UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz May 06 – May 12 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from May 06 – May 12 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.
Post your scores in the comment section below!
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UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz May 06 – May 12
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Category: International RelationsWhich of the following statement/s is/are correct about India-U.S. trade relations? (Level – Medium)
- The U.S. surpassed China to become India’s top trading partner in 2021-22.
- India enjoys a positive trade balance with the U.S.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, The U.S. surpassed China to become India’s top trading partner in 2021-22
- Bilateral trade between the U.S. and India reached $119.42 compared to $115.42 between China and India.
- Statement 2 is correct, Exports to the U.S. stand at $76.11 billion in 2021-22 compared to imports from the US which accounts for $43.31 billion.
- Hence, India enjoys a positive trade balance with the U.S.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, The U.S. surpassed China to become India’s top trading partner in 2021-22
- Bilateral trade between the U.S. and India reached $119.42 compared to $115.42 between China and India.
- Statement 2 is correct, Exports to the U.S. stand at $76.11 billion in 2021-22 compared to imports from the US which accounts for $43.31 billion.
- Hence, India enjoys a positive trade balance with the U.S.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Category: SchemesWhich of the following best describes the e-Shram portal? (Level – Easy)
Correct
- e-Shram portal is the first-ever national database of unorganised workers that includes migrant workers, construction workers, gig and platform workers, etc.
- The portal is used for enrolment, registration, collection and identification of the required data of all the unorganised workers.
Incorrect
- e-Shram portal is the first-ever national database of unorganised workers that includes migrant workers, construction workers, gig and platform workers, etc.
- The portal is used for enrolment, registration, collection and identification of the required data of all the unorganised workers.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Category: International RelationsWhich of the following pair of places and associated countries have been correctly matched? (Level – Difficult) Place Associated country
- Nagorno-Karbakh Ukraine
- Kharkiv Azerbaijan
- Khobani Iraq
Options:
Correct
- Nagorno- Karabakh is a disputed territory between Armenia and Azerbaijan.
- Kharkiv is a city in northeast Ukraine
- Khobani is a city in northern Syria
- None of the above are matched correctly, hence option d is correct.
Incorrect
- Nagorno- Karabakh is a disputed territory between Armenia and Azerbaijan.
- Kharkiv is a city in northeast Ukraine
- Khobani is a city in northern Syria
- None of the above are matched correctly, hence option d is correct.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Category: PolityWhich of the following statement/s is/are incorrect with respect to Rajya Sabha? (Level – Medium)
- The Third Schedule to the Constitution provides for the allocation of seats to the States and Union Territories in Rajya Sabha.
- Currently, the Rajya Sabha has 245 members, the maximum limit as specified in the Indian Constitution.
- A member chosen to fill a casual vacancy in the Rajya Sabha will serve the full term of six years available to an elected member.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution provides for the allocation of seats to the States and Union Territories in Rajya Sabha.
- Statement 2 is not correct, the maximum strength of Rajya Sabha according to the constitution is 250 and the current strength is 245
- Statement 3 is not correct, A member chosen to fill a casual vacancy in the Rajya Sabha will serve for the remainder of his predecessor’s term of office.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution provides for the allocation of seats to the States and Union Territories in Rajya Sabha.
- Statement 2 is not correct, the maximum strength of Rajya Sabha according to the constitution is 250 and the current strength is 245
- Statement 3 is not correct, A member chosen to fill a casual vacancy in the Rajya Sabha will serve for the remainder of his predecessor’s term of office.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Category: GeographyConsider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: (Level – Difficult) [PYQ-2019]
- PVTGs reside in 18 states and one Union Territory
- A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
- There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
- Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, PVTGs resided in 18 states and one Union Territory
- Statement 2 is correct, The criteria for determination of PVTGs are:
- A pre-agriculture level of technology
- A stagnant or declining population
- Extremely low literacy
- A subsistence level of the economy
- Statement 3 is not correct, There are 75 Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India.
