UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Jul 15 – Jul 21 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from Jul 15 – Jul 21 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.
Post your scores in the comment section below!
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UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Jul 15 – Jul 21
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Category: Defence & SecurityConsider the following statements about Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) (Level – Medium)
- It is India’s largest central armed police force.
- It functions under the authority of the Ministry of Home Affairs of the government of India.
- Rapid Action Force, Commando Battalion for Resolute Action and National Security Guard are specialized units of the CRPF.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, CRPF is India’s largest Central Armed Police Force.
- Statement 2 is correct, CRPF operates under the authority of the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
- Statement 3 is not correct, National Security Guard (NSG) is a specialized unit under Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF).
- Specialized units of the CRPF include:
- Commando Battalion for Resolute Action (CoBRA)
- Special Duty Group
- Parliament Duty Group
- Rapid Action Force (RAF)
- Specialized units of the CRPF include:
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, CRPF is India’s largest Central Armed Police Force.
- Statement 2 is correct, CRPF operates under the authority of the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
- Statement 3 is not correct, National Security Guard (NSG) is a specialized unit under Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF).
- Specialized units of the CRPF include:
- Commando Battalion for Resolute Action (CoBRA)
- Special Duty Group
- Parliament Duty Group
- Rapid Action Force (RAF)
- Specialized units of the CRPF include:
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with respect to Warehousing (Development and Regulation) Act of 2007 (Level – Difficult)
- The registration of warehouses with the Warehousing Development and Regulation Authority is optional.
- Captive warehouses such as the ones of Food Corporation of India also come under the ambit of the act.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, According to the Warehousing (Development and Regulation) Act of 2007, the registration of warehouses with the Warehousing Development and Regulation Authority is optional at present.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The Warehousing Development and Regulation Authority ensures scientific storage by prescribing infrastructural and procedural standards. However, captive warehouses such as the Food Corporation of India (FCI) are excluded from the ambit of the Act.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, According to the Warehousing (Development and Regulation) Act of 2007, the registration of warehouses with the Warehousing Development and Regulation Authority is optional at present.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The Warehousing Development and Regulation Authority ensures scientific storage by prescribing infrastructural and procedural standards. However, captive warehouses such as the Food Corporation of India (FCI) are excluded from the ambit of the Act.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Category: AgricultureWhich of the following statements is/are correct with respect to millet cultivation in India? (Level – Difficult)
- India accounts for over 50% of global millet production.
- India’s average yield of millets is higher than the global average yield.
- Finger millet accounts for the largest share of millets crop grown in India.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, India is a major producer of Millets, accounting for 80% of Asia’s production and 20% of global production.
- Statement 2 is correct, India’s average yield of Millets (1239 kg/hectare) is higher than the global average yield (1229 kg/hectare).
- Statement 3 is not correct, Major Millets grown in India are
- Pearl Millet (Bajra) – 61% share
- Jowar (Sorghum) – 27%
- Finger Millet (Mandua/Ragi) – 10%
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, India is a major producer of Millets, accounting for 80% of Asia’s production and 20% of global production.
- Statement 2 is correct, India’s average yield of Millets (1239 kg/hectare) is higher than the global average yield (1229 kg/hectare).
- Statement 3 is not correct, Major Millets grown in India are
- Pearl Millet (Bajra) – 61% share
- Jowar (Sorghum) – 27%
- Finger Millet (Mandua/Ragi) – 10%
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Category: EconomyWhich of the following statement/s is/are correct with respect to tea exports from India? (Level – Medium)
- India is the largest exporter of tea globally.
- Green tea accounts for the largest share of tea exports from India.
- Russia is the largest importer of Indian tea, followed by Iran.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, China is the largest exporter of tea globally.
- India is among the top 5 tea exporters in the world.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The majority of the tea exported out of India is black tea followed by Regular tea, Green tea, Herbal tea, Masala tea and Lemon tea.
- Statement 3 is correct, Russia is the largest importer of Indian tea, followed by Iran.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, China is the largest exporter of tea globally.
