UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Mar 04 – Mar 10 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from Mar 04 – Mar 10 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.
Post your scores in the comment section below!
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UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Mar 04 – Mar 10
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regards to Delimitation Commission:
- The Delimitation Commission is a high-level body set up by an act of the Parliament.
- It is appointed by the President of India.
- It works in tandem with the Election Commission of India.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct. The Delimitation Commission is a high-level body set up by the Parliament through the Delimitation Act.
- Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct. The Delimitation Commission is a high-level body set up by the Parliament through the Delimitation Act.
- Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following is/are amongst the Ramsar sites in India?
- Sultanpur National Park, Haryana
- Sunderbans Wetland, West Bengal
- Tsomoriri Lake, Ladakh
- Samaspur Bird Sanctuary, Uttar Pradesh
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- All the above sites are among Ramsar sites in India.
- The Khijadiya Bird Sanctuary in Gujarat and Bakhira Wildlife Sanctuary in Uttar Pradesh have been listed as Wetlands of International Importance by the Ramsar Convention recently.
Incorrect
- All the above sites are among Ramsar sites in India.
- The Khijadiya Bird Sanctuary in Gujarat and Bakhira Wildlife Sanctuary in Uttar Pradesh have been listed as Wetlands of International Importance by the Ramsar Convention recently.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Category: International RelationsAccording to the Indus Water Treaty of 1960, which of the following rivers were portioned/allocated to India?
- Jhelum
- Ravi
- Sutlej
- Indus
- Chenab
- Beas
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- The Indus Waters Treaty is a water-sharing agreement between India and Pakistan signed in 1960. It was brokered by the World Bank.
- The treaty spells out conditions for water-sharing of the River Indus and its five tributaries.
- India got control over the three eastern rivers, which are:
- Ravi
- Beas
- Sutlej
- Pakistan got control over the three western rivers, which are:
- Indus
- Chenab
- Jhelum
Incorrect
- The Indus Waters Treaty is a water-sharing agreement between India and Pakistan signed in 1960. It was brokered by the World Bank.
- The treaty spells out conditions for water-sharing of the River Indus and its five tributaries.
- India got control over the three eastern rivers, which are:
- Ravi
- Beas
- Sutlej
- Pakistan got control over the three western rivers, which are:
- Indus
- Chenab
- Jhelum
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Category: EconomyConsider the following statements with regards to EXIM Bank of India:
- The organization was established in 1982 under the Export-Import Bank of India Act 1981 as a purveyor of export credit.
- EXIM Bank is owned jointly by the Indian Government and RBI.
- It offers term loans to Indian companies for equity investments in their overseas joint ventures or wholly-owned subsidiaries.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct. The EXIM bank was established in 1982 under the Export-Import Bank of India Act 1981 as a purveyor of export credit. R.C. Shah was the bank’s first Chairman and Managing Director.
- Statement 2 is not correct. EXIM Bank is a wholly-owned subsidiary of the Indian Government.
- Statement 3 is correct. It offers term loans to Indian companies for equity investments in their overseas joint ventures or wholly-owned subsidiaries.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct. The EXIM bank was established in 1982 under the Export-Import Bank of India Act 1981 as a purveyor of export credit. R.C. Shah was the bank’s first Chairman and Managing Director.
- Statement 2 is not correct. EXIM Bank is a wholly-owned subsidiary of the Indian Government.
- Statement 3 is correct. It offers term loans to Indian companies for equity investments in their overseas joint ventures or wholly-owned subsidiaries.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Category: HistoryWhich of the following statements correctly explains the impact of the Industrial Revolution on India during the first half of the nineteenth century? (UPSC CSE 2020)
Correct
- The deindustrialisation of the Indian traditional cottage and handicraft industry was a direct consequence of the industrial revolution in England along with the colonization of India. Thus, statement (a) is correct.
- Machines were not introduced in the Indian textile industry in large numbers in the first half of the 19th century. Rather the modern textile mills with imported machinery started taking baby steps in the 1850s in Bombay, Ahmedabad and Calcutta. Only after the first world war did Indian industrialization start taking fast steps. Thus, statement (b) is not correct.
