilege. Both Houses of the Parliament reserve the right to punish any action of contempt (not necessarily breach of privilege) which is against its authority and dignity, as per the laws.
Incorrect
- All Members of Parliament (MPs) enjoy rights and immunities, individually and collectively, so that they can discharge their duties and functions effectively. Any instance when these rights and immunities are disregarded by any member of Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha is an offence, called ‘breach of privilege’, which is punishable under the Laws of Parliament.
- Any member from either house can move a notice in the form of a motion against the member who he/she thinks is guilty of the breach of privilege. Both Houses of the Parliament reserve the right to punish any action of contempt (not necessarily breach of privilege) which is against its authority and dignity, as per the laws.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Category: PolityThe Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the
Correct
- The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the Banks Board Bureau (BBB) and appointed by the Finance Ministry. On the recommendation of the BBB, the Appointment Committee of Cabinet takes the final decision.
Incorrect
- The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the Banks Board Bureau (BBB) and appointed by the Finance Ministry. On the recommendation of the BBB, the Appointment Committee of Cabinet takes the final decision.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regards to the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution:
- The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution provides for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram to safeguard the rights of the tribal population in these states.
- The Sixth Schedule establishes Tribal Advisory Councils in these states.
- The Sixth Schedule was originally intended for the predominantly tribal areas (tribal population over 90%) of undivided Assam, which was categorised as “excluded areas” under the Government of India Act, 1935 and was under the direct control of the Governor.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Correct
- The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution provides for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram to safeguard the rights of the tribal population in these states. This special provision is provided under Article 244(2) and Article 275(1) of the Constitution.
- The Sixth Schedule was originally intended for the predominantly tribal areas (tribal population over 90%) of undivided Assam.
- The Sixth Schedule provides for the formation of autonomous district councils while the Fifth Schedule provides for Tribal Advisory Councils in the fifth schedule areas.
Incorrect
- The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution provides for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram to safeguard the rights of the tribal population in these states. This special provision is provided under Article 244(2) and Article 275(1) of the Constitution.
- The Sixth Schedule was originally intended for the predominantly tribal areas (tribal population over 90%) of undivided Assam.
- The Sixth Schedule provides for the formation of autonomous district councils while the Fifth Schedule provides for Tribal Advisory Councils in the fifth schedule areas.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements with regards to Hypersonic technology:
- Hypersonic speeds refer to 3 or more times the Mach or speed of sound.
- Most hypersonic vehicles primarily use scramjet technology, which is a type of Air Breathing Propulsion System.
- DRDO has successfully flight-tested the Hypersonic Technology Demonstrator Vehicle (HSTDV), with the capability to travel at 6 times the speed of sound.
Choose the correct statements:
Correct
- Hypersonic speeds refer to 5 or more times the Mach or speed of sound.
Incorrect
- Hypersonic speeds refer to 5 or more times the Mach or speed of sound.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Category: HistoryWho amongst the following was the Chairman of the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas of the Constituent Assembly?
Correct
- The Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas was headed by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
Incorrect
- The Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas was headed by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regards to the Draft Food Safety and Standards (Labelling And Display) Regulations:
- The front of all packaged food items will have to display the total number of calories, saturated and trans fats, salt, and added sugar content as well as the proportion of the daily energy needs fulfilled by the food item.
- FSSAI has changed the symbol of vegetarian food from a green circle to a green triangle to help colour blind people distinguish it from the brown circle denoting non-vegetarian food.
- If the total amounts of calories, fats, trans-fats, sugar, and sodium per serving exceed the stipulated limits, it would be indicated in red colour.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- The front of all packaged food items will have to display the total number of calories, saturated and trans fats, salt, and added sugar content as well as the proportion of the daily energy needs fulfilled by the food item. If the total amounts of calories, fats, trans-fats, sugar, and sodium per serving exceed the stipulated limits, it would be indicated in red colour.
- FSSAI has changed the symbol of vegetarian food from a green circle to a green triangle.
Incorrect
- The front of all packaged food items will have to display the total number of calories, saturated and trans fats, salt, and added sugar content as well as the proportion of the daily energy needs fulfilled by the food item. If the total amounts of calories, fats, trans-fats, sugar, and sodium per serving exceed the stipulated limits, it would be indicated in red colour.
- FSSAI has changed the symbol of vegetarian food from a green circle to a green triangle.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Category: EconomyWhich of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?
