UPSC 2022: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Jun 11 – Jun 17 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from Jun 11 – Jun 17 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.
Post your scores in the comment section below!
UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Jun 11 - Jun 17
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UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Jun 11 – Jun 17
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Category: EconomyWith reference to Minimum Support Prices (MSP), which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
- They are announced by the Government of India at the end of the sowing season.
- MSP is fixed twice a year on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) and its recommendation is binding.
- MSP also covers commercial crops.
Options:
Correct
- The Minimum Support Price (MSP) is the rate at which the government purchases crops from farmers.
- They are announced by the Government of India at the beginning of the sowing season.
- MSP is fixed twice a year on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) and its recommendations are not binding and are only advisory in nature.
- MSP also covers commercial crops.
- MSPs cover:
- Cereals (paddy, wheat, maize, sorghum, pearl millet, barley and ragi)
- Pulses (gram, tur, moong, urad, lentil)
- Oilseeds (groundnut, rapeseed-mustard, soyabean, sesamum, sunflower, safflower, nigerseed)
- Commercial crops (copra, sugarcane, cotton and raw jute).
Incorrect
- The Minimum Support Price (MSP) is the rate at which the government purchases crops from farmers.
- They are announced by the Government of India at the beginning of the sowing season.
- MSP is fixed twice a year on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) and its recommendations are not binding and are only advisory in nature.
- MSP also covers commercial crops.
- MSPs cover:
- Cereals (paddy, wheat, maize, sorghum, pearl millet, barley and ragi)
- Pulses (gram, tur, moong, urad, lentil)
- Oilseeds (groundnut, rapeseed-mustard, soyabean, sesamum, sunflower, safflower, nigerseed)
- Commercial crops (copra, sugarcane, cotton and raw jute).
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Category: HistoryConsider the following pairs:
Name of the Paper/Journal Name of the Founder/Editor
- Young India Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
- Navjivan Sachindranath Sanyal
- Jugantar Barindra Kumar Ghosh and Bhupendranath Dutt
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Correct
- Young India was a weekly paper or journal in English published by Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi.
- Navjivan was also published by Mohandas Gandhi.
- Yugantar, the weekly magazine was started by Barindra Kumar Ghosh, and Bhupendranath Dutt.
Incorrect
- Young India was a weekly paper or journal in English published by Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi.
- Navjivan was also published by Mohandas Gandhi.
- Yugantar, the weekly magazine was started by Barindra Kumar Ghosh, and Bhupendranath Dutt.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following National Parks are in the state of Assam?
- Kaziranga National Park
- Dibru Saikhowa National Park
- Nameri National Park
- Orang National Park
- Dihing Patkai National Park
- Raimona National Park
Options:
Correct
There are 7 national parks in the state of Assam with Dihing Patkai recently being notified as a National Park.
National Parks in Assam are: Kaziranga, Manas, Nameri, Orang, Dibru-Saikhowa, Raimona and Dihing Patkai.Incorrect
There are 7 national parks in the state of Assam with Dihing Patkai recently being notified as a National Park.
National Parks in Assam are: Kaziranga, Manas, Nameri, Orang, Dibru-Saikhowa, Raimona and Dihing Patkai. -
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Category: EconomyConsider the following statements:
- Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is a member of the Alliance for Financial Inclusion (AFI).
- RBI has four deputy governors, two are from the outside and two from within the central bank.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is a member of the Alliance for Financial Inclusion (AFI).
- AFI is an international policy institute and public policy network that specializes in financial inclusion policy for the unbanked and underbanked population of the world.
- Institutions comprising central banks, financial regulatory institutions, and financial inclusion policymakers from 80 least developed and developing countries are its members.
- AFI is headquartered in Kuala Lumpur in Malaysia.
- As per the RBI Act, RBI should have four deputy governors – two from within the ranks (in RBI), one commercial banker and another economist to head the monetary policy department.
- Of the four deputy governors, two are from the outside and two from within the central bank.
Incorrect
- Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is a member of the Alliance for Financial Inclusion (AFI).
- AFI is an international policy institute and public policy network that specializes in financial inclusion policy for the unbanked and underbanked population of the world.