- The first railway line in India was laid between Bombay and Thane in 1853. Railway expansion was relatively slow even till mid-1860. Only in the latter half of the 19th century, the Railway expansion had gathered space in India. Thus, statement (c) is not correct.
- India acted as a captive market for British industrial goods. Rather, the colonial economic policy was one-way free trade in which British manufactured products were dumped at a very cheap rate in India. Thus, statement (d) is not correct.
Incorrect
- The deindustrialisation of the Indian traditional cottage and handicraft industry was a direct consequence of the industrial revolution in England along with the colonization of India. Thus, statement (a) is correct.
- Machines were not introduced in the Indian textile industry in large numbers in the first half of the 19th century. Rather the modern textile mills with imported machinery started taking baby steps in the 1850s in Bombay, Ahmedabad and Calcutta. Only after the first world war did Indian industrialization start taking fast steps. Thus, statement (b) is not correct.
- The first railway line in India was laid between Bombay and Thane in 1853. Railway expansion was relatively slow even till mid-1860. Only in the latter half of the 19th century, the Railway expansion had gathered space in India. Thus, statement (c) is not correct.
- India acted as a captive market for British industrial goods. Rather, the colonial economic policy was one-way free trade in which British manufactured products were dumped at a very cheap rate in India. Thus, statement (d) is not correct.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Category: PolityWhen a Bill is reserved by a Governor for the consideration of the President, what is the time limit prescribed by the constitution for returning the bill?
Correct
- Article 201 of the Indian Constitution allows the Governor to reserve bills for the consideration of the President.
- Notably, the time limit within which the President has to make a decision with regard to such a reserved bill is not mentioned in the Constitution.
Incorrect
- Article 201 of the Indian Constitution allows the Governor to reserve bills for the consideration of the President.
- Notably, the time limit within which the President has to make a decision with regard to such a reserved bill is not mentioned in the Constitution.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Category: Current AffairsWith respect to River Cities Alliance (RCA), which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It was launched by the Ministry of Jal Shakti and the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
- The Alliance is open to all river cities of India. Any river city can join the Alliance at any time.
Options:
Correct
- The Ministry of Jal Shakti along with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs launched the River Cities Alliance (RCA).
- The River Cities Alliance (RCA) has been launched with the objective to provide the member cities with a platform to discuss and exchange information on aspects that are vital for sustainable management of urban rivers, sharing best practices and supporting innovation.
- RCA is envisaged as a facilitatory platform for initiating river-sensitive planning and development. As cities start to implement the river-sensitive development agenda, the River Cities Alliance will support them to learn from each other and inspire others to take up progressive action on this front.
- The Alliance is open to all river cities of India. Any river city can join the Alliance at any time.
Incorrect
- The Ministry of Jal Shakti along with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs launched the River Cities Alliance (RCA).
- The River Cities Alliance (RCA) has been launched with the objective to provide the member cities with a platform to discuss and exchange information on aspects that are vital for sustainable management of urban rivers, sharing best practices and supporting innovation.
- RCA is envisaged as a facilitatory platform for initiating river-sensitive planning and development. As cities start to implement the river-sensitive development agenda, the River Cities Alliance will support them to learn from each other and inspire others to take up progressive action on this front.
- The Alliance is open to all river cities of India. Any river city can join the Alliance at any time.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following statements is/are incorrect with respect to National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change?
- It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme which was set up in the year 2015-16.
- National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is the National Implementing Entity (NIE).
Options:
Correct
- The National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC) is a Central Sector Scheme that was set up in the year 2015-16.
- The overall aim of NAFCC is to support concrete adaptation activities which mitigate the adverse effects of climate change. The activities under this scheme are implemented in a project mode.
- National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is the National Implementing Entity (NIE).
Incorrect
- The National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC) is a Central Sector Scheme that was set up in the year 2015-16.
- The overall aim of NAFCC is to support concrete adaptation activities which mitigate the adverse effects of climate change. The activities under this scheme are implemented in a project mode.