Correct
- Participatory notes also referred to as P-Notes are financial instruments required by investors or hedge funds to invest in Indian securities without having to register with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
Incorrect
- Participatory notes also referred to as P-Notes are financial instruments required by investors or hedge funds to invest in Indian securities without having to register with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Category: Art and CultureThe famous Sri Ramna Kali temple is in which of the following nations?
Correct
- Sri Ramna Kali temple is situated in Bangaldesh.
- This temple was destroyed by the Pakistani forces during the 1971 war. In a symbolic gesture, the Indian President will inaugurate the refurbished temple.
Incorrect
- Sri Ramna Kali temple is situated in Bangaldesh.
- This temple was destroyed by the Pakistani forces during the 1971 war. In a symbolic gesture, the Indian President will inaugurate the refurbished temple.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Category: Art and CultureConsider the following traditions and choose the ones which have been recognized by UNESCO as part of India’s intangible cultural heritage:
- Yoga
- Kumbh Mela
- Tradition of Vedic chanting
- Nowruz
- Durga Puja
Choose the correct statements:
Correct
- The following have been recognized as part of India’s intangible cultural heritage by UNESCO:
- Kutiyattam
- Vedic chanting
- Ramlila
- Ramman
- Chhau dance
- Kalbelia dance
- Mudiyettu
- Durga puja in Kolkata
- Buddhist chanting in Ladakh
- Sankirtana
- Traditional craft of thateras
- Nawrouz
- Kumbh mela
Incorrect
- The following have been recognized as part of India’s intangible cultural heritage by UNESCO:
- Kutiyattam
- Vedic chanting
- Ramlila
- Ramman
- Chhau dance
- Kalbelia dance
- Mudiyettu
- Durga puja in Kolkata
- Buddhist chanting in Ladakh
- Sankirtana
- Traditional craft of thateras
- Nawrouz
- Kumbh mela
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Category: Defence & SecurityRustom II, developed by the DRDO is
Correct
- Rustom II is an unmanned aerial vehicle or Drone.
- It is a Medium Altitude Long Endurance unmanned air vehicle (UAV) being developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation for the three services, Indian Army, Indian Navy and the Indian Air Force of the Indian Armed Forces.
Incorrect
- Rustom II is an unmanned aerial vehicle or Drone.
- It is a Medium Altitude Long Endurance unmanned air vehicle (UAV) being developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation for the three services, Indian Army, Indian Navy and the Indian Air Force of the Indian Armed Forces.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Category: SchemesWhich of these schemes is/are correctly matched with the States where they are operating?
Scheme State
- SAHAY Chhattisgarh
- KALIA Odisha
- Saras Suraksha Kavach Rajasthan
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- SAHAY scheme of the state of Jharkhand focuses on the development of sports.
- KALIA scheme is a package for farmer’s welfare. KALIA stands for “Krushak Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation”. This scheme has been launched by Odisha Government to accelerate Agricultural Prosperity and reduce poverty in the State.
- Saras Suraksha Kavachis a scheme of the state of Rajasthan. It provides dairy farmers an insurance cover.
Incorrect
- SAHAY scheme of the state of Jharkhand focuses on the development of sports.
- KALIA scheme is a package for farmer’s welfare. KALIA stands for “Krushak Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation”. This scheme has been launched by Odisha Government to accelerate Agricultural Prosperity and reduce poverty in the State.
- Saras Suraksha Kavachis a scheme of the state of Rajasthan. It provides dairy farmers an insurance cover.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Category: PolityWhich one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past? (UPSC 2019)
Correct
- Sarkaria Commission was set up in 1983 by the central government of India. The Sarkaria Commission’s charter was to examine the central-state relationship on various portfolios and suggest changes within the framework of the Constitution of India.
- One of the major suggestions of the commission was that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past.
Incorrect
- Sarkaria Commission was set up in 1983 by the central government of India. The Sarkaria Commission’s charter was to examine the central-state relationship on various portfolios and suggest changes within the framework of the Constitution of India.
- One of the major suggestions of the commission was that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past.
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements:
- Removal proceedings against a Judge of the Supreme Court or the High Court can be initiated in either House of Parliament
- A Judge may be removed from office through a motion adopted by Parliament on grounds of ‘proven misbehavior or unsound mind’.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
- Article 124(4) of the Constitution of India lays down the procedure for impeachment of judges. A Judge of the Supreme Court must be removed from his office by order of the President. Such an order needs the approval of both the Houses of Parliament. Removal proceedings against a Judge of the Supreme Court or the High Court can be initiated in either House of Parliament.
