UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Mar 18 - Mar 24

• The CBI is governed by the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act (DSPEA) which makes the CBI a special wing of Delhi Police and thus its original jurisdiction is limited to Delhi.
• For other matters, the CBI needs the consent of the state government in whose territorial jurisdiction, the CBI has to conduct an investigation.
• When a state gives general consent to the CBI for probing a case, the agency is not required to seek fresh permission every time it enters that state in connection with investigation or for every case. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• Withdrawal of consent, if any, by a State Government can be effected prospectively and not retrospectively. Further, in the cases which are referred by the Constitutional Courts, the entry of CBI cannot be denied by that State as these do not require the consent of the State. Hence Statement 2 is not correct.

• Betting and gambling can be found in part II of the State list. They have been mentioned in detail in the seventh schedule of the Indian Constitution. In other words, this simply means that the state government can exercise full control over betting and gambling practices in its state. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• India mainly puts the games into two broad categories to differentiate them. The two categories are that the game is either a Game of Chance or a Game of Skill.
  • Game of chance: Games of chance are all those games that are played randomly. These games are based on luck and can be played without prior knowledge or understanding. For instance, dice games, picking a number, etc. Such games are considered illegal in India.
  • Game of skill: Games of skill are all those games that are played based on a person’s prior knowledge or experience of the game. Such games are considered legal by most of the Indian states.
• The Gambling Legislations exclude ‘games of skill’ from the purview of gambling and hence doesn’t attract the penal provisions. Hence Statement 2 is not correct.

• Medaram Jathara is a festival of tribal origin in Telangana held every two years at Medaram Village of Tadvai Mandal.
• This Jathara has been declared as a State Festival in 1998.
• It commemorates the fight of a mother and daughter, Sammakka and Saralamma, with the reigning rulers against an unjust law.
• It is believed that after Kumbh Mela, the Medaram Jathara attracts the largest number of devotees in the country.
• Medaram is a remote place in the Eturnagaram Wildlife Sanctuary, a part of Dandakaranya, the largest surviving forest belt in the Mulugu.
• It is a festival with no Vedic or Brahmanic influence.
• Hence Option A is correct.

• Lassa fever is caused by a virus that is found in West Africa. It was first discovered in 1969 in Lassa. So it is called Lassa fever. Hence Statement 1 is not correct.
• It is an animal-borne, or zoonotic, acute viral illness.
• Lassa fever is caused by infection with the Lassa virus. The virus is spread by a rat that lives in large numbers in west, central, and east Africa. Hence Statement 2 is not correct.
• The Lassa virus is transmitted to humans via contact with food or household items contaminated with rodent urine or faeces. Person-to-person infections and laboratory transmission can also occur, particularly in hospitals lacking adequate infection prevention and control measures. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

• The Chausath Yogini temple in Mitaoli village (Madhya Pradesh) was built by the Kachchhapaghata king Devapala.
• It is said that the temple was the venue of providing education in astrology and mathematics based on the transit of the Sun.
• This circular temple is one among the very few such temples in India. It is externally circular in shape with a radius of 170 feet and within its interior part, it has 64 small chambers. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• It is not the only circular temple built in India. Hence Statement 2 is not correct.
• This is a yogini temple dedicated to sixty-four yoginis. Hence Statement 3 is not correct.
• Many of these curious visitors have compared this temple with the Indian parliament building (Sansad Bhawan) as both are circular in style. Many have drawn conclusions that this temple was the inspiration behind the Sansad Bhawan. Hence Statement 4 is correct.

• Bhiku Ramji Idate Commission on Denotified and Nomadic Tribes was constituted in 2015 for a period of three years from the date of Gazette Notification or appointment of Chairperson.
• The terms of reference of the Commission include preparation of a State-wise list of castes belonging to Denotified and Nomadic Tribes and suggest appropriate measures in respect of Denotified and Nomadic Tribes to be undertaken by the Central Government or the State Government.
• Hence Option B is correct.