- Statement 4 is correct, the Irular tribe of Tamil Nadu and Konda Reddi tribe of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana are included in the list of PVTGs.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, PVTGs resided in 18 states and one Union Territory
- Statement 2 is correct, The criteria for determination of PVTGs are:
- A pre-agriculture level of technology
- A stagnant or declining population
- Extremely low literacy
- A subsistence level of the economy
- Statement 3 is not correct, There are 75 Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India.
- Statement 4 is correct, the Irular tribe of Tamil Nadu and Konda Reddi tribe of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana are included in the list of PVTGs.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyTechnologies such as ‘Kisan Sabha’ & ‘Gur Bhatti’ for Rural Development have been developed by – (Easy)
Correct
Recently CSIR-NIScPR has undertaken a major initiative for the dissemination of CSIR technologies for creating livelihood opportunities in rural areas in the wake of the situation created by the COVID-19 pandemic. In this regard, a farmer-industry-scientist meet was organized to disseminate the Kisan Sabha App and Gur Bhatti Technology to the farmers.
Incorrect
Recently CSIR-NIScPR has undertaken a major initiative for the dissemination of CSIR technologies for creating livelihood opportunities in rural areas in the wake of the situation created by the COVID-19 pandemic. In this regard, a farmer-industry-scientist meet was organized to disseminate the Kisan Sabha App and Gur Bhatti Technology to the farmers.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statements are correct? (Moderate)
- National Supercomputing Mission is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology and the Department of Science and Technology along with C-DAC and IISc.
- Param Ananta, a state of the art Supercomputer at IIT Gandhinagar, has been recently dedicated to the nation under the mission.
- India has the third-highest number of supercomputers in the world.
Options:
Correct
- As of November 2020, under ranking by the number of supercomputer systems, India is ranked 63rd in the world.
Incorrect
- As of November 2020, under ranking by the number of supercomputer systems, India is ranked 63rd in the world.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Category: International RelationsWhich of the following statements are correct? (Moderate)
- China has been pushing for a security pact and free trade agreement with the Pacific Islands Forum.
- It has already signed one such agreement with the Solomon Islands.
- China is offering to radically ramp up its activities in the South Pacific to directly challenge the influence of the United States and its allies in the strategically vital region.
Options:
Correct
- Ten Pacific Island nations have rebuffed China’s push for a wide-ranging regional security pact. This marks a diplomatic setback for China which has been trying to assert its presence in the South Pacific, directly challenging the influence of the United States and its allies in the strategically vital region.
- China had offered to train Pacific Island police, and collaborate in the areas of cybersecurity and marine mapping along with the expansion of political ties. China had also offered millions of dollars in financial aid apart from proposals for a free trade agreement. However, Pacific leaders have serious misgivings about the offer and fear interference of China in their internal affairs and Chinese economic control.
- China has a security agreement with the Solomon Islands and a diplomatic relations agreement with Somoa.
Incorrect
- Ten Pacific Island nations have rebuffed China’s push for a wide-ranging regional security pact. This marks a diplomatic setback for China which has been trying to assert its presence in the South Pacific, directly challenging the influence of the United States and its allies in the strategically vital region.
- China had offered to train Pacific Island police, and collaborate in the areas of cybersecurity and marine mapping along with the expansion of political ties. China had also offered millions of dollars in financial aid apart from proposals for a free trade agreement. However, Pacific leaders have serious misgivings about the offer and fear interference of China in their internal affairs and Chinese economic control.
- China has a security agreement with the Solomon Islands and a diplomatic relations agreement with Somoa.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Category: SchemesWhich of the following statements are incorrect? (Moderate)
- The National AI Portal is a joint initiative by the Ministry of Electronics and IT, National e-Governance Division and NASSCOM.
- The portal focuses on creating and nurturing a unified AI ecosystem in the country to drive excellence and leadership in knowledge creation to develop an AI-ready robust workforce for the future and use AI to foster economic growth.
- It was launched in 2014.
Options:
Correct
National AI Portal was launched in 2020.
Incorrect
National AI Portal was launched in 2020.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWith reference to the carbon nanotubes, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2020) (Difficult)
- They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body.
- They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of human body.
- They can be used in biochemical sensors.
- Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
- Carbon nanotubes are cylindrical molecules that consist of rolled-up sheets of single-layered carbon atoms (graphene). They find a lot of applications in the field of medical technology.
- Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable.
Incorrect
- Carbon nanotubes are cylindrical molecules that consist of rolled-up sheets of single-layered carbon atoms (graphene). They find a lot of applications in the field of medical technology.
- Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Category: EconomyWhich of the following statement/s is/are correct with respect to the index of eight core industries?
- It is released by the Office of Economic Adviser, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade.
- Among the eight sectors, the highest weightage is given to the electricity sector while the least weightage is given to fertilizer industry.
- Under the electricity vertical, renewable energy is not included.
Options:
Correct
- The Eight Core Industries include Natural Gas, Coal, Refinery Products, Crude Oil, Cement, Electricity, Steel, and Fertilizers. These industries are termed as the core industries owing to their strong impact on the general economic activities and the other industrial activities.
- These industries comprise a total of 40.27% of the total weight of the overall items that are included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). The Index of Eight Core Industries’ highest weight is currently possessed by the Refinery Products Industry. Earlier the highest weightage was given to the Electricity Industry.
- In the decreasing order of the weightage of these industries, the list is stated as below:
- Refinery Products Industry
- Electricity Industry
- Steel Industry
- Coal Industry
- Crude Oil Industry
- Natural Gas Industry
- Cement Industry
- Fertilizers Industry
Incorrect
- The Eight Core Industries include Natural Gas, Coal, Refinery Products, Crude Oil, Cement, Electricity, Steel, and Fertilizers. These industries are termed as the core industries owing to their strong impact on the general economic activities and the other industrial activities.
- These industries comprise a total of 40.27% of the total weight of the overall items that are included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). The Index of Eight Core Industries’ highest weight is currently possessed by the Refinery Products Industry. Earlier the highest weightage was given to the Electricity Industry.
- In the decreasing order of the weightage of these industries, the list is stated as below:
- Refinery Products Industry
- Electricity Industry
- Steel Industry
- Coal Industry
- Crude Oil Industry
- Natural Gas Industry
- Cement Industry
- Fertilizers Industry
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Category: EconomyWhich of the following statement/s is/are correct with respect to textile exports from India?
- There has been a substantial dip in the Textile and Apparel export from India in the current year owing to reduction in demand in the global market and competition from emerging players like Bangladesh and Vietnam in the export market.
- United Arab Emirates is the top export destination for Textile and Apparel exports from India.
Options:
Correct
- India scaled its highest ever exports tally at US$ 44.4 Bn in Textiles and Apparel (T&A) including Handicrafts in FY 2021-22.
- USA was the top export destination accounting for 27% share, followed by the EU (18%), Bangladesh (12%) and UAE (6%).
- In terms of product categories, the export of cotton Textiles was US$ 17.2 Bn with a 39% share. Man-made textiles export was US$ 6.3 Bn with 14% share.
- Export of Ready-Made Garments was US$ 16 Bn with 36% share.
Incorrect
- India scaled its highest ever exports tally at US$ 44.4 Bn in Textiles and Apparel (T&A) including Handicrafts in FY 2021-22.
- USA was the top export destination accounting for 27% share, followed by the EU (18%), Bangladesh (12%) and UAE (6%).
- In terms of product categories, the export of cotton Textiles was US$ 17.2 Bn with a 39% share. Man-made textiles export was US$ 6.3 Bn with 14% share.
- Export of Ready-Made Garments was US$ 16 Bn with 36% share.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Category: AgricultureWhich of the following pairs of Indigenous livestock breeds and their main associated state is incorrectly matched?
- Amritmahal – Punjab
- Ongole – Rajasthan
- Malenadu Gidda- Tamil Nadu
- Surti – Bihar
- Beetal- West Bengal
Options:
Correct
- The Amrit Mahal is a breed of cattle that originated from the erstwhile state of Mysore in Karnataka, India. They originated from the Hallikar. They are notable for their great endurance and speed.