- For this, a notice of a motion to remove the judge has to be signed,
- If emanating from the Lok Sabha, by not less than one hundred members,
- If emanating from the Rajya Sabha, by not less than fifty members.
- A judge may be removed from office through a motion adopted by Parliament on grounds of ‘proven misbehaviour or incapacity’.
Incorrect
- Article 124(4) of the Constitution of India lays down the procedure for impeachment of judges. A Judge of the Supreme Court must be removed from his office by order of the President. Such an order needs the approval of both the Houses of Parliament. Removal proceedings against a Judge of the Supreme Court or the High Court can be initiated in either House of Parliament.
- For this, a notice of a motion to remove the judge has to be signed,
- If emanating from the Lok Sabha, by not less than one hundred members,
- If emanating from the Rajya Sabha, by not less than fifty members.
- A judge may be removed from office through a motion adopted by Parliament on grounds of ‘proven misbehaviour or incapacity’.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Category: Current AffairsWith reference to Silverline Rail Project, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- The project would be a vital link between Mumbai and Thiruvananthapuram
- It is exclusively for transporting freight at higher speed with increased load-carrying capacity
Options:
Correct
- SilverLine Project is a Semi High-Speed Rail between Thiruvananthapuram and Kasaragod. It is being planned as a mode of public transportation. SilverLine will bring remarkable changes in local commute, by improving the travel time and quality of transportation.
Incorrect
- SilverLine Project is a Semi High-Speed Rail between Thiruvananthapuram and Kasaragod. It is being planned as a mode of public transportation. SilverLine will bring remarkable changes in local commute, by improving the travel time and quality of transportation.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Category: PolityWhich of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Protection of Children from Sexual Offenses (POCSO) Act?
- Burden of proof in POCSO cases lies on the accused.
- POSCO is a gender-neutral law
Options:
Correct
- Usually, in criminal cases, the burden of proof lies on the prosecution, and the guilt must be proved beyond reasonable doubt. However, under POCSO, Burden of proof lies on the accused.
- POCSO is gender neutral, meaning that crimes of this nature committed against children will be handled by this act regardless of the gender of the child.
Incorrect
- Usually, in criminal cases, the burden of proof lies on the prosecution, and the guilt must be proved beyond reasonable doubt. However, under POCSO, Burden of proof lies on the accused.
- POCSO is gender neutral, meaning that crimes of this nature committed against children will be handled by this act regardless of the gender of the child.
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Category: SchemesWith respect to National Career Services (NCS) Project, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is a Mission Mode Project launched by the Ministry of Education to bridge the gap between those who need jobs and those who want to hire them
- NCS does not charge any fees for registration on the portal and its services
Options:
Correct
- National Career Service Project (NCS) is a mission mode project under the Ministry of Labour and Employment that provides a host of career-related services. It aims to bridge the gap between those who need jobs and those who want to hire them.
- It does not charge any fees for registration on the portal and its services.
Incorrect
- National Career Service Project (NCS) is a mission mode project under the Ministry of Labour and Employment that provides a host of career-related services. It aims to bridge the gap between those who need jobs and those who want to hire them.
- It does not charge any fees for registration on the portal and its services.
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Category: GeographyWhich of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar?
Correct
- Among the four options, Sumatra is closest to Great Nicobar.
- Sumatra island lies to the south of Great Nicobar.
Incorrect
- Among the four options, Sumatra is closest to Great Nicobar.
- Sumatra island lies to the south of Great Nicobar.
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Category: PolityWhich amongst the following writs can be issued against a private individual?
- Habeas corpus
- Mandamus
- Prohibition
Options:
Correct
- ‘Habeas Corpus’ means ‘to have a body of’. This writ, which is used to free someone who has been wrongfully detained, can be issued against any private individual. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The term ‘mandamus’ which means ‘we command’ can be issued against a public officer, a public company, a tribunal, an inferior court, or the government. It cannot be issued against a private person or entity, the President or Governors of States, or a Chief Justice. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- A court may issue a writ of prohibition to prevent lower courts, tribunals, and other quasi-judicial institutions from acting outside of their power. It cannot be used against a private person or entity. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
- ‘Habeas Corpus’ means ‘to have a body of’. This writ, which is used to free someone who has been wrongfully detained, can be issued against any private individual. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The term ‘mandamus’ which means ‘we command’ can be issued against a public officer, a public company, a tribunal, an inferior court, or the government. It cannot be issued against a private person or entity, the President or Governors of States, or a Chief Justice. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- A court may issue a writ of prohibition to prevent lower courts, tribunals, and other quasi-judicial institutions from acting outside of their power. It cannot be used against a private person or entity. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
-
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Category: PolityThe writ of habeas corpus cannot be issued in which of the following cases?