- India is among the top 5 tea exporters in the world.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The majority of the tea exported out of India is black tea followed by Regular tea, Green tea, Herbal tea, Masala tea and Lemon tea.
- Statement 3 is correct, Russia is the largest importer of Indian tea, followed by Iran.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Category: PolityWith reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following? (Level – Easy) PYQ (2019)
Correct
- Article 142 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court’s verdicts and rulings to be enforced. It stipulates that in the performance of its jurisdiction, the top court may issue any verdict or order necessary to provide “complete justice” in just about any case before it.
- Such Supreme Court orders are enforceable across India, as provided by any statute enacted by Parliament or by the executive order of the President of India.
Incorrect
- Article 142 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court’s verdicts and rulings to be enforced. It stipulates that in the performance of its jurisdiction, the top court may issue any verdict or order necessary to provide “complete justice” in just about any case before it.
- Such Supreme Court orders are enforceable across India, as provided by any statute enacted by Parliament or by the executive order of the President of India.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements: (Level – Difficult)
- In the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, the Speaker and Chairman have the power to suspend a member either through a motion or by themselves.
- Article 124 of the Constitution says parliamentary proceedings cannot be questioned before a court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, In the Lok Sabha, Rules 374 and 374(A) of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business give the Speaker the power to suspend a member either through a motion or by themselves.
- However, the Rajya Sabha Chairman does not have the power to suspend a Member and can only suspend a member through a motion.
- Statement 2 is not correct, Article 122 of the Constitution says that the validity of any proceedings in Parliament shall not be called in question on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, In the Lok Sabha, Rules 374 and 374(A) of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business give the Speaker the power to suspend a member either through a motion or by themselves.
- However, the Rajya Sabha Chairman does not have the power to suspend a Member and can only suspend a member through a motion.
- Statement 2 is not correct, Article 122 of the Constitution says that the validity of any proceedings in Parliament shall not be called in question on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Category: SchemesWhich of the following are the initiatives for the welfare and upliftment of the minority Communities? (Level – Medium)
- Hamari Darohar
- Nai Manzil
- Nai Udaan
- Naya Savera
- USTAAD
Options:
Correct
- USTAAD: The Scheme aims at upgrading Skills and Training in preservation of traditional Ancestral Arts/Crafts of minorities.
- Hamari Dharohar: The Scheme aims to preserve the rich heritage of minority communities in the context of Indian culture.
- Nai Manzil: A bridge course to bridge the academic and skill development gaps of the deeni Madrasa passouts with their mainstream counterparts.
- Nai Udaan: Support for students clearing Prelims conducted by Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), State Public Service Commission (PSC), Staff Selection Commission (SSC), etc
- Naya Savera: The Scheme aims to provide free coaching to students/candidates belonging to minority communities for qualifying in entrance examinations of technical/medical professional courses and various competitive examinations.
Incorrect
- USTAAD: The Scheme aims at upgrading Skills and Training in preservation of traditional Ancestral Arts/Crafts of minorities.
- Hamari Dharohar: The Scheme aims to preserve the rich heritage of minority communities in the context of Indian culture.
- Nai Manzil: A bridge course to bridge the academic and skill development gaps of the deeni Madrasa passouts with their mainstream counterparts.
- Nai Udaan: Support for students clearing Prelims conducted by Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), State Public Service Commission (PSC), Staff Selection Commission (SSC), etc
- Naya Savera: The Scheme aims to provide free coaching to students/candidates belonging to minority communities for qualifying in entrance examinations of technical/medical professional courses and various competitive examinations.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Category: SchemesWith respect to Samudrayaan Mission, which of the following statements is/are incorrect? (Level – Difficult)
- It is India’s first manned ocean mission.
- The mission has the goal of sending men deep into the ocean in a submersible vehicle for deep-ocean exploration and rare mineral mining.
- It will carry 3 human beings to a water depth of 6000 meters in the ocean.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, Samudraya is India’s first manned ocean mission.