- Institutions comprising central banks, financial regulatory institutions, and financial inclusion policymakers from 80 least developed and developing countries are its members.
- AFI is headquartered in Kuala Lumpur in Malaysia.
- As per the RBI Act, RBI should have four deputy governors – two from within the ranks (in RBI), one commercial banker and another economist to head the monetary policy department.
- Of the four deputy governors, two are from the outside and two from within the central bank.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Category: HistoryWhich of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919? (UPSC 2012)
- Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces
- Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims
- Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
- The Government of India Act 1919 was an act of the British Parliament that sought to increase the participation of Indians in the administration of their country.
- The act was based on the recommendations of a report by Edwin Montagu, the then Secretary of State for India, and Lord Chelmsford, India’s Viceroy between 1916 and 1921. Hence the constitutional reforms set forth by this act are known as Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms.
- Dyarchy was introduced, i.e., there were two classes of administrators – Executive councillors and ministers.
- The subjects were divided into two lists – reserved and transferred.
- It provided for devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces.
- While the act extended consolidated and communal representation, the introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims was not provided for in the GOI Act 1919.
Incorrect
- The Government of India Act 1919 was an act of the British Parliament that sought to increase the participation of Indians in the administration of their country.
- The act was based on the recommendations of a report by Edwin Montagu, the then Secretary of State for India, and Lord Chelmsford, India’s Viceroy between 1916 and 1921. Hence the constitutional reforms set forth by this act are known as Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms.
- Dyarchy was introduced, i.e., there were two classes of administrators – Executive councillors and ministers.
- The subjects were divided into two lists – reserved and transferred.
- It provided for devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces.
- While the act extended consolidated and communal representation, the introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims was not provided for in the GOI Act 1919.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Category: PolityWhich of the following is/are correctly matched?
- Lily Thomas case: Issue of criminalization of politics
- I R Coelho case: ninth schedule items were open to judicial scrutiny
- Kihoto Hollohan case: disqualification of MPs and MLAs under Anti-Defection Law
Options:
Correct
- In the Lily Thomas case, the Supreme Court had struck down Section 8 (4) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 to disqualify a legislator immediately when convicted for two or more years’ prison. It dealt with the issue of the criminalization of politics.
- In the I R Coelho case, also known as the Ninth Schedule Case, the unanimous judgement delivered by a 9-judge bench led by Chief Justice Sabharwal upheld the validity of the Doctrine of Basic Structure propounded in the Kesavananda Bharti case.
- The Court upheld the power of the Judiciary to review any such law which in its opinion would in any way destroy the basic structure of the Constitution.
- As a result of this judgement, ninth schedule items were open to judicial scrutiny.
- In the Kihoto Hollohan case, a constitution bench of the Supreme Court analyzed the various provisions of the 52nd amendment of the Constitution which inserted the Tenth schedule (Anti-Defection Law).
Incorrect
- In the Lily Thomas case, the Supreme Court had struck down Section 8 (4) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 to disqualify a legislator immediately when convicted for two or more years’ prison. It dealt with the issue of the criminalization of politics.
- In the I R Coelho case, also known as the Ninth Schedule Case, the unanimous judgement delivered by a 9-judge bench led by Chief Justice Sabharwal upheld the validity of the Doctrine of Basic Structure propounded in the Kesavananda Bharti case.
- The Court upheld the power of the Judiciary to review any such law which in its opinion would in any way destroy the basic structure of the Constitution.
- As a result of this judgement, ninth schedule items were open to judicial scrutiny.
- In the Kihoto Hollohan case, a constitution bench of the Supreme Court analyzed the various provisions of the 52nd amendment of the Constitution which inserted the Tenth schedule (Anti-Defection Law).
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Category: PolityWith reference to Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is based on the Directive Principles, contained in Article 47 of the Indian Constitution.
- The central government can add or omit from the list of psychotropic substances and not the State Government.
Options:
Correct
- Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act is based on the Directive Principles, contained in Article 47 of the Indian Constitution.
- Article 47 of the Constitution is a Directive Principle which stipulates that the State shall endeavour to bring about prohibition of the consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health.