- Ongole cattle is an indigenous cattle breed that originates from the Prakasam District in the state of Andhra Pradesh in India. The breed possesses resistance to both foot and mouth disease and mad cow disease.
- Malenadu Gidda is a dwarf breed of cattle native to the hilly, rainy and densely forested Malenadu region of the Western Ghats in the state of Karnataka in India. They are of short stature and known for their adaptability, and disease resistance. The milk and urine are of medicinal value.
- The Surti is a breed of water buffalo found in the Kaira and Vadodara districts of Gujarat. Its average milk yield is 1600-1800 litres. The fat content of the milk is about 8-10 percent.
- Beetal is a Goat breed found mainly in the state of Punjab. These breeds are grown mainly for the purpose of milk and meat.
Incorrect
- The Amrit Mahal is a breed of cattle that originated from the erstwhile state of Mysore in Karnataka, India. They originated from the Hallikar. They are notable for their great endurance and speed.
- Ongole cattle is an indigenous cattle breed that originates from the Prakasam District in the state of Andhra Pradesh in India. The breed possesses resistance to both foot and mouth disease and mad cow disease.
- Malenadu Gidda is a dwarf breed of cattle native to the hilly, rainy and densely forested Malenadu region of the Western Ghats in the state of Karnataka in India. They are of short stature and known for their adaptability, and disease resistance. The milk and urine are of medicinal value.
- The Surti is a breed of water buffalo found in the Kaira and Vadodara districts of Gujarat. Its average milk yield is 1600-1800 litres. The fat content of the milk is about 8-10 percent.
- Beetal is a Goat breed found mainly in the state of Punjab. These breeds are grown mainly for the purpose of milk and meat.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Category: EconomyWhich of the following statement/s is/are incorrect with respect to GST compensation?
- As per the provisions of the GST (Compensation to States) Act, 2017, the states are assured of compensation for loss of any revenue arising on account of the implementation of GST for a period of 15 years.
- The States’ protected revenue is projected at a compounded growth rate of 10%
- The compensation fund is funded by the Consolidated Fund of India.
Options:
Correct
- Goods and Services Tax was introduced in the country w.e.f. 1st July 2017 and States were assured compensation for loss of any revenue arising on account of implementation of GST as per the provisions of the GST (Compensation to States) Act, 2017 for a period of five years. For providing compensation to States, Cess is being levied on certain goods and the amount of Cess collected is being credited to Compensation Fund.
- Bi-monthly GST compensation to States for the period 2017-18, 2018-19 was released on time out of the Compensation Fund. As the States’ protected revenue has been growing at 14% compounded growth whereas the Cess collection did not increase in the same proportion, COVID-19 further increased the gap between projected revenue and the actual revenue receipt including a reduction in cess collection.
Incorrect
- Goods and Services Tax was introduced in the country w.e.f. 1st July 2017 and States were assured compensation for loss of any revenue arising on account of implementation of GST as per the provisions of the GST (Compensation to States) Act, 2017 for a period of five years. For providing compensation to States, Cess is being levied on certain goods and the amount of Cess collected is being credited to Compensation Fund.
- Bi-monthly GST compensation to States for the period 2017-18, 2018-19 was released on time out of the Compensation Fund. As the States’ protected revenue has been growing at 14% compounded growth whereas the Cess collection did not increase in the same proportion, COVID-19 further increased the gap between projected revenue and the actual revenue receipt including a reduction in cess collection.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Category: PolityWhich article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?
Correct
- In the Lata Singh v/s state of Uttar Pradesh case, the Supreme Court viewed the right to marry as a component of the right to life under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.
- Similar observations were made by the Supreme Court in the Hadiya case where it held that the right to marry a person of one’s choice is integral to Article 21 (right to life and liberty) of the Constitution.
- Article 21 states that no person shall be deprived of his life and personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
- Article 19 embodies basic freedoms.
- Article 25 is with respect to religious rights.
- Article 29 grants protection to both religious and linguistic minorities.
Incorrect
- In the Lata Singh v/s state of Uttar Pradesh case, the Supreme Court viewed the right to marry as a component of the right to life under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.