- National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is the National Implementing Entity (NIE).
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Category: EconomyConsider the following statements with respect to cartelization:
- The Competition Commission is responsible for enforcing the cartel laws in India.
- Prices controlled by the government under a law is not cartelization.
- Both companies and individuals can be prosecuted under the Competition Act.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- “Cartel” includes an association of producers, sellers, distributors, traders or service providers who, by agreement amongst themselves, limit, control or attempt to control the production, distribution, sale or price of, or, trade in goods or provision of services;
- directly or indirectly determining purchase or sale prices;
- limiting or controlling production, supply, markets, technical development, investment or provision of services;
- sharing the market or source of production or provision of services by way of allocation of geographical areas of the market, types of goods or services or number of customers in the market, or in any other similar way; or
- directly or indirectly resulting in bid-rigging or collusive bidding.
- Prices controlled by the government under a law is not cartelization.
- The Competition Commission is responsible for enforcing the cartel laws in India. Both companies and individuals can be prosecuted under the Competition Act.
Incorrect
- “Cartel” includes an association of producers, sellers, distributors, traders or service providers who, by agreement amongst themselves, limit, control or attempt to control the production, distribution, sale or price of, or, trade in goods or provision of services;
- directly or indirectly determining purchase or sale prices;
- limiting or controlling production, supply, markets, technical development, investment or provision of services;
- sharing the market or source of production or provision of services by way of allocation of geographical areas of the market, types of goods or services or number of customers in the market, or in any other similar way; or
- directly or indirectly resulting in bid-rigging or collusive bidding.
- Prices controlled by the government under a law is not cartelization.
- The Competition Commission is responsible for enforcing the cartel laws in India. Both companies and individuals can be prosecuted under the Competition Act.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Category: GeographyWith reference to the water on the planet Earth, consider the following statements:
- The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is more than the amount of groundwater.
- The amount of water in polar ice caps and glaciers is more than the amount of groundwater.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2021]
Correct
- The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is less than the amount of groundwater.
- The amount of water in polar ice caps and glaciers is more than the amount of groundwater.
Incorrect
- The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is less than the amount of groundwater.
- The amount of water in polar ice caps and glaciers is more than the amount of groundwater.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Category: HistoryConsider the following statements with regards to Sri Ramanujacharya:
- He was also referred to as Ilaya Perumal which means the radiant one.
- His philosophical foundations for devotionalism were influential to the Bhakti movement.
- He is famous as the chief proponent of Vishishtadvaita subschool of Vedānta.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Sri Ramanuja was born in 1017 CE at Sriperumbudur village in Tamil Nadu. He was a great theologian philosopher and thinker of devotional Hinduism.
- He was named Lakshmana at the time of his birth. He was also referred to as Ilaya Perumal which means the radiant one. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- Sri Ramanujacharya was a Bhakti saint who promoted the idea of equality in all aspects of living, including faith, caste and creed. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- Ramanujacharya is famous as the chief proponent of the Vishishtadvaita sub-school of Vedanta. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
- Sri Ramanuja was born in 1017 CE at Sriperumbudur village in Tamil Nadu. He was a great theologian philosopher and thinker of devotional Hinduism.
- He was named Lakshmana at the time of his birth. He was also referred to as Ilaya Perumal which means the radiant one. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- Sri Ramanujacharya was a Bhakti saint who promoted the idea of equality in all aspects of living, including faith, caste and creed. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- Ramanujacharya is famous as the chief proponent of the Vishishtadvaita sub-school of Vedanta. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regards to private member bills in the Parliament:
- No private member bill has ever been passed in the Indian Parliament.
- The government bills can be introduced and discussed on any day, private member’s bills can be introduced and discussed only on Fridays.
- Its introduction in the House requires 15 days’ notice.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Since 1952, only 14 private member’s bills have become laws. Out of the 300 odd private members’ bills that were introduced in the 14th Lok Sabha, only about 4% were discussed and the rest 96% lapsed without any debate. Hence Statement 1 is not correct.