- Statement 2 is correct, The mission aims to send individuals into the deep sea in a submersible vehicle for deep-ocean exploration and mining of rare minerals.
- Statement 3 is correct, The mission will carry three individuals in a manned submersible vehicle named MATSYA 6000 to a depth of 6000 metres in the ocean.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, Samudraya is India’s first manned ocean mission.
- Statement 2 is correct, The mission aims to send individuals into the deep sea in a submersible vehicle for deep-ocean exploration and mining of rare minerals.
- Statement 3 is correct, The mission will carry three individuals in a manned submersible vehicle named MATSYA 6000 to a depth of 6000 metres in the ocean.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Category: GeographyConsider the following statements (Level – Difficult)
- This region is surrounded by the Gulf of Aqaba.
- Strait of Tiran connects two water bodies.
- Its coastlines touch the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea.
The country in question is:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Category: GeographyWhich one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert? (Level – Medium) PYQ (2022)
Correct
- Lake Faguibine in northern Mali is dry and has been since the 1970s.
- Erratic rainfall patterns due to climate change, sand dunes blocking parts of the channels, extensive use of water for large-scale irrigation and to produce hydropower, have combined to deprive Lake Faguibine of much needed water.
Incorrect
- Lake Faguibine in northern Mali is dry and has been since the 1970s.
- Erratic rainfall patterns due to climate change, sand dunes blocking parts of the channels, extensive use of water for large-scale irrigation and to produce hydropower, have combined to deprive Lake Faguibine of much needed water.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Category: EconomyConsider the following statements with regards to the Indian Economy’s core sector: (Level – Easy)
- The eight core sectors are coal, crude oil, natural gas, refinery products, fertilizer, steel, cement and electricity.
- The eight core sector industries in decreasing order of their weightage: Refinery Products> Electricity> Steel> Coal> Crude Oil> Natural Gas> Cement> Fertilizers.
- At present, the base year of IIP is 2014-15.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statements 1 and 2 are correct, Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) refers to a production volume index that measures the collective and individual production performances of eight selected core industries.
- These industries are Natural Gas, Coal, Refinery Products, Crude Oil, Cement, Electricity, Steel, and Fertilizers.
- Statement 3 is incorrect, the base year of IIP is 2011-12.
Incorrect
- Statements 1 and 2 are correct, Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) refers to a production volume index that measures the collective and individual production performances of eight selected core industries.
- These industries are Natural Gas, Coal, Refinery Products, Crude Oil, Cement, Electricity, Steel, and Fertilizers.
- Statement 3 is incorrect, the base year of IIP is 2011-12.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Category: EconomyConsider the following statements with regards to India’s first bullion exchange — the India International Bullion Exchange (IIBX): (Level – Difficult)
- To become qualified jewellers in order to import gold through the IIBX, they would require a minimum net worth of Rs 25 crore and 90 per cent of the average annual turnover in the last three financial years through deals in goods categorized as precious metals.
- Apart from qualified jewellers, non-resident Indians and institutions will also be able to participate in the exchange after registering with the IFSCA (International Financial Services Centers Authority).
- For becoming a trading member at IIBX, a qualified jeweller may establish a branch or a subsidiary in IFSC (International Financial Services Centre) and apply to the IFSCA.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statements 1 and 2 are correct, Gold is tightly regulated in India and currently only nominated agencies and banks approved by the Reserve Bank of India can import gold and sell it to dealers and jewellers across the country.
- In order to become qualified jewellers to import gold through the IIBX, entities require a minimum net worth of Rs 25 crore and 90 per cent of the average annual turnover in the last 3 financial years through deals in goods categorized as precious metals.
- Non-resident Indians and Institutes can also participate in the exchange after registering with the IFSCA (International Financial Services Centers Authority).
- Statement 3 is correct, Jewelers can transact in IIBX only as a trading member or as clients of a trading member by establishing a branch in IFSC.
Incorrect
- Statements 1 and 2 are correct, Gold is tightly regulated in India and currently only nominated agencies and banks approved by the Reserve Bank of India can import gold and sell it to dealers and jewellers across the country.