- Similar observations were made by the Supreme Court in the Hadiya case where it held that the right to marry a person of one’s choice is integral to Article 21 (right to life and liberty) of the Constitution.
- Article 21 states that no person shall be deprived of his life and personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
- Article 19 embodies basic freedoms.
- Article 25 is with respect to religious rights.
- Article 29 grants protection to both religious and linguistic minorities.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Category: International RelationsConsider the following statements with regards to international trains: (Level – Easy)
- The Samjhauta Express ran between India & Pakistan.
- The Thar Express provided direct connectivity between India & Pakistan on the basis of the Simla agreement.
- The Maitree Express connects India with Nepal.
Choose the correct code.
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, The Samjhauta Express is a bi-weekly train that operated between Delhi and Attari in India and Lahore in Pakistan.
- Samjhauta in Hindi means “agreement” and “accord”.
- Statement 2 is correct, The Thar Express was an international passenger train that ran between Jodhpur in the Indian State of Rajasthan and Karachi Cantonment of Karachi in Pakistan.
- Statement 3 is not correct, The Maitree Express connects India with Bangladesh.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, The Samjhauta Express is a bi-weekly train that operated between Delhi and Attari in India and Lahore in Pakistan.
- Samjhauta in Hindi means “agreement” and “accord”.
- Statement 2 is correct, The Thar Express was an international passenger train that ran between Jodhpur in the Indian State of Rajasthan and Karachi Cantonment of Karachi in Pakistan.
- Statement 3 is not correct, The Maitree Express connects India with Bangladesh.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Category: SchemesThe ‘Har Ghar Dastak’ campaign is associated with which of the following? (Level – Medium)
Correct
- ‘Har Ghar Dastak’ is a nationwide COVID-19 vaccination campaign.
Incorrect
- ‘Har Ghar Dastak’ is a nationwide COVID-19 vaccination campaign.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Category: International RelationsConsider the following statements with regards to IMF’s Extended Fund Facility: (Level – Difficult)
- The EFF was established to provide assistance to countries experiencing serious payment imbalances because of structural impediments or slow growth and an inherently weak balance-of-payments position.
- Amounts drawn under an EFF are to be repaid over 4½–10 years in 12 equal semi-annual instalments.
- Extended arrangements are typically approved for periods of three years, but may be approved for periods as long as 4 years to implement deep and sustained structural reforms.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, The Extended Fund Facility (EFF) of IMF was set up to provide assistance to countries experiencing serious payment imbalances because of structural impediments or slow growth and an inherently weak balance-of-payments position.
- EFF provides support for comprehensive programs including the policies needed to correct structural imbalances over an extended period.
- Statement 2 is correct, Amounts drawn under an EFF are to be repaid over 4½–10 years in 12 equal instalments every six months.
- Statement 3 is correct, Extended arrangements are generally approved for periods of three years, but may be approved for periods as long as 4 years to implement deep and sustained structural reforms.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, The Extended Fund Facility (EFF) of IMF was set up to provide assistance to countries experiencing serious payment imbalances because of structural impediments or slow growth and an inherently weak balance-of-payments position.
- EFF provides support for comprehensive programs including the policies needed to correct structural imbalances over an extended period.
- Statement 2 is correct, Amounts drawn under an EFF are to be repaid over 4½–10 years in 12 equal instalments every six months.
- Statement 3 is correct, Extended arrangements are generally approved for periods of three years, but may be approved for periods as long as 4 years to implement deep and sustained structural reforms.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regards to the National Green Tribunal: (Level – Easy)
- The members of the NGT shall hold office for a term of five years and are not eligible for reappointment.
- The Tribunal is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure 1908, but shall be guided by principles of ‘natural justice’.
- NGT is mandated to make disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of the filing of the same.
Choose the correct statements:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, The members of the NGT hold the office for a term of five years and are not eligible for reappointment.
- Statement 2 is correct, The NGT is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but is guided by principles of “natural justice”.
- Statement 3 is correct, The NGT is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of the filing of the same.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, The members of the NGT hold the office for a term of five years and are not eligible for reappointment.