- When the detention is outside the jurisdiction of the court
- When the proceeding is for the contempt of a legislature or a court
- When the detention is lawful
Options:
Correct
- A writ of Habeas Corpus is a command issued by a court with the competent authority to anybody holding a person in custody or detention.
- This writ covers all forms of imprisonment that are used illegally or in an unapproved way or to an unapproved degree.
- Habeas Corpus cannot be used in the following situations:
- When detention is legal, Habeas Corpus cannot be issued.
- It is also not stated if the detention or action is for contempt or a violation of a legislative provision.
- If the detention is ordered by the High Court or the Supreme Court, this writ cannot be issued.
- A Habeas Corpus writ cannot be granted if the detention occurs outside of the court’s jurisdiction.
- Hence all statements are correct.
Incorrect
- A writ of Habeas Corpus is a command issued by a court with the competent authority to anybody holding a person in custody or detention.
- This writ covers all forms of imprisonment that are used illegally or in an unapproved way or to an unapproved degree.
- Habeas Corpus cannot be used in the following situations:
- When detention is legal, Habeas Corpus cannot be issued.
- It is also not stated if the detention or action is for contempt or a violation of a legislative provision.
- If the detention is ordered by the High Court or the Supreme Court, this writ cannot be issued.
- A Habeas Corpus writ cannot be granted if the detention occurs outside of the court’s jurisdiction.
- Hence all statements are correct.
-
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Category: International RelationsThe Order of the Druk Gyalpo was conferred to PM Modi by which amongst the following countries?
Correct
- Recently, Bhutan conferred the Order of the Druk Gyalpo honour on Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
- The Order of the Druk Gyalpo is the highest civilian honour of Bhutan.
- Hence Option B is correct.
Incorrect
- Recently, Bhutan conferred the Order of the Druk Gyalpo honour on Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
- The Order of the Druk Gyalpo is the highest civilian honour of Bhutan.
- Hence Option B is correct.
-
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Category: International RelationsWhich of the following countries are not parties to United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (UNCBD)?
- USA
- China
- India
- Somalia
- Mexico
Options:
Correct
- The Convention on Biological Diversity, also known as the United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity, is a multilateral convention that was signed during the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro in 1992.
- It is a part of the UNEP (United Nations Environment Programme).
- The CBD is signed by 196 nations. The CBD convention is not ratified by the United States. The United States is the only UN member state that has not done so.
- Hence Option A is correct.
Incorrect
- The Convention on Biological Diversity, also known as the United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity, is a multilateral convention that was signed during the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro in 1992.
- It is a part of the UNEP (United Nations Environment Programme).
- The CBD is signed by 196 nations. The CBD convention is not ratified by the United States. The United States is the only UN member state that has not done so.
- Hence Option A is correct.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Category: PolityWho amongst the following require the approval of National Biodiversity Authority to undertake Biodiversity related activities?
- Non-resident Indian
- A body corporate, association or organisation- not incorporated or registered in India
- A body corporate, association or organisation – incorporated or registered in India under any law for the time being in force which has any non-Indian participation in its share capital or management.
Options:
Correct
- The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established by the Central Government in 2003 to implement India’s Biological Diversity Act (2002). The NBA is a statutory body that serves the Indian government by providing facilitative, regulatory, and consultative services.
- The following persons/entities seeking access to biological resources occurring in India, shall have to seek prior approval from the National Biodiversity Authority:
- Non-Indian Individual;
- Any company, society, trust, organisation, association, institution, etc., registered or incorporated outside India;
- A Non-Resident Indian;
- Any company, society, trust, organisation, association, institution, etc., registered or incorporated in India, having non-Indian participation in its share capital and/or management.
- Hence Option D is correct.
Incorrect
- The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established by the Central Government in 2003 to implement India’s Biological Diversity Act (2002). The NBA is a statutory body that serves the Indian government by providing facilitative, regulatory, and consultative services.
- The following persons/entities seeking access to biological resources occurring in India, shall have to seek prior approval from the National Biodiversity Authority:
- Non-Indian Individual;
- Any company, society, trust, organisation, association, institution, etc., registered or incorporated outside India;
- A Non-Resident Indian;
- Any company, society, trust, organisation, association, institution, etc., registered or incorporated in India, having non-Indian participation in its share capital and/or management.
- Hence Option D is correct.
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