- In order to become qualified jewellers to import gold through the IIBX, entities require a minimum net worth of Rs 25 crore and 90 per cent of the average annual turnover in the last 3 financial years through deals in goods categorized as precious metals.
- Non-resident Indians and Institutes can also participate in the exchange after registering with the IFSCA (International Financial Services Centers Authority).
- Statement 3 is correct, Jewelers can transact in IIBX only as a trading member or as clients of a trading member by establishing a branch in IFSC.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Category: G KConsider the following statements with regards to Commonwealth Games: (Level – Medium)
- Women’s International Cricket has been made a part of the 2022 Commonwealth games.
- The motto for the 2022 Commonwealth games is “Games for Everyone”.
- India’s best-ever performance at the Commonwealth games came in the 2010 edition hosted by India.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 2 is correct, 21st edition of the Commonwealth Games commenced in the city of Birmingham, United Kingdom with the theme, “Games for Everyone”.
- Statement 1 is correct, Women’s cricket tournament is included in the Games for the first time in this edition. The matches are being played as T20 Internationals.
- Statement 3 is correct, Overall at Commonwealth Games, India has won 503 medals – 181 golds, 173 silvers and 149 bronzes. The most successful individual Games were the 2010 edition, in New Delhi with 101 medals. The second-best was the 2002 Games in Manchester with 69 medals.
Incorrect
- Statement 2 is correct, 21st edition of the Commonwealth Games commenced in the city of Birmingham, United Kingdom with the theme, “Games for Everyone”.
- Statement 1 is correct, Women’s cricket tournament is included in the Games for the first time in this edition. The matches are being played as T20 Internationals.
- Statement 3 is correct, Overall at Commonwealth Games, India has won 503 medals – 181 golds, 173 silvers and 149 bronzes. The most successful individual Games were the 2010 edition, in New Delhi with 101 medals. The second-best was the 2002 Games in Manchester with 69 medals.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements with regards to National Tiger Conservation Authority: (Level – Easy)
- National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change.
- It was established in 2005 following the recommendations of the Tiger Task Force.
- The National Tiger Conservation Authority is set up under the chairmanship of the Prime Minister.
Choose the correct code:
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Category: EconomyWhich of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India? (Level – Easy)
Correct
Assets and Liabilities are defined as follows:
- The assets of the commercial bank are Investments, Cash in hand, Advances, Bills discounted and purchased, Loans
- While the liabilities are Capital and Reserves, Deposits, Borrowings, and other liabilities
- Therefore, option b is correct.
Incorrect
Assets and Liabilities are defined as follows:
- The assets of the commercial bank are Investments, Cash in hand, Advances, Bills discounted and purchased, Loans
- While the liabilities are Capital and Reserves, Deposits, Borrowings, and other liabilities
- Therefore, option b is correct.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Category: HistoryConsider the following statements with respect to Shaheed Udham Singh. (Level - Medium)
- He was part of the Ghadar Party.
- He assassinated Michael O’Dwyer, to avenge the killing of Lala Lajpat Rai.
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct- Udham Singh belonged to the Ghadar Party. Statement 2 is incorrect as he was known for assassinating Michael O’Dwyer, the former lieutenant governor of the Punjab in India, on 13 March 1940. The assassination was done in revenge for the Jallianwala Bagh massacre in Amritsar in 1919.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct- Udham Singh belonged to the Ghadar Party. Statement 2 is incorrect as he was known for assassinating Michael O’Dwyer, the former lieutenant governor of the Punjab in India, on 13 March 1940. The assassination was done in revenge for the Jallianwala Bagh massacre in Amritsar in 1919.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following pairs of elephant reserves and associated state. (Level- Medium)
Elephant reserve State
- Sonitpur Assam
- Intanki Nagaland
- Anamudi Tamil Nadu
- Srivilliputhur Andhra Pradesh
How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Correct
- Sonitpur Tiger reserve located in the eastern hill forest of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.
- Intanki Wildlife Sanctuary is home to varied wildlife, located in Kohima of Nagaland.