- Statement 2 is correct, The NGT is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but is guided by principles of “natural justice”.
- Statement 3 is correct, The NGT is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of the filing of the same.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements: (Level - Difficult) [UPSC 2021]
- In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
- In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
- As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of by-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, According to Section 33(7) of The Representation of the People Act, a candidate can contest from a maximum of two constituencies (more constituencies were allowed until 1996 when the RPA was amended to set the cap at two constituencies).
- Statement 2 is correct, In 1991, Haryana deputy chief minister Devi Lal contested three Lok Sabha seats namely Sikar, Rohtak and Ferozepur, as well as the Ghirai assembly seat.
- Statement 3 is not correct, The costs of the by-elections in such cases are borne by the Election Commission Of India.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, According to Section 33(7) of The Representation of the People Act, a candidate can contest from a maximum of two constituencies (more constituencies were allowed until 1996 when the RPA was amended to set the cap at two constituencies).
- Statement 2 is correct, In 1991, Haryana deputy chief minister Devi Lal contested three Lok Sabha seats namely Sikar, Rohtak and Ferozepur, as well as the Ghirai assembly seat.
- Statement 3 is not correct, The costs of the by-elections in such cases are borne by the Election Commission Of India.
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Category: PolityWith reference to the Death Penalty in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (Level – Medium)
- The Judicial Magistrate of first class and Court of Sessions can award the death sentence but the high court needs to confirm it for the death sentence to be valid.
- The Law Commission of India in its 262nd report recommended the retention of the death penalty in India.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, According to Section 28(2) of the Criminal Procedure Code 1973, A Sessions Judge or Additional Sessions Judge may pass any sentence authorized by law, but any sentence of death passed by any Judge shall be subject to confirmation by the High Court.
- The Court of a Magistrate of the first class can pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding three years, or of fine not exceeding ten thousand rupees, or both. Hence a Judicial Magistrate of the first class cannot award a death sentence.
- Statement 2 is not correct, In 1962, the Law Commission, in its 35th report, had recommended the retention of the death penalty.
- The 262nd Law Commission of India’s report on the death penalty has recommended the abolition of the death penalty for all offences except those related to terrorism.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, According to Section 28(2) of the Criminal Procedure Code 1973, A Sessions Judge or Additional Sessions Judge may pass any sentence authorized by law, but any sentence of death passed by any Judge shall be subject to confirmation by the High Court.
- The Court of a Magistrate of the first class can pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding three years, or of fine not exceeding ten thousand rupees, or both. Hence a Judicial Magistrate of the first class cannot award a death sentence.
- Statement 2 is not correct, In 1962, the Law Commission, in its 35th report, had recommended the retention of the death penalty.
- The 262nd Law Commission of India’s report on the death penalty has recommended the abolition of the death penalty for all offences except those related to terrorism.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Category: Science and Technologyonsider the following statements with respect to the Liquid mirror telescope: (Level – Medium)
- It is the country’s first and largest liquid-mirror telescope, as well as the largest in Asia.
- It is located at an altitude of 2450 metres at the Devasthal Observatory campus of Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES).
- The telescope was designed and built at the Indian Institute of Astrophysics, Bangalore.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, the International Liquid Mirror Telescope (ILMT) installed at Devasthal is the world’s first liquid mirror telescope.
- Statement 2 is correct, It is located at an altitude of 2450 metres at the Observatory of the Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES) in Nainital, Uttarakhand which is an autonomous institute under the Department of Science and Technology.
- Statement 3 is not correct, International Liquid mirror telescope has been constructed by a collaboration of scientists from Canada, Belgium and India.
- It was designed and built at the Advanced Mechanical and Optical Systems Corporation and the Centre Spatial de Liege, Belgium.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, the International Liquid Mirror Telescope (ILMT) installed at Devasthal is the world’s first liquid mirror telescope.
- Statement 2 is correct, It is located at an altitude of 2450 metres at the Observatory of the Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES) in Nainital, Uttarakhand which is an autonomous institute under the Department of Science and Technology.