- The state governments do not have the power to add/remove/modify/omit from the list of psychotropic substances. Only the Central government has this power.
Incorrect
- Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act is based on the Directive Principles, contained in Article 47 of the Indian Constitution.
- Article 47 of the Constitution is a Directive Principle which stipulates that the State shall endeavour to bring about prohibition of the consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health.
- The state governments do not have the power to add/remove/modify/omit from the list of psychotropic substances. Only the Central government has this power.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Category: HistoryWhich one of the following statements best describes the Atlantic Charter?
Correct
- Atlantic Charter is a declaration signed by British Prime Minister Winston Churchill and U.S. President Franklin D. Roosevelt in August 1941 (during World War II), setting out common goals for the world after Second World War.
- Those goals included freer trade, disarmament and the right to self-determination of all people.
- It is often cited as a cornerstone of the trans-Atlantic “special relationship.”
- The charter laid the foundation for the United Nations and NATO.
Incorrect
- Atlantic Charter is a declaration signed by British Prime Minister Winston Churchill and U.S. President Franklin D. Roosevelt in August 1941 (during World War II), setting out common goals for the world after Second World War.
- Those goals included freer trade, disarmament and the right to self-determination of all people.
- It is often cited as a cornerstone of the trans-Atlantic “special relationship.”
- The charter laid the foundation for the United Nations and NATO.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements about CHIME:
- It is a network of radio antennas in the Netherlands, Germany, the UK, France, Sweden, Poland, Ireland and Italy, all connected by high-speed fiber optic cables.
- It is a superior instrument for observing the phenomenon of Fast Radio Bursts (FRBs).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Canadian Hydrogen Intensity Mapping Experiment (CHIME) is an interferometric radio telescope at the Dominion Radio Astrophysical Observatory in British Columbia, Canada.
CHIME comprises four massive cylindrical radio antennas operated by the National Research Council of Canada.
It is a superior instrument for observing the phenomenon of Fast Radio Bursts (FRBs).
The telescope has detected 535 new fast radio bursts in its first year of operation itself (2018-2019).Incorrect
Canadian Hydrogen Intensity Mapping Experiment (CHIME) is an interferometric radio telescope at the Dominion Radio Astrophysical Observatory in British Columbia, Canada.
CHIME comprises four massive cylindrical radio antennas operated by the National Research Council of Canada.
It is a superior instrument for observing the phenomenon of Fast Radio Bursts (FRBs).
The telescope has detected 535 new fast radio bursts in its first year of operation itself (2018-2019). -
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Category: International RelationsWith reference to ‘Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC)’, consider the following statements: (UPSC-2015)
- It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills.
- It is an alliance meant for maritime security only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- ‘Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC)’ was formerly known as the Indian Ocean Rim Initiative.
- It was established in Mauritius in March 1997 with the aim of promoting economic and technical cooperation.
- IOR-ARC is the only pan-Indian ocean grouping. It brings together countries from three continents – Asia, Australia and Africa.
- IOR-ARC alliance is meant for Maritime Safety and Security, Sustainable Development, Economic Co-operation and technological co-operation as well.
Incorrect
- ‘Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC)’ was formerly known as the Indian Ocean Rim Initiative.
- It was established in Mauritius in March 1997 with the aim of promoting economic and technical cooperation.
- IOR-ARC is the only pan-Indian ocean grouping. It brings together countries from three continents – Asia, Australia and Africa.
- IOR-ARC alliance is meant for Maritime Safety and Security, Sustainable Development, Economic Co-operation and technological co-operation as well.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Category: HistoryWith reference to Ram Prasad Bismil, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- He was associated with the Arya Samaj from an early age.
- In the initial phase of his life, he believed independence can be achieved by means of non-violence.
- He had participated in Mainpuri Conspiracy and Lahore Conspiracy.
Options:
Correct
- Ram Prasad Bismil was associated with the Arya Samaj from an early age. This had a profound influence on him.
- He believed that revolution only can bring independence to India. He did not believe in non-violent means to achieve independence.
- He had participated in the Mainpuri Conspiracy in 1918. However, he was not a part of the Lahore Conspiracy.