- Anamudi is a mountain located in Ernakulam district and Idukki district of the Indian state of Kerala. It is the highest peak in the Western Ghats and in South India.
- The Grizzled Squirrel Wildlife Sanctuary (GSWS), also known as Srivilliputhur Wildlife Sanctuary is in Tamil Nadu.
Incorrect
- Sonitpur Tiger reserve located in the eastern hill forest of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.
- Intanki Wildlife Sanctuary is home to varied wildlife, located in Kohima of Nagaland.
- Anamudi is a mountain located in Ernakulam district and Idukki district of the Indian state of Kerala. It is the highest peak in the Western Ghats and in South India.
- The Grizzled Squirrel Wildlife Sanctuary (GSWS), also known as Srivilliputhur Wildlife Sanctuary is in Tamil Nadu.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Category: HistoryWhich of the following statement/s is/are correct with respect to Santhal rebellion (1855-56)? (Medium)
- The revolt was spearheaded by the murmur brothers- Sidhu and Kanhu.
- The rebellion is also known as Ulgulan.
- The British created the Damin-i-koh district in the Santhal inhabitated areas after the rebellion to placate the Santhals.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct – on 30 June 1855, two Santal rebel leaders, Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu, mobilized roughly 60,000 Santhals and declared a rebellion against the East India Company .The basic purpose was to collect taxes by making and enforcing his own laws.
- Statement 2 is incorrect -The Ulgulan revolt was a 19th century tribal rebellion led by Birsa Munda. It took place in the region south of Ranchi in 1899-1900.
- Statement 3 is incorrect – Santhal Paragana was the area demarcated for Santhals by the British post the santhal rebellion.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct – on 30 June 1855, two Santal rebel leaders, Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu, mobilized roughly 60,000 Santhals and declared a rebellion against the East India Company .The basic purpose was to collect taxes by making and enforcing his own laws.
- Statement 2 is incorrect -The Ulgulan revolt was a 19th century tribal rebellion led by Birsa Munda. It took place in the region south of Ranchi in 1899-1900.
- Statement 3 is incorrect – Santhal Paragana was the area demarcated for Santhals by the British post the santhal rebellion.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements with respect to floating solar plants.
- Ramagundam floating Solar plant in Telangana is the largest such operating plant in India and also the largest in the world.
- The water body underneath the solar modules helps in maintaining their ambient temperature, thereby improving their efficiency and generation.
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct? (Medium)
Correct
- Statement 1 is incorrect- It is largest in India but not in the world.The largest is in China.
- Statement 2 is correct – The water body underneath the solar modules helps in maintaining their ambient temperature, thereby improving their efficiency and generation.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is incorrect- It is largest in India but not in the world.The largest is in China.
- Statement 2 is correct – The water body underneath the solar modules helps in maintaining their ambient temperature, thereby improving their efficiency and generation.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Category: SchemesThe Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of (Level- Easy)
Correct
The Service Area Approach (SAA) was introduced in April 1989, in order to bring about an orderly and planned development of rural and semi- urban areas of the country, was extended to all Indian scheduled commercial banks including Regional Rural Banks (RRBs).
Incorrect
The Service Area Approach (SAA) was introduced in April 1989, in order to bring about an orderly and planned development of rural and semi- urban areas of the country, was extended to all Indian scheduled commercial banks including Regional Rural Banks (RRBs).
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Category: GeographyWhich of the following are the examples of Residual Mountains? (Level- Medium)
- Aravalli
- Girnar hills
- Javadi hills
- Nilgiri hills
Options:
Correct
- Residual mountains are the remains of previously existing mountains that have been subjected to weathering and erosion for an extended period.
- They owe their current shape to erosion by glaciers, rivers, wind, etc
- Aravalli hills, Nilgiri Hills, Javadi hills, Girnar hills, Sierra of Spain are so[me of the examples of Residue mountains.
Read more on Mountain Formation
Incorrect
- Residual mountains are the remains of previously existing mountains that have been subjected to weathering and erosion for an extended period.