- Statement 3 is not correct, International Liquid mirror telescope has been constructed by a collaboration of scientists from Canada, Belgium and India.
- It was designed and built at the Advanced Mechanical and Optical Systems Corporation and the Centre Spatial de Liege, Belgium.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Category: Art and CultureConsider the following statements: (Level – Difficult)
- Sufiana Gharana of Kashmir is the only Hindustani Classical Music Gharana from Jammu and Kashmir.
- Santoor is an Indian stringed musical instrument.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, Sufiana Gharana of Kashmir is the only Hindustani Classical Music Gharana from Jammu and Kashmir.
- Statement 2 is correct, Santoor is a stringed instrument that has many variations all over the world and is popular in Hindustani classical music.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, Sufiana Gharana of Kashmir is the only Hindustani Classical Music Gharana from Jammu and Kashmir.
- Statement 2 is correct, Santoor is a stringed instrument that has many variations all over the world and is popular in Hindustani classical music.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Category: HistoryWhich of the following statements with respect to Guru Arjan Dev is/are correct? (Level – Difficult)
- He laid the foundation of Harmandir Sahib Gurudwara, popularly known as the Golden Temple in Amritsar.
- He was the founder of major cities of Punjab such as Tarn Taran Sahib and Kartarpur.
- He was executed by Aurangzeb on charges of helping prince Khusrau with money and prayer.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, Guru Arjan Dev built the Harmandar, which is popularly known as the Golden Temple.
- Statement 2 is correct, Guru Arjan Dev became the founder of the major cities of Punjab such as Tarn Taran Sahib and Kartarpur.
- Statement 3 is not correct, Guru Arjan Dev was captured and executed by Mughal Emperor Jahangir because of his increasing influence among people and also the spread of Sikhism.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, Guru Arjan Dev built the Harmandar, which is popularly known as the Golden Temple.
- Statement 2 is correct, Guru Arjan Dev became the founder of the major cities of Punjab such as Tarn Taran Sahib and Kartarpur.
- Statement 3 is not correct, Guru Arjan Dev was captured and executed by Mughal Emperor Jahangir because of his increasing influence among people and also the spread of Sikhism.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWater can dissolve more substances than any other liquid because (Level – Difficult) [PYQ 2021]
Correct
- Water molecule has a positive and negative pole due to the uneven distribution of electrons within it, called dipolar.
- This dipolar nature of water molecules helps it to dissolve other polar molecules (positive or negative) very easily.
Hence option a is correct.
Incorrect
- Water molecule has a positive and negative pole due to the uneven distribution of electrons within it, called dipolar.
- This dipolar nature of water molecules helps it to dissolve other polar molecules (positive or negative) very easily.
Hence option a is correct.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Category: HistoryConsider the following statements with regards to Arya Samaj: (Level – Easy)
- The Samaj opposes worship of murtis (images), animal sacrifice, shraddha (rituals on behalf of ancestors), basing caste upon birth rather than upon merit, untouchability, child marriage, pilgrimages, priestly craft, and temple offerings.
- It has worked to further female education and intercaste marriage, has built missions, orphanages, and homes for widows, has established a network of schools and colleges, and has undertaken famine relief and medical work.
- It upholds the infallibility of the Vedas and the doctrines of karma.
Choose the correct code.
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, The Arya Samaj opposes worship of murtis (images), animal sacrifice, shraddha (rituals on behalf of ancestors), basing caste upon birth rather than upon merit, untouchability, child marriage, pilgrimages, priestly craft, and temple offerings.
- Statement 2 is correct, Arya Samaj has worked to further female education and intercaste marriage, built missions, orphanages, and homes for widows, established a network of schools and colleges; and undertaken famine relief and medical work.
- Statement 3 is correct, Arya Samaj upholds the infallibility of the Vedas, the doctrines of karma (the accumulated effect of past deeds) and samsara (the process of death and rebirth), the sanctity of the cow and the importance of the samskaras (individual sacraments).
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, The Arya Samaj opposes worship of murtis (images), animal sacrifice, shraddha (rituals on behalf of ancestors), basing caste upon birth rather than upon merit, untouchability, child marriage, pilgrimages, priestly craft, and temple offerings.