- Private member’s bills can be introduced and discussed only on Fridays. The number of private member bills has been capped to 3 per session of Parliament. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- The Member must give at least a month’s notice before the Private Bill can be listed for introduction. Hence Statement 3 is not correct.
Incorrect
- Since 1952, only 14 private member’s bills have become laws. Out of the 300 odd private members’ bills that were introduced in the 14th Lok Sabha, only about 4% were discussed and the rest 96% lapsed without any debate. Hence Statement 1 is not correct.
- Private member’s bills can be introduced and discussed only on Fridays. The number of private member bills has been capped to 3 per session of Parliament. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- The Member must give at least a month’s notice before the Private Bill can be listed for introduction. Hence Statement 3 is not correct.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements with regards to Golden Langur:
- They are highly dependent on trees, living in the upper canopy of forests and are thus known as leaf monkeys.
- They are listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
- They are endemic to Assam and Bhutan.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Golden langur (Trachypithecus geei) are highly dependent on trees and inhabit moist evergreen, riverine, dipterocarp, and tropical deciduous forests. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- They are Schedule-I species under the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- Kakoijana Reserve Forest is one of the better-known homes of the golden langur. They are found only in Assam and Bhutan. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
- IUCN Status: Endangered
Incorrect
- Golden langur (Trachypithecus geei) are highly dependent on trees and inhabit moist evergreen, riverine, dipterocarp, and tropical deciduous forests. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- They are Schedule-I species under the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- Kakoijana Reserve Forest is one of the better-known homes of the golden langur. They are found only in Assam and Bhutan. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
- IUCN Status: Endangered
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regards to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution:
- The ideals behind the Preamble to India’s Constitution were laid down by Jawaharlal Nehru’s Objectives Resolution, adopted by the Constituent Assembly on January 22, 1947.
- The date mentioned in the Preamble is when it was adopted i.e. November 26, 1949.
- The Preamble of the Constitution can’t be amended.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- In 1946, Objective Resolution was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru, describing the constitutional structure. In 1947 (22nd January) it was adopted. It shaped the Constitution of India and its modified version is reflected in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- The Constitution of India was adopted on November 26, 1949. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- The term ‘secular’ was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976. Thus, The Preamble of the Constitution can be amended. Hence Statement 3 is not correct.
Incorrect
- In 1946, Objective Resolution was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru, describing the constitutional structure. In 1947 (22nd January) it was adopted. It shaped the Constitution of India and its modified version is reflected in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- The Constitution of India was adopted on November 26, 1949. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- The term ‘secular’ was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976. Thus, The Preamble of the Constitution can be amended. Hence Statement 3 is not correct.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Category: HistoryConsider the following events in the history of India: PYQ (2020)
- Rise of Pratiharas under King Bhoja
- Establishment of Pallava power under Mahendravarman – I
- Establishment of Chola power by Parantaka – I
- Pala dynasty founded by Gopala
What is the correct chronological order of the above events, starting from the earliest time?
Correct
The Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty ruled much of Northern India from the mid-8th to the 11th century. They ruled first at Ujjain and later at Kannauj. Under Bhoja (836-885 CE) and his successor Mahendrapala I, the Pratihara Empire reached its peak of prosperity and power. The Pallava dynasty existed from 275 CE to 897 CE in South India. Mahendravarman I (r. 600–630 CE) contributed to the greatness of the Pallava dynasty. Parantaka Chola I (c. 907–955 CE) ruled the Chola kingdom in Tamil Nadu for forty-eight years, annexing Pandya. Gopala (ruled c. 750s–770s CE) was the founder of the Pala Dynasty of the Bengal region of India. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).Incorrect
The Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty ruled much of Northern India from the mid-8th to the 11th century. They ruled first at Ujjain and later at Kannauj. Under Bhoja (836-885 CE) and his successor Mahendrapala I, the Pratihara Empire reached its peak of prosperity and power. The Pallava dynasty existed from 275 CE to 897 CE in South India. Mahendravarman I (r. 600–630 CE) contributed to the greatness of the Pallava dynasty. Parantaka Chola I (c. 907–955 CE) ruled the Chola kingdom in Tamil Nadu for forty-eight years, annexing Pandya. Gopala (ruled c. 750s–770s CE) was the founder of the Pala Dynasty of the Bengal region of India. Therefore, the correct answer is (c). -
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Category: GeographyTropic of Cancer passes through which of the following states in India?
- Gujarat
- Rajasthan
- Chhattisgarh
- Manipur
- Tripura
- West Bengal
Options:
Correct
- Tropic of Cancer is an imaginary line that is at an angle of 23.50 degrees. It is North of the Equator, which passes through the middle of India.
- The Tropic of Cancer passes through eight states in India:
- Gujarat (Jasdan)
- Rajasthan (Kalinjarh)
- Madhya Pradesh (Shajapur)
- Chhattisgarh (Sonhat)
- Jharkhand (Lohardaga)
- West Bengal (Krishnanagar)
- Tripura (Udaipur)
- Mizoram (Champhai)
- Tropic of Cancer crosses Mahi River twice, first in Madhya Pradesh from where it flows towards Rajasthan and enters Gujarat where it cuts for the second time.
- Hence Option C is correct.
Incorrect
- Tropic of Cancer is an imaginary line that is at an angle of 23.50 degrees. It is North of the Equator, which passes through the middle of India.
- The Tropic of Cancer passes through eight states in India:
- Gujarat (Jasdan)
- Rajasthan (Kalinjarh)
- Madhya Pradesh (Shajapur)
- Chhattisgarh (Sonhat)
- Jharkhand (Lohardaga)
- West Bengal (Krishnanagar)
- Tripura (Udaipur)
- Mizoram (Champhai)
- Tropic of Cancer crosses Mahi River twice, first in Madhya Pradesh from where it flows towards Rajasthan and enters Gujarat where it cuts for the second time.
- Hence Option C is correct.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Category: G KConsider the following statements with respect to Dholavira:
- Dholavira’s location is on the Tropic of Cancer.
- It is located on Khadir Bet Island in the Kutch Desert Wildlife Sanctuary in the Great Rann of Kutch.
- It is the first site of the ancient Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC) in India to get the UNESCO World Heritage tag.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Dholavira is a Harappan City in the Rann of Kutch in the state of Gujarat in western India.
- Dholavira’s location is on the Tropic of Cancer. It is one of the five largest Harappan sites and most prominent archaeological sites in India belonging to the Indus Valley Civilization. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- It is located on Khadir Bet Island in the Kachchh Desert Wildlife Sanctuary in the Great Rann of Kachchh. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- Dholavira is the first site of the ancient Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC) in India to get the UNESCO World Heritage tag. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
- Dholavira is a Harappan City in the Rann of Kutch in the state of Gujarat in western India.
- Dholavira’s location is on the Tropic of Cancer. It is one of the five largest Harappan sites and most prominent archaeological sites in India belonging to the Indus Valley Civilization. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- It is located on Khadir Bet Island in the Kachchh Desert Wildlife Sanctuary in the Great Rann of Kachchh. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- Dholavira is the first site of the ancient Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC) in India to get the UNESCO World Heritage tag. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Category: Current AffairsWhich Agreement/Convention is also described as a “Berne and Paris-plus” Agreement?
Correct
- The Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) came into force in 1995, as part of the Agreement Establishing the World Trade Organization (WTO).
- The TRIPS Agreement introduces additional obligations in areas that were not addressed in these conventions or were thought not to be sufficiently addressed in them.
- The TRIPS Agreement is therefore sometimes described as a “Berne and Paris-plus” Agreement.
- Hence Option C is correct.
Incorrect
- The Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) came into force in 1995, as part of the Agreement Establishing the World Trade Organization (WTO).
- The TRIPS Agreement introduces additional obligations in areas that were not addressed in these conventions or were thought not to be sufficiently addressed in them.
- The TRIPS Agreement is therefore sometimes described as a “Berne and Paris-plus” Agreement.