- They owe their current shape to erosion by glaciers, rivers, wind, etc
- Aravalli hills, Nilgiri Hills, Javadi hills, Girnar hills, Sierra of Spain are so[me of the examples of Residue mountains.
Read more on Mountain Formation
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Category: GeographyConsider the following statements with respect to Aravalli range: (Level-Easy)
- It acts as a major barrier preventing the spread of the desert
- The highest peak is Guru Shikhar
- All the rivers in Rajasthan originate from the slopes of the Aravalli range
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, Aravalli range acts as a barrier to check further spread of desertification to the east of Rajasthan and subsequently to Gangetic plains.
- Statement 02 is correct, Guru Shikhar is the highest peak of Aravalli with 1722 meters, located near Mount Abu.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, Chambal, the only perennial river of Rajasthan, originates from the Northern slopes of Vindhya Range
Read more on Aravalli Range here
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, Aravalli range acts as a barrier to check further spread of desertification to the east of Rajasthan and subsequently to Gangetic plains.
- Statement 02 is correct, Guru Shikhar is the highest peak of Aravalli with 1722 meters, located near Mount Abu.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, Chambal, the only perennial river of Rajasthan, originates from the Northern slopes of Vindhya Range
Read more on Aravalli Range here
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Category: International RelationsAl Najah is joint military training exercise between India and (Level-easy)
Correct
- It takes place between contingents of the Indian Army and the Royal Army of Oman.
- Fourth edition of Al Najah is set to take place at the Mahajan Field Firing Ranges, Rajasthan.
- Focus of fourth edition will be on Counter terrorism operations.
Incorrect
- It takes place between contingents of the Indian Army and the Royal Army of Oman.
- Fourth edition of Al Najah is set to take place at the Mahajan Field Firing Ranges, Rajasthan.
- Focus of fourth edition will be on Counter terrorism operations.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Category: GeographyWhich of the following is/are correctly matched? (Level-Difficult)
- Kerch Strait -Black Sea with the Sea of Azov
- Strait of Messina- Tyrrhenian Sea with the Ionian Sea
- Strait of Dover- North Sea with English Channel
Options:
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, The Kerch Strait is in Eastern Europe connecting Black Sea and the Sea of Azov separating the Crimean Kerch Peninsula in the west from the Taman Peninsula of Russia in the east.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, The Kerch Strait is in Eastern Europe connecting Black Sea and the Sea of Azov separating the Crimean Kerch Peninsula in the west from the Taman Peninsula of Russia in the east.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Category: International RelationsConsider the following statements: (Level-Difficult)(CSE-2022)
- Vietnam has been one of the fastest-growing economies in the world in recent years.
- Vietnam is led by a multi-party political system.
- Vietnam’s economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports.
- For a long time, Vietnam’s low labour costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global manufacturers.
- Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct. Economic reforms initiated in 1986, along with beneficial global trends, have helped Vietnam move from being one of the world’s poorest nations to a middle-income economy in one generation.
- Between 2002 and 2021, GDP per capita increased 3.6 times, reaching almost US$3,700.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. Vietnam is a one-party socialist republic.
- Statement 3 is correct: Vietnam’s export-led growth strategy and global integration are the major contributors in its growth and poverty reduction.
- Statement 4 is correct: By minimizing trade and foreign investment restrictions, Vietnam attracted several multinational companies. Along with this and its low wages, it became an attractive platform for manufacturing and exports.
- Statement 5 is incorrect: Vietnam has one of the most productive e-service sectors in the Indo-Pacific region but cannot be called the most productive e-service sector in the entire Indo-Pacific region.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct. Economic reforms initiated in 1986, along with beneficial global trends, have helped Vietnam move from being one of the world’s poorest nations to a middle-income economy in one generation.
- Between 2002 and 2021, GDP per capita increased 3.6 times, reaching almost US$3,700.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. Vietnam is a one-party socialist republic.