• The East Asia Summit (EAS) is the Indo-Pacific’s premier forum for strategic dialogue.
• The concept of an ‘East Asia Grouping’ was first promoted in 1991 by the then Malaysian Prime Minister Mahathir bin Mohamad. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• The first EAS was held in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia. Hence Statement 2 is not correct.
• The East Asia Summit comprised 16 participating countries, namely ASEAN Member States, Australia, China, India, Japan, New Zealand, and the Republic of Korea. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

• TERI is an autonomous, not-for-profit, research institute established in 1974. It is headquartered in New Delhi. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• The World Sustainable Development Summit (WSDS) is the annual flagship Track II initiative of The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI). Hence Statement 2 is correct.
• GRIHA, an acronym for Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment, is the National Rating System of India. GRIHA has been conceived by TERI and developed jointly with the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, Government of India. Hence Statement 3 is not correct.

• Sant Ravidas was a poet-saint of the Bhakti movement in northern India. He was the founder of the Ravidassia sect. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• Some of the devotional verses he composed have been included in the Guru Granth Sahib. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

• The national awards such as Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri “do not amount to titles within the meaning of Article 18(1) of the Constitution and thus are not to be used as prefixes or suffixes to the name of the recipient in any manner whatsoever”. Hence Statement 1 is not correct.
• Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, are announced every year on the occasion of Republic Day except for brief interruptions during the years 1978 and 1979 and 1993 to 1997. Hence Statement 2 is not correct.
• The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of three in a particular year. Hence Statement 3 is not correct.

• Statement 1 is correct, “New India Literacy Programme” for the period FYs 2022-2027 to cover all the aspects of Adult Education to align with National Education Policy 2020 and Budget Announcements 2021-22.
• Statement 2 is not correct, the scheme will cover non-literates of the age of 15 years and above in all states/UTs in the country.
• Statement 3 is correct, the objectives of the scheme are to impart not only foundational literacy and numeracy but also to cover other components which are necessary for a citizen of the 21st century such as critical life skills, vocational skills development, basic education and continuing education.

• Statement 1 is incorrect, Kanuma, also known as Pasuvula Panduga, is of great importance to the Telugu community and is not related to the Bodo Tribes.
• Statement 2 is incorrect, hunting is not mandatory as part of the festival.
• Statement 3 is correct, the festival is dedicated to cows, bulls and other animals that are part of the agrarian economy.

• Statement 1 is correct, Green Hydrogen is produced by electrolysis of water using renewable energy (like Solar, Wind) and has a lower carbon footprint.
• Statement 2 is incorrect, the hydrogen that is generated from natural gas, or methane, through a process called “steam reforming” is called Grey hydrogen.
• Statement 3 is correct, Green Hydrogen production is considered the cleanest form of hydrogen generation since the by-products are just water and water vapour.

• Option b is the incorrect statement, the rate at which RBI lends to commercial banks by buying the securities sold by the commercial banks is called the repo rate.

• James Prinsep, a European scholar in 1837, first deciphered the edicts of Ashoka.

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Normandy Format is a diplomatic grouping created in June 2014 to find a peaceful resolution to the conflict in Ukraine due to Russia’s military aggression.
• Statement 2 is correct. It is an informal forum that was set up by France, Germany, Russia and Ukraine.
• Statement 3 is correct. It takes its name from the Normandy landings in the Second World War.

• All the satellites mentioned are Earth Observation Satellites. Hence option d is correct.
• Earth Observing Satellite (EOS) is a satellite that through space sends signals to Earth and monitors the changes which occur on the Earth’s surface.
• These satellites can only be used for non-military purposes and mainly for environmental benefits.

Image source: World Atlas

• All the options are correctly matched. Hence option d is correct.

• Option b is correct.
• The Unnat Bharat Abhiyan launched by the Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD) aims to connect institutions of higher education, including Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs), National Institutes of Technology (NITs) and Indian Institutes of Science Education & Research (IISERs) etc. with local communities to address the development challenges through appropriate technologies.

• Sadar Hills is a geographic area in the state of Manipur in North East India.
• The Meghalaya plateau is subdivided into the Garo hills, the Khasi hills and the Jaintia hills named after the tribal groups inhabiting this region.
• An extension of this is also seen in the Karbi Anglong hills of Assam. Three hill ranges from east to west  are the Jaintia, the Khasi and the Garo Hills.
• Hence Option B is correct

• A Municipal Corporation is a local governing body for cities, towns and villages. The British East India Company set up the first Municipal Corporation in 1687-88, in Madras. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• All the members of a Municipality are to be directly elected by the people of the Municipal area and for the purpose of making the electorate. The manner of election of Chairpersons of municipalities has been left to be specified by the State Legislature. Hence Statement 2 is not correct.
• The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 has introduced a new Part IXA in the Constitution, which deals with Urban local bodies. It has given constitutional status to the municipalities and brought them under the justifiable part of the constitution. Hence Statement 3 is not correct.