- Bismil is perhaps most remembered for the Kakori Conspiracy Case. He was the mastermind behind the plan which was to loot a train carrying government money. The incident occurred on 9th August 1925 at Kakori, near Lucknow.
Incorrect
- Ram Prasad Bismil was associated with the Arya Samaj from an early age. This had a profound influence on him.
- He believed that revolution only can bring independence to India. He did not believe in non-violent means to achieve independence.
- He had participated in the Mainpuri Conspiracy in 1918. However, he was not a part of the Lahore Conspiracy.
- Bismil is perhaps most remembered for the Kakori Conspiracy Case. He was the mastermind behind the plan which was to loot a train carrying government money. The incident occurred on 9th August 1925 at Kakori, near Lucknow.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with respect to National Green Tribunal (NGT):
- It is a specialized body equipped with the necessary expertise solely for the purpose of adjudicating environmental cases in the country.
- It not only helps in the speedy disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests but also provides compensation for damages to persons and property for matters connected to the environment.
- NGT will be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a specialized body equipped with the necessary expertise solely for the purpose of adjudicating environmental cases in the country.
- It not only helps in the speedy disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests but also provides compensation for damages to persons and property for matters connected to the environment.
- NGT is guided by the principles of Natural Justice. It is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure.
Incorrect
- National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a specialized body equipped with the necessary expertise solely for the purpose of adjudicating environmental cases in the country.
- It not only helps in the speedy disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests but also provides compensation for damages to persons and property for matters connected to the environment.
- NGT is guided by the principles of Natural Justice. It is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyEnVision recently seen in news is a/an
Correct
- EnVision is European Space Agency’s next Venus orbiter mission.
- It will be launched in 2030.
- Its aim is to provide a holistic view of the planet from its inner core to the upper atmosphere to determine how and why Venus and Earth evolved so differently.
Incorrect
- EnVision is European Space Agency’s next Venus orbiter mission.
- It will be launched in 2030.
- Its aim is to provide a holistic view of the planet from its inner core to the upper atmosphere to determine how and why Venus and Earth evolved so differently.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following are sources of Atmospheric Aerosols?
- Automobiles
- Power Plants
- Cigarettes
- Volcanic Eruptions
- Desert Storms
Options:
Correct
- Aerosols are minute particles that are suspended in the atmosphere.
- An aerosol is a suspension of fine solid particles or liquid droplets in air or another gas.
- Aerosols can be natural or anthropogenic.
- 90% of aerosols present in the atmosphere are natural.
- Automobiles, power plants, cigarettes, volcanic eruptions, desert storms are all sources of aerosols.
Incorrect
- Aerosols are minute particles that are suspended in the atmosphere.
- An aerosol is a suspension of fine solid particles or liquid droplets in air or another gas.
- Aerosols can be natural or anthropogenic.
- 90% of aerosols present in the atmosphere are natural.
- Automobiles, power plants, cigarettes, volcanic eruptions, desert storms are all sources of aerosols.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Category: HistoryRegarding the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements: (UPSC-2011)
- It was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element, though present, did not dominate the scene.
- During this period, cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Indus Valley Civilization was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element, though present, did not dominate the scene.
- During this period, cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India.
Incorrect
- Indus Valley Civilization was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element, though present, did not dominate the scene.
- During this period, cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Category: G KWhich of the following is/are correctly matched?
- Operation Blue Star: eliminate armed militants who were holed up in the Golden Temple.
- Operation Pawan: Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF’s) operation to wrest control of Jaffna from the Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE)
- Operation Vijay: Indian operation to push back the infiltrators from the Kargil Sector
- Operation Olivia: Indian armed forces ended the rule of the Nizam of Hyderabad
Options:
Correct
- The annual “Operation Olivia” by the Indian Coast Guard helps protect Olive Ridley turtles as they congregate along the Odisha coast for breeding and nesting.
- The Coast enforce laws near the rookeries Guard carries out round-the-clock surveillance from November till May utilizing Coast Guard assets and helps.
Incorrect
- The annual “Operation Olivia” by the Indian Coast Guard helps protect Olive Ridley turtles as they congregate along the Odisha coast for breeding and nesting.