- Hence Option C is correct.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Category: G KWith respect to the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT), which of the following statements is/are correct?
- ICRISAT is an international organization that conducts agricultural research for development in Asia & sub-Saharan Africa.
- It is headquartered in Hyderabad.
- ICRISAT founded the Smart Food Initiative in 2013.
Options:
Correct
- The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) is a non-profit, non-political organization that conducts agricultural research for development in the drylands of Asia and sub-Saharan Africa. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- ICRISAT is headquartered in Hyderabad, Telangana State, in India. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- The Smart Food initiative was founded by the ICRISAT in 2013 with the vision to create a world where food is ‘Smart’. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
- The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) is a non-profit, non-political organization that conducts agricultural research for development in the drylands of Asia and sub-Saharan Africa. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- ICRISAT is headquartered in Hyderabad, Telangana State, in India. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- The Smart Food initiative was founded by the ICRISAT in 2013 with the vision to create a world where food is ‘Smart’. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Category: GeographyConsider the following Rivers:
- Brahmani
- Nagavali
- Subarnarekha
- Vamsadhara
Which of the above rise from the Eastern Ghats? PYQ (2021)
Correct
- The Eastern Ghats is a discontinuous range of mountains that run parallel to the eastern coast of India.
- Rivers originating on the Eastern Ghats include:
- Baitarani River
- Budhabalanga River
- Rushikulya River
- Vamsadhara River
- Palar River
- Nagavali River
- Champavathi River
- Gosthani River
- Know more about the Eastern Ghats.
- Hence Option B is correct.
Incorrect
- The Eastern Ghats is a discontinuous range of mountains that run parallel to the eastern coast of India.
- Rivers originating on the Eastern Ghats include:
- Baitarani River
- Budhabalanga River
- Rushikulya River
- Vamsadhara River
- Palar River
- Nagavali River
- Champavathi River
- Gosthani River
- Know more about the Eastern Ghats.
- Hence Option B is correct.
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Category: PolityWhich of the following articles in the Indian constitution is/are associated with Education?
- Article 21A
- Article 27
- Article 45
- Article 47
Options:
Correct
- Article 27- No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes, the proceeds of which are specifically appropriated in payment of expenses for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious denomination.
- Article 47- Directs the State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health as among its primary duties and, in particular, the State shall endeavour to bring about prohibition of intoxicating drinks and drugs
Articles in the Indian constitution associated with education:
- Article 21A: The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine.
- Article 28: Freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions
- Article 45: Provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years
- Article 46: Promotion of educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and other weaker sections. The State shall promote with special care the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people, and, in particular, of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, and shall protect them from social injustice and all forms of exploitation.
Incorrect
- Article 27- No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes, the proceeds of which are specifically appropriated in payment of expenses for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious denomination.
- Article 47- Directs the State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health as among its primary duties and, in particular, the State shall endeavour to bring about prohibition of intoxicating drinks and drugs
Articles in the Indian constitution associated with education:
- Article 21A: The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine.
- Article 28: Freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions
- Article 45: Provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years
- Article 46: Promotion of educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and other weaker sections. The State shall promote with special care the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people, and, in particular, of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, and shall protect them from social injustice and all forms of exploitation.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with respect to Right to Education (RTE):
- The 86th Constitutional Amendment (2002) inserted Article 21A in the Indian Constitution
- It provides free and compulsory education for children between the age of 6 to 14 years
- The RTE Act has provisions for a non-admitted child to be admitted to an age appropriate class.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- The 86th Constitutional Amendment (2002) inserted Article 21A in the Indian Constitution which states that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine.
- The RTE Act has provisions for a non-admitted child to be admitted to an age appropriate class. If a child above 6 years of age has not been admitted in any school or could not complete his or her elementary education, then he or she shall be admitted in a class appropriate to his or her age. However, if a case may be where a child is directly admitted in the class appropriate to his or her age, then, in order to be at par with others, he or she shall have a right to receive special training within such time limits as may be prescribed.