• The term first information report (FIR) is not defined in the Indian Penal Code (IPC), Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, or in any other law. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
  • It is defined in police regulations or rules, information recorded under Section 154 of CrPC is known as First Information Report (FIR).
• There are three important elements of an FIR:
  • the information must relate to the commission of a cognizable offense,
    • ‘cognizable’ stands for ‘a police officer may arrest without warrant’;
    • ‘non-cognizable’ stands for ‘a police officer shall not be arrest without warrant’.
  • it should be given in writing or orally to the head of the police station and,
  • it must be written down and signed by the informant, and its key points should be recorded in a daily diary. Thus, FIR should not contain an exhaustive account of the incident. Hence Statement 2 is not correct.
• When a police station receives a complaint regarding an alleged offense that has been committed in the jurisdiction of another police station, it registers an FIR, and then transfers it to the concerned police station for further investigation. This is called a Zero FIR. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
• What if the police refuse to register an FIR?
  • If any person is aggrieved by the refusal on the part of the officer in charge of a police station to register an FIR
    • Under Section 154(3) CrPC the person can send the complaint to the Superintendent of Police/DCP concerned who, if satisfied that such information discloses the commission of a cognizable offense, will either investigate the case, or direct an investigation by a subordinate police officer.
    • Under Section 156(3) CrPC before a concerned court which, if satisfied that a cognizable offense is made out from the complaint, will direct the police to register an FIR and conduct an investigation.

• The IBRD calls itself a global development cooperative. It is the world’s largest development bank. IBRD deals only with sovereign governments and not private players. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• IBRD offers innovative financial solutions, including financial products (loans, guarantees, and risk management products) and knowledge and advisory services (including on a reimbursable basis) to governments at the national and subnational levels. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

• The Montague Chelmsford reforms of 1919 recommended the voting rights to women in limited numbers to be extended on the basis of property, tax or education. It did not recommend granting voting rights to all women above the age of 21. Hence Statement 1 is not correct.
• Government of India Act of 1935 extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for depressed classes (scheduled castes), women and labor (workers). Thus, women got reserved seats in the legislature. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

• Tolkappiyam was Composed by Tolkappiyar. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• Oldest extant Tamil work till date. Dated between 4th and 5th century CE. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
• It offers information on social life, human psychology, political and economic conditions during the Sangam Age.
• Tolkappiyam also discusses Tamil grammar. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
• Sanskrit influence on this work is peripheral and very little.

• A gravitational lens can occur when a huge amount of matter creates a gravitational field that distorts and magnifies the light from distant galaxies that are behind it but in the same line of sight. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
•  The gravitational field of a massive object will extend far into space, and cause light rays passing close to that object to be bent and refocused somewhere else.
• The more massive the object, the stronger its gravitational field and hence the greater the bending of light rays.  Hence Statement 2 is correct.
• The effect allows researchers to study the details of early galaxies too far away to be seen otherwise with even the most powerful space telescopes. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

• The Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (GMRT) Observatory, located near Pune, Junnar, Narayangaon in India, is an array of thirty fully steerable parabolic radio telescopes observing at meter wavelengths. Hence Statement 1 is not correct.
• The GMRT is designed, built and operated by Indian scientists and engineers. It is not operated by the Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES). Hence Statement 2 is not correct.

• Messier 77 is  a barred spiral galaxy located 47 million light-years from Earth in the constellation Cetus.
• Also known as NGC 1068, it is one of the most famous and well-studied galaxies.
• Hence Option C is correct.

• A symbiotic relationship is an intimate interaction between two or more species, which may or may not be beneficial to either.
• The symbiotic association between the invertebrate phylum Cnidaria and the unicellular dinoflagellate algae, called zooxanthellae, is very common.  Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• Fungi have several mutualistic relationships with other organisms. Two common mutualistic relationships involving fungi are mycorrhizae and lichen.  Hence Statement 2 is correct.
• Symbiosis in protozoa mostly represents a close mutualistic association between
  • a protozoan and unicellular symbionts (bacteria, cyanobacteria or/and unicellular algae) or
  • protozoans and a multicellular organism (ruminants, lower termites, wood-eating cockroaches, plants).
•  Hence Statement 3 is also correct.