- Statement 3 is correct: Vietnam’s export-led growth strategy and global integration are the major contributors in its growth and poverty reduction.
- Statement 4 is correct: By minimizing trade and foreign investment restrictions, Vietnam attracted several multinational companies. Along with this and its low wages, it became an attractive platform for manufacturing and exports.
- Statement 5 is incorrect: Vietnam has one of the most productive e-service sectors in the Indo-Pacific region but cannot be called the most productive e-service sector in the entire Indo-Pacific region.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Category: HealthConsider the following statements about Lumpy skin disease. (Level – Difficult)
- Lumpy skin disease is a viral disease that affects cattle.
- There are no vaccines currently available against the disease.
- The mortality rates are above 90% in infected animals.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, Lumpy skin disease is a viral disease that causes prolonged morbidity in bovines such as cattle and buffaloes.
- Statement 2 is not correct, There are three licensed vaccines for the disease which include the lumpy skin disease virus (LSDV) Neethling vaccine, Kenyan sheep and goat pox (KSGP) O-180 strain vaccines and Gorgan goat pox (GTP) vaccine.
- Statement 3 is not correct, 10% mortality has been observed in LSD.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, Lumpy skin disease is a viral disease that causes prolonged morbidity in bovines such as cattle and buffaloes.
- Statement 2 is not correct, There are three licensed vaccines for the disease which include the lumpy skin disease virus (LSDV) Neethling vaccine, Kenyan sheep and goat pox (KSGP) O-180 strain vaccines and Gorgan goat pox (GTP) vaccine.
- Statement 3 is not correct, 10% mortality has been observed in LSD.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Category: International RelationsWhich of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Exercise Pitch Black? (Level – Medium)
- It is an annual multilateral air warfare training exercise hosted by the Royal Australian Air Force.
- India has been a participant in this exercise since its inception.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, Exercise Pitch Black is a biennial exercise hosted by the Australian Air Force.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The Indian Air Force (IAF) participated in the Pitch Black exercise for the first time in 2018.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, Exercise Pitch Black is a biennial exercise hosted by the Australian Air Force.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The Indian Air Force (IAF) participated in the Pitch Black exercise for the first time in 2018.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyIndia has signed and ratified which of the following? (Level – Difficult)
- Antarctic treaty
- Protocol on environment protection to the Antarctic treaty
- Convention on the conservation of Antarctic marine living resources
Options:
Correct
- India has signed and ratified:
- Antarctic Treaty in 1983
- Protocol on environment protection to the Antarctic treaty in 1998
- Convention on the conservation of Antarctic marine living resources in 1985
- Hence option d is correct.
Incorrect
- India has signed and ratified:
- Antarctic Treaty in 1983
- Protocol on environment protection to the Antarctic treaty in 1998
- Convention on the conservation of Antarctic marine living resources in 1985
- Hence option d is correct.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following provisions of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948: (Level – Medium)
- It prescribes fixing, reviewing and revising the minimum wages of even the migrant labourers employed in the scheduled employments.
- The concerned administration is mandated to revise the minimum rates of wages at intervals not exceeding five years.
Which of the above provisions are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, Minimum Wages Act, 1948 prescribes fixing, reviewing and revising the minimum wages of even the migrant labourers employed in the scheduled employments.
- Statement 2 is correct, The concerned administration is mandated to revise the minimum rates of wages at intervals not exceeding five years.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, Minimum Wages Act, 1948 prescribes fixing, reviewing and revising the minimum wages of even the migrant labourers employed in the scheduled employments.
- Statement 2 is correct, The concerned administration is mandated to revise the minimum rates of wages at intervals not exceeding five years.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Category: EconomyWhich of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly? (Level – Easy) PYQ (2019)
Correct
Participatory notes also referred to as P-Notes, or PNs, are financial instruments required by investors or hedge funds to invest in Indian securities without having to register with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). Hence option d is correct.
Incorrect
Participatory notes also referred to as P-Notes, or PNs, are financial instruments required by investors or hedge funds to invest in Indian securities without having to register with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). Hence option d is correct.
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