- The Coast enforce laws near the rookeries Guard carries out round-the-clock surveillance from November till May utilizing Coast Guard assets and helps.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements with respect to Olive Ridleys:
- Olive Ridleys are found in Atlantic, Pacific, Arctic and Indian Ocean.
- The Olive Ridley is listed as vulnerable under the International Union for Conservation of Nature’s Red list.
- Coast of Odisha is the largest mass nesting site for them
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- The olive ridley sea turtle (Lepidochelys olivacea), also known commonly as the Pacific ridley sea turtle, is a species of turtle in the family Cheloniidae.
- The species is one of the most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world.
- It is primarily found in warm and tropical waters, primarily in the Pacific and Indian Oceans, but also in the warm waters of the Atlantic Ocean.
- The Olive Ridley is listed as vulnerable under the International Union for Conservation of Nature’s Red list.
- It is included in Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, and in the Appendix I of the Convention of International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora.
- The coast of Odisha is one of the largest mass nesting site for the Olive Ridley Turtles. There are three beaches along the Odisha coast including Gahirmatha, the mouth of the Devi river, and Rushikulya.
Incorrect
- The olive ridley sea turtle (Lepidochelys olivacea), also known commonly as the Pacific ridley sea turtle, is a species of turtle in the family Cheloniidae.
- The species is one of the most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world.
- It is primarily found in warm and tropical waters, primarily in the Pacific and Indian Oceans, but also in the warm waters of the Atlantic Ocean.
- The Olive Ridley is listed as vulnerable under the International Union for Conservation of Nature’s Red list.
- It is included in Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, and in the Appendix I of the Convention of International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora.
- The coast of Odisha is one of the largest mass nesting site for the Olive Ridley Turtles. There are three beaches along the Odisha coast including Gahirmatha, the mouth of the Devi river, and Rushikulya.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements:
- Coral reefs occur in shallow waters of the tropics.
- Only hard corals build reefs.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Given that Coral reefs need sunlight they occur in shallow waters. Reef-building corals require warm water conditions to survive.
- Soft corals are not capable of building reefs.
Incorrect
- Given that Coral reefs need sunlight they occur in shallow waters. Reef-building corals require warm water conditions to survive.
- Soft corals are not capable of building reefs.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyRecently, Bharitalasuchus tapani was in the news. What is it?
Correct
- The Yerrapalli Formation of the Pranhita-Godavari Basin in Telangana has had several fossils unearthed from it.
- One of the species identified includes a carnivorous reptile that lived 240 million years ago. It has been named Bharitalasuchus tapani. Studies have revealed that the reptile belonged to a family of extinct reptiles named Erythrosuchidae.
- The Bharitalasuchus tapani were robust animals with big heads and large teeth, and these probably predated other smaller reptiles. They were approximately the size of an adult male lion and might have been the largest predators in their ecosystems.
Incorrect
- The Yerrapalli Formation of the Pranhita-Godavari Basin in Telangana has had several fossils unearthed from it.
- One of the species identified includes a carnivorous reptile that lived 240 million years ago. It has been named Bharitalasuchus tapani. Studies have revealed that the reptile belonged to a family of extinct reptiles named Erythrosuchidae.
- The Bharitalasuchus tapani were robust animals with big heads and large teeth, and these probably predated other smaller reptiles. They were approximately the size of an adult male lion and might have been the largest predators in their ecosystems.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements:
- The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.
- The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the government of the state.
- The Chief Secretary in a State does not enjoy a fixed tenure.
Incorrect
- The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the government of the state.
- The Chief Secretary in a State does not enjoy a fixed tenure.
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyWith reference to Bhitarkanika National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is a national park in the State of Odisha.
- It is a Ramsar site.
Options:
Correct
- Bhitarkanika National Park is located in northeast Kendrapara district in Odisha in eastern India. It is also a Ramsar site.
- The national park and wildlife sanctuary is inundated by the rivers Brahmani, Baitarani, Dhamra, Pathsala. It hosts many mangrove species, and is the second-largest mangrove ecosystem in India.