Incorrect
- The 86th Constitutional Amendment (2002) inserted Article 21A in the Indian Constitution which states that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine.
- The RTE Act has provisions for a non-admitted child to be admitted to an age appropriate class. If a child above 6 years of age has not been admitted in any school or could not complete his or her elementary education, then he or she shall be admitted in a class appropriate to his or her age. However, if a case may be where a child is directly admitted in the class appropriate to his or her age, then, in order to be at par with others, he or she shall have a right to receive special training within such time limits as may be prescribed.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Category: International RelationsWith respect to African Union (AU), which of the following statements is/are correct?
- The AU’s secretariat, the African Union Commission is based in Abuja, Nigeria
- The Abuja Treaty led to the creation of the African Union
Options:
Correct
- The African Union Commission (AUC) is the AU’s secretariat and undertakes the day to day activities of the Union. It is based in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia.
- The AU was announced in the Sirte Declaration in Sirte, Libya in 1999, calling for the establishment of the African Union.
For more information refer to the following link:
Incorrect
- The African Union Commission (AUC) is the AU’s secretariat and undertakes the day to day activities of the Union. It is based in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia.
- The AU was announced in the Sirte Declaration in Sirte, Libya in 1999, calling for the establishment of the African Union.
For more information refer to the following link:
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following statements about Basai Wetland is/are correct?
- It located in Gurgaon district in Haryana
- It is recognised globally as an Important Bird Area (IBA) by the BirdLife International
Options:
Correct
- The Basai wetlands is a 250 acre shallow wetland located close to Gurugram city.
- It is recognised as one of India’s Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas and is of global conservation significance as it supports populations of several endangered, vulnerable, and threatened bird species. Basai wetlandis is recognised globally as an Important Bird Area (IBA) by the BirdLife International.
- It is recognized as a key biodiversity area by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) and the Wildlife Institute of India.
Incorrect
- The Basai wetlands is a 250 acre shallow wetland located close to Gurugram city.
- It is recognised as one of India’s Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas and is of global conservation significance as it supports populations of several endangered, vulnerable, and threatened bird species. Basai wetlandis is recognised globally as an Important Bird Area (IBA) by the BirdLife International.
- It is recognized as a key biodiversity area by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) and the Wildlife Institute of India.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Category: PolityA legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of the application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
Correct
- A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of the application of law violates Article 14 of the Indian Constitution.
- Article 14 of Indian Constitution says that the state shall not deny to any person equality before law, which in itself is an element of the concept of ‘Rule of Law’. The absence of arbitrary power is a major principle of ‘Rule of Law’.
Incorrect
- A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of the application of law violates Article 14 of the Indian Constitution.
- Article 14 of Indian Constitution says that the state shall not deny to any person equality before law, which in itself is an element of the concept of ‘Rule of Law’. The absence of arbitrary power is a major principle of ‘Rule of Law’.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regards to Ordinance making powers of the Governor:
- The Governor can promulgate an ordinance when the Legislative Assembly is not in session in case of the unicameral legislature or when both Legislative assembly and council are not in session in case of a bicameral legislature.
- His power to promulgate ordinances is one of the discretionary powers given to the Governor.
- President’s instructions on the state ordinance are required if a bill containing the same provisions would have required the previous sanction of the President for its introduction into the state legislature.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Article 213 of the Indian Constitution envisages the power of the Governor to promulgate Ordinances during recess of Legislature.
- The power to promulgate ordinances is not a discretionary power of the Governor. Governor can promulgate ordinances only on the advice of the Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers.
Incorrect
- Article 213 of the Indian Constitution envisages the power of the Governor to promulgate Ordinances during recess of Legislature.
- The power to promulgate ordinances is not a discretionary power of the Governor. Governor can promulgate ordinances only on the advice of the Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regards to Anticipatory Bail:
- It is a direction issued to release a person on Bail even before the person is arrested.
- It is issued only by the High Court and Supreme Court.