- Statement 2 is correct, Arya Samaj has worked to further female education and intercaste marriage, built missions, orphanages, and homes for widows, established a network of schools and colleges; and undertaken famine relief and medical work.
- Statement 3 is correct, Arya Samaj upholds the infallibility of the Vedas, the doctrines of karma (the accumulated effect of past deeds) and samsara (the process of death and rebirth), the sanctity of the cow and the importance of the samskaras (individual sacraments).
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyThe recently discovered plant – ribbon weed, or Posidonia australis, in Australia’s Shark Bay, is unique because it is (Level – Difficult)
Correct
- The Ribbon weed (Posidonia australis), recently discovered in Shark Bay of Australia is said to be the world’s largest plant.
- It is a seagrass that stretches for about 180 km in length.
- The ribbon weed covers an area of 20,000 hectares and the next largest plant is the clonal colony of a quaking Aspen tree in Utah, which covers 43.6 hectares.
- The largest tree in India is the Great Banyan in Howrah’s Botanical Garden which covers 1.41 hectares.
Incorrect
- The Ribbon weed (Posidonia australis), recently discovered in Shark Bay of Australia is said to be the world’s largest plant.
- It is a seagrass that stretches for about 180 km in length.
- The ribbon weed covers an area of 20,000 hectares and the next largest plant is the clonal colony of a quaking Aspen tree in Utah, which covers 43.6 hectares.
- The largest tree in India is the Great Banyan in Howrah’s Botanical Garden which covers 1.41 hectares.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Category: SchemesConsider the following statements with regards to the Employee’s Provident Fund Organization: (Level – Easy)
- It is a government organization that manages provident funds and pension accounts for the workforce engaged in the organized sector in India.
- It implements the Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952.
- It is administered by the Ministry of Commerce & Industry.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, Employee’s Provident Fund Organization (EPFO) is a government organization that manages provident funds and pension accounts for the workforce engaged in the organized sector in India.
- Statement 2 is correct, EPFO came into existence through the Employee Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provision Act, 1952.
- Statement 3 is not correct, EPFO works under the aegis of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, Employee’s Provident Fund Organization (EPFO) is a government organization that manages provident funds and pension accounts for the workforce engaged in the organized sector in India.
- Statement 2 is correct, EPFO came into existence through the Employee Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provision Act, 1952.
- Statement 3 is not correct, EPFO works under the aegis of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Category: GovernanceConsider the following statements with regards to the National Achievement Survey (NAS): (Level – Medium)
- The NAS is an exercise carried out annually to monitor the health of the country’s school education system.
- It assesses the students at the end of classes 3, 5, 8 and 10.
- The first edition was carried out in 2001.
Choose the correct statements:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, NAS is a nationwide survey to assess the learning outcomes and health of the education system conducted by the Ministry of Education.
- It is conducted once every three years.
- Statement 2 is correct, NAS assesses the students at the end of classes 3, 5, 8 and 10.
- Statement 3 is correct, The first edition was conducted in 2001.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, NAS is a nationwide survey to assess the learning outcomes and health of the education system conducted by the Ministry of Education.
- It is conducted once every three years.
- Statement 2 is correct, NAS assesses the students at the end of classes 3, 5, 8 and 10.
- Statement 3 is correct, The first edition was conducted in 2001.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWhich one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in Light-years? (Level – Medium) [UPSC 2021]
Correct
- A light-year is the distance a beam of light travels in a vacuum in one year.
- The reason for measuring astronomical distances in light-years is that familiar units like kilometres and miles are small for describing the vastness of the cosmos but the speed of light is both finite and constant with a value of approximately 2.998 x 108 m/s.
- Hence option d is correct.
Incorrect
- A light-year is the distance a beam of light travels in a vacuum in one year.
- The reason for measuring astronomical distances in light-years is that familiar units like kilometres and miles are small for describing the vastness of the cosmos but the speed of light is both finite and constant with a value of approximately 2.998 x 108 m/s.
- Hence option d is correct.
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