- The national park is home to Saltwater crocodile (Crocodylus porosus), Indian python, king cobra, black ibis, darters and many other species of flora and fauna.
Incorrect
- Bhitarkanika National Park is located in northeast Kendrapara district in Odisha in eastern India. It is also a Ramsar site.
- The national park and wildlife sanctuary is inundated by the rivers Brahmani, Baitarani, Dhamra, Pathsala. It hosts many mangrove species, and is the second-largest mangrove ecosystem in India.
- The national park is home to Saltwater crocodile (Crocodylus porosus), Indian python, king cobra, black ibis, darters and many other species of flora and fauna.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements with respect to Pyrostria laljii:
- It is the first record of the genus Pyrostria in India.
- It belongs to the genus of the coffee family discovered from the Andaman Islands.
- Its IUCN status is endangered.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
A new species named Pyrostria laljii belonging to the genus of the coffee family has recently been discovered from the Andaman Islands.
The new species has been reported from the Wandoor forest in South Andaman.
It is also the first record of the genus Pyrostria in India.
Plants belonging to the genus Pyrostria are usually found in Madagascar.
Pyrostria laljii has been assessed as ‘Critically Endangered’ based on the International Union for Conservation of Nature’s (IUCN) Red List criteria.Incorrect
A new species named Pyrostria laljii belonging to the genus of the coffee family has recently been discovered from the Andaman Islands.
The new species has been reported from the Wandoor forest in South Andaman.
It is also the first record of the genus Pyrostria in India.
Plants belonging to the genus Pyrostria are usually found in Madagascar.
Pyrostria laljii has been assessed as ‘Critically Endangered’ based on the International Union for Conservation of Nature’s (IUCN) Red List criteria. -
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Category: HealthWhich of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Kawasaki disease?
- It is a rare viral zoonotic disease that occurs primarily in remote parts of central and west Africa, near tropical rainforests.
- It is mostly transmitted to people from various wild animals such as rodents and primates.
Options:
Correct
Kawasaki disease is a syndrome of unknown cause that results in a fever and mainly affects children under 5 years of age. It is a form of vasculitis, where blood vessels become inflamed throughout the body.
While the specific cause is unknown, it is thought to result from an excessive immune system response to an infection in children who are genetically predisposed. It does not spread between people.
Kawasaki disease affects people of Asian ethnicity, particularly Japanese people. The higher incidence in Asian populations is thought to be linked to genetic susceptibility.Incorrect
Kawasaki disease is a syndrome of unknown cause that results in a fever and mainly affects children under 5 years of age. It is a form of vasculitis, where blood vessels become inflamed throughout the body.
While the specific cause is unknown, it is thought to result from an excessive immune system response to an infection in children who are genetically predisposed. It does not spread between people.
Kawasaki disease affects people of Asian ethnicity, particularly Japanese people. The higher incidence in Asian populations is thought to be linked to genetic susceptibility. -
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Category: GeographyWhich of the following is/are rare earth minerals?
- Neodymium
- Selenium
- Praseodymium
- Dysprosium
- Uranium
- Thorium
Options:
Correct
- Rare earth metals are a group of 17 elements – lanthanum, cerium, praseodymium, neodymium, promethium, samarium, europium, gadolinium, terbium, dysprosium, holmium, erbium, thulium, ytterbium, lutetium, scandium, yttrium – that appear in low concentrations in the ground. They are lustrous silvery-white soft heavy metals.
- Although they are more abundant than their name implies, they are difficult and costly to mine and process cleanly.
Incorrect
- Rare earth metals are a group of 17 elements – lanthanum, cerium, praseodymium, neodymium, promethium, samarium, europium, gadolinium, terbium, dysprosium, holmium, erbium, thulium, ytterbium, lutetium, scandium, yttrium – that appear in low concentrations in the ground. They are lustrous silvery-white soft heavy metals.
- Although they are more abundant than their name implies, they are difficult and costly to mine and process cleanly.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Category: International RelationsThe “New START” treaty was in the news. What is this treaty? (UPSC 2011)
Correct
New START is a nuclear arms reduction treaty between the United States and the Russian Federation with the formal name of Measures for the Further Reduction and Limitation of Strategic Offensive Arms. It was signed in 2010 in Prague, and, after ratification, entered into force in 2011.