- An application for anticipatory Bail can be filed in cases of both bailable and non-bailable offences.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Anticipatory bail is a direction to release a person on bail, issued even before the person is arrested. It is only issued by the Sessions Court and High Court.
- An application for anticipatory bail can be filed in cases of non-bailable offences.
Incorrect
- Anticipatory bail is a direction to release a person on bail, issued even before the person is arrested. It is only issued by the Sessions Court and High Court.
- An application for anticipatory bail can be filed in cases of non-bailable offences.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Category: SchemesConsider the following statements with regards to Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana:
- PMMVY is a maternity benefit programme being implemented in all districts of the country with effect from 1st January 2017.
- Cash benefits are provided to pregnant women in their bank account directly to meet enhanced nutritional needs and partially compensate for wage loss.
- It is a centrally sponsored scheme being executed by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) is a Maternity Benefit Programme that is implemented in all the districts of the country in accordance with the provision of the National Food Security Act, 2013.
- The Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana launched in 2017, provides ₹5,000 for the birth of the first child to partially compensate a woman for the loss of wages. It is combined with another scheme, Janani Suraksha Yojana, under which nearly ₹1,000 is given for an institutional birth. So in total, a woman gets ₹6,000.
- The amount is given in three instalments upon meeting certain conditions. Cash benefits are provided to pregnant women in their bank account directly.
- It is a centrally sponsored scheme being executed by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
Incorrect
- Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) is a Maternity Benefit Programme that is implemented in all the districts of the country in accordance with the provision of the National Food Security Act, 2013.
- The Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana launched in 2017, provides ₹5,000 for the birth of the first child to partially compensate a woman for the loss of wages. It is combined with another scheme, Janani Suraksha Yojana, under which nearly ₹1,000 is given for an institutional birth. So in total, a woman gets ₹6,000.
- The amount is given in three instalments upon meeting certain conditions. Cash benefits are provided to pregnant women in their bank account directly.
- It is a centrally sponsored scheme being executed by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Category: PolityThe Supreme Court recently stated, “The grant of ____________ is to break the monotony of imprisonment and to enable the convict to maintain continuity with family life and integration with society. Although _________ can be claimed without a reason, the prisoner does not have an absolute legal right to claim __________. The grant of __________ must be balanced against the public interest and can be refused to certain categories of prisoners.”
What was the Supreme Court referring to?
Correct
- A prison furlough is when a prisoner is allowed to leave prison and then return. Furloughs are, in effect, temporary releases from the physical custody of the state prison system. At the end of the furlough, the person must return to prison.
- The grant of furlough is to break the monotony of imprisonment and to enable the convict to maintain continuity with family life and integration with society. Notably, while a furlough can be claimed without a reason, the prisoner does not have an absolute legal right.
Incorrect
- A prison furlough is when a prisoner is allowed to leave prison and then return. Furloughs are, in effect, temporary releases from the physical custody of the state prison system. At the end of the furlough, the person must return to prison.
- The grant of furlough is to break the monotony of imprisonment and to enable the convict to maintain continuity with family life and integration with society. Notably, while a furlough can be claimed without a reason, the prisoner does not have an absolute legal right.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Category: PolityAlong with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which include ‘The Macro Economic Framework Statement’. The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by
Correct
- Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) became an Act in 2003. The objective of the Act is to ensure inter-generational equity in fiscal management, long-run macroeconomic stability, better coordination between fiscal and monetary policy, and transparency in the fiscal operation of the Government.
- FRBM Act provides a legal institutional framework for fiscal consolidation. The Act also requires the government to lay before the parliament three policy statements in each financial year namely:
- Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement;
- Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement and
- Macroeconomic Framework Policy Statement.
Incorrect
- Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) became an Act in 2003. The objective of the Act is to ensure inter-generational equity in fiscal management, long-run macroeconomic stability, better coordination between fiscal and monetary policy, and transparency in the fiscal operation of the Government.
- FRBM Act provides a legal institutional framework for fiscal consolidation. The Act also requires the government to lay before the parliament three policy statements in each financial year namely:
- Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement;
- Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement and
- Macroeconomic Framework Policy Statement.
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