UPSC 2020: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz May 09 – May 15 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from May 09 – May 15 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.
Post your scores in the comment section below!
Quiz-summary
0 of 30 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
Information
Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz May 09 – May 15
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Average score |
|
Your score |
|
Categories
- Art and Culture 0%
- Current Affairs 0%
- Economy 0%
- Environment and Ecology 0%
- Geography 0%
- History 0%
- International Relations 0%
- Polity 0%
- Science and Technology 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Category: HistoryWhich of the following is/are correct?
- In the early Palaeolithic Age, tools were mainly made stones as the core part.
- Early Palaeolithic people had no knowledge of cultivation.
- The time period of the Upper Palaeolithic Age is between 40000 BCE to 10000 BCE.
Correct
All the statements are correct.
Incorrect
All the statements are correct.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Category: HistoryWhich of the following is/are correct statements?
- Vishnu Shridhar Wakankar is known as the ‘father of rock art’ in India.
- Bhimbetka rock shelters are located in the Raisen District of Madhya Pradesh.
Correct
Both are correct.
Incorrect
Both are correct.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Category: HistoryWhich of the following statements is/are correct about the Jizya?
- It was a pilgrimage tax levied on non-muslims under the Sultanate rule.
- It was collected through special officers called barids.
Correct
Both are incorrect. Jizya was not a pilgrimage tax. Barids were intelligent officers.
Incorrect
Both are incorrect. Jizya was not a pilgrimage tax. Barids were intelligent officers.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Category: HistoryWhich of the following is/are correct with respect to the spread of Tantricism in the 6th century CE?
- It laid great stress on magic rituals.
- It intended to satisfy the materialistic desires of people.
- It admitted women and Shudras to its rank.
Correct
All the statements are correct.
Incorrect
All the statements are correct.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Category: HistoryWith reference to the art and archaeological history of India, which one of the following was made the earliest?
Correct
Port city of Lothal.
Incorrect
Port city of Lothal.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Category: HistoryWith reference to the Samkhya School of Philosophy, which of the following is/are correct?
- It does not recognise the existence of God.
- It believes in liberation of the soul through self-knowledge.
Correct
Both are correct.
Incorrect
Both are correct.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Category: HistoryWhich of the following is/are correct with respect to the Shulba Sutras?
- They are texts containing geometry related to fire-altar construction.
- They are part of the larger corpus of texts called the Shrauta Sutras.
Correct
Both are correct.
Incorrect
Both are correct.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Category: Art and CultureThe walls of the central small shrine are devoid of carvings and are left plain as the temple faces the east, and every year, at the time of the equinoxes, the sun shines directly into this central shrine. The above description best describes which of the following?
Correct
Sun Temple, Modhera
Incorrect
Sun Temple, Modhera
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Category: HistoryWhich of the following were the reasons for the decline of trade from the 6th century CE?
- Decline of the Roman Empire.
- Silk trade with Iran was stopped.
- The Arabs practically monopolised the export trade of India.
Correct
All three are correct.
Incorrect
All three are correct.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Category: HistoryWhich of the following is/are correct about the Cripps Mission?
- For the first time, the British government acknowledged India’s right to be a dominion.
- The Mission was rejected by the INC, the Muslim League and other Indian groups.
Correct
Both are correct.
Incorrect
Both are correct.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Category: GeographyWhich of the following is incorrect regarding Pangea, the supercontinent?
Correct
Pangea broke up into two continents 200 million years ago – Statements is incorrect. Pangea began to break apart 175 million years ago.
Incorrect
Pangea broke up into two continents 200 million years ago – Statements is incorrect. Pangea began to break apart 175 million years ago.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Category: GeographyWhich of the following is/are correct about the formation of the Himalayas?
- Himalayas were formed because of the collision between the Indian plate and the Eurasian plate.
- They are formed of the sediments of the Tethys Sea.
Correct
Both are correct.
Incorrect
Both are correct.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Category: GeographyWhich of the following is/are correct regarding the Peninsular Plateau of India?
- It extends from the south of the Indo-Gangetic Plains to Kanyakumari.