Incorrect
New START is a nuclear arms reduction treaty between the United States and the Russian Federation with the formal name of Measures for the Further Reduction and Limitation of Strategic Offensive Arms. It was signed in 2010 in Prague, and, after ratification, entered into force in 2011.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Category: HistoryTilak Swaraj Fund was started to fund which of the following movements?
Correct
- Tilak Swarajya Fund was started to fund the non-cooperation movement.
- It gathered over 1 crore rupees and was a part of the constructive agenda of the non-cooperation movement.
Incorrect
- Tilak Swarajya Fund was started to fund the non-cooperation movement.
- It gathered over 1 crore rupees and was a part of the constructive agenda of the non-cooperation movement.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Category: PolityWhich of the following statements is/are correct?
- The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) is a constitutional body.
- It is mandated to ensure that all laws, policies, programmes, and administrative mechanisms are in consonance with the Child Rights perspective as enshrined in the Constitution of India and the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.
- It has the powers to take suo-moto cognisance of serious cases of violation of child rights.
Options:-
Correct
The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) is a statutory body established in 2007 under the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005.
It is mandated to ensure that all laws, policies, programmes, and administrative mechanisms are in consonance with the Child Rights perspective as enshrined in the Constitution of India and the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.
For the Commission, the protection of all children in the 0 to 18 years age group is of equal importance.
It has the powers to take suo-moto cognisance of serious cases of violation of child rights.Incorrect
The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) is a statutory body established in 2007 under the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005.
It is mandated to ensure that all laws, policies, programmes, and administrative mechanisms are in consonance with the Child Rights perspective as enshrined in the Constitution of India and the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.
For the Commission, the protection of all children in the 0 to 18 years age group is of equal importance.
It has the powers to take suo-moto cognisance of serious cases of violation of child rights. -
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Category: GeographyWhich of the following statements is/are correct?
- Floating raft agriculture is a way of utilising areas that are waterlogged for long periods of time in the production of food.
- The approach employs a floating raft set up on bamboo frames and held together by coir geotextile with a bed of degraded water hyacinth or beds of rotting vegetation, which act as compost for crop growth.
- Floating raft farming is taken up as a measure of improving adaptability and resilience in the background of climate change.
Options:-
Correct
- Floating raft agriculture is a way of utilising areas that are waterlogged for long periods of time in the production of food.
- It employs an approach where a floating raft set up on bamboo frames and held together by coir geotextile with a bed of degraded water hyacinth or beds of rotting vegetation, which act as compost for crop growth.
- This form of farming is taken up as a measure of improving adaptability and resilience in the background of climate change.
Incorrect
- Floating raft agriculture is a way of utilising areas that are waterlogged for long periods of time in the production of food.
- It employs an approach where a floating raft set up on bamboo frames and held together by coir geotextile with a bed of degraded water hyacinth or beds of rotting vegetation, which act as compost for crop growth.
- This form of farming is taken up as a measure of improving adaptability and resilience in the background of climate change.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Category: GeographyWhat is the best description of the ‘Karman Line’?
Correct
- The Karman Line is an attempt to define a boundary between Earth’s atmosphere and outer space.
- It is an internationally recognised boundary of space.
- According to the Federation Aeronautique Internationale (FAI), it is at an altitude of 100 kilometres, or 62 miles, above sea level.
- The definition is based on a calculation by physicist Theodore von Karman that shows that around this point the atmosphere becomes too thin to support flight.
Incorrect
- The Karman Line is an attempt to define a boundary between Earth’s atmosphere and outer space.
- It is an internationally recognised boundary of space.
- According to the Federation Aeronautique Internationale (FAI), it is at an altitude of 100 kilometres, or 62 miles, above sea level.
- The definition is based on a calculation by physicist Theodore von Karman that shows that around this point the atmosphere becomes too thin to support flight.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Category: PolityRight to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement? (UPSC 2018)
Correct
Article 21 and freedom guaranteed in Part III implies that the Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty.
Incorrect
Article 21 and freedom guaranteed in Part III implies that the Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty.
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