- It was originally a part of Gondwanaland and is one of the oldest structures of the earth.
Correct
Both are correct.
Incorrect
Both are correct.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with respect to the National Health Authority (NHA):
- National Health Authority is the apex body responsible for implementing Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY).
- It is the successor of the National Health Agency.
- It is governed by a Governing Board chaired by the Prime Minister.
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
1 and 2 only are correct.
- National Health Authority is the apex body responsible for implementing Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY).
- National Health Authority is the successor of the National Health Agency, which was functioning as a registered society.
- NHA is governed by a Governing Board chaired by the Union Minister for Health and Family Welfare. It is headed by a Chief Executive Officer (CEO), an officer of the rank of Secretary to the Government of India, who manages its affairs.
Incorrect
1 and 2 only are correct.
- National Health Authority is the apex body responsible for implementing Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY).
- National Health Authority is the successor of the National Health Agency, which was functioning as a registered society.
- NHA is governed by a Governing Board chaired by the Union Minister for Health and Family Welfare. It is headed by a Chief Executive Officer (CEO), an officer of the rank of Secretary to the Government of India, who manages its affairs.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Category: Science and Technology“Miranda” and “Titania” are the moons of planet:
Correct
Uranus.
Uranus has five major moons: Miranda, Ariel, Umbriel, Titania, and Oberon.
Incorrect
Uranus.
Uranus has five major moons: Miranda, Ariel, Umbriel, Titania, and Oberon.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Category: EconomyConsider the following statements with respect to SEBI:
- It was established as a statutory body for regulating the securities market.
- Commodities derivative markets is also regulated by SEBI.
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
Both are correct.
- Initially SEBI was a non-statutory body without any statutory power. However, in 1992, the SEBI was given additional statutory power by the Government of India through an amendment to the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992.
- In April 1988 the SEBI was constituted as the regulator of capital markets in India under a resolution of the Government of India.
- In 2015, the Forward Market Commission was merged with SEBI.
- With this, the regulation of commodity derivatives market has shifted to SEBI under Securities Contracts Regulation Act (SCRA) 1956.
Incorrect
Both are correct.
- Initially SEBI was a non-statutory body without any statutory power. However, in 1992, the SEBI was given additional statutory power by the Government of India through an amendment to the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992.
- In April 1988 the SEBI was constituted as the regulator of capital markets in India under a resolution of the Government of India.
- In 2015, the Forward Market Commission was merged with SEBI.
- With this, the regulation of commodity derivatives market has shifted to SEBI under Securities Contracts Regulation Act (SCRA) 1956.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Category: EconomyWhich of the following statement/s is/are correct?
- The Rebate of State and Central Taxes and Levies scheme is directed at incentivizing exports from India.
- The Rebate of State and Central Taxes and Levies scheme is applicable for the export of garments and made-ups only.
Options:
Correct
Both are correct statements.
Incorrect
Both are correct statements.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following is/are correct?
- Birds account for the largest number of species listed in the list of migratory species as per the Conservation of Migratory Species Appendices.
- India alone accounts for around 450 species of the total 650 species globally listed under the CMS Appendices.
Options:
Correct
Both are correct.
- Currently, the total number of migratory fauna from India numbers 457 species.
- Birds account for the largest share of the migratory species, accounting for about 83% (380 species).
- India alone accounts for around 450 species of the total 650 species globally listed under the CMS Appendices.
Incorrect
Both are correct.
- Currently, the total number of migratory fauna from India numbers 457 species.
- Birds account for the largest share of the migratory species, accounting for about 83% (380 species).
- India alone accounts for around 450 species of the total 650 species globally listed under the CMS Appendices.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following statements is/are correct with respect to fishing cats?
- They are found in south and south-east Asia only.
- It is listed as endangered on the IUCN Red List.
- In India, the fishing cat is included in Schedule II of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Options:
Correct
Statement 1 is only correct.
- The fishing cats are found in very few places in the south and south-east Asia.
- It is broadly but discontinuously distributed in Asia and is primarily found in the Terai region of the Himalayan foothills in India and Nepal, in eastern India, Bangladesh and Sri Lanka.
- Since 2016, the fishing cat is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List, which means that it faces a high threat of extinction in the wild.
- In India, the fishing cat is included in Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and thereby protected from hunting.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is only correct.
- The fishing cats are found in very few places in the south and south-east Asia.
- It is broadly but discontinuously distributed in Asia and is primarily found in the Terai region of the Himalayan foothills in India and Nepal, in eastern India, Bangladesh and Sri Lanka.
- Since 2016, the fishing cat is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List, which means that it faces a high threat of extinction in the wild.
- In India, the fishing cat is included in Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and thereby protected from hunting.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Category: Current AffairsWhich of the given states is/are involved in the Cauvery and Godavari River linking project?
- Andhra Pradesh
- Odisha
- Chhattisgarh
- Madhya Pradesh
- Karnataka
Choose the correct option:
Correct
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.
The States involved in the Cauvery and Godavari river-linking project are Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh.
Incorrect
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.
The States involved in the Cauvery and Godavari river-linking project are Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh.
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements:
- Blockchains are data structures that are cryptography-based and distributed across a network.
- Blockchains eliminate the need for an intermediary to handle financial services.
- Blockchain technology supports cryptocurrencies and the transfer of any data but not the transfer of digital assets.
Which of the given statement/s is/are incorrect?
Correct
Statement 3 is incorrect.
Blockchains are data structures that are cryptography-based and distributed across a network. Blockchains eliminate the need for an intermediary to handle financial services. The technology supports cryptocurrencies such as Bitcoin and the transfer of any data or digital asset.
Incorrect
Statement 3 is incorrect.
Blockchains are data structures that are cryptography-based and distributed across a network. Blockchains eliminate the need for an intermediary to handle financial services. The technology supports cryptocurrencies such as Bitcoin and the transfer of any data or digital asset.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with respect to National Anti-profiteering Authority (NAA):
- The NAA is the statutory mechanism under GST law.
- The aim of the NAA is to ensure the benefits of reduction or lower taxes under the GST regime are passed onto the end consumers.
- In the event of a business failing to pass on the benefit of lower taxes under GST to the customer, NAA does not have the authority to deregister the entity.
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
1 and 2 only are correct.
The National Anti-profiteering Authority (NAA) is the statutory mechanism under GST law. The primary aim of the NAA is to ensure the benefits of reduction or lower taxes under the GST regime are passed onto the end consumers. NAA has the authority to deregister an entity or business if it fails to pass on the benefit of lower taxes under GST to the customer.
Incorrect
1 and 2 only are correct.
The National Anti-profiteering Authority (NAA) is the statutory mechanism under GST law. The primary aim of the NAA is to ensure the benefits of reduction or lower taxes under the GST regime are passed onto the end consumers. NAA has the authority to deregister an entity or business if it fails to pass on the benefit of lower taxes under GST to the customer.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Category: Environment and Ecology“Amrabad Tiger Reserve” is located in:
Correct
Telangana.
Amrabad Tiger Reserve was earlier a part of the ‘Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve (NSTR)’ but post-bifurcation of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh, the northern part of the reserve is vested with Telangana state and is renamed as ‘Amrabad Tiger Reserve’. The southern portion continues to be ‘NSTR’ and is with Andhra Pradesh.
Incorrect
Telangana.
Amrabad Tiger Reserve was earlier a part of the ‘Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve (NSTR)’ but post-bifurcation of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh, the northern part of the reserve is vested with Telangana state and is renamed as ‘Amrabad Tiger Reserve’. The southern portion continues to be ‘NSTR’ and is with Andhra Pradesh.
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements:
- Designation of a place as UNESCO World Heritage Site provides prima facie evidence that such a site is legally protected pursuant to the Law of War, under the Geneva Convention.
- The latest addition to the UNESCO World Heritage Site from India was Jaipur.
- There are 38 places in India, designated as UNESCO World Heritage Sites.
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
All the statements are correct.
- A UNESCO World Heritage Site is a place that is listed by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) as of special cultural or physical significance.
- UNESCO designation as a World Heritage Site provides prima facie evidence that such culturally sensitive sites are legally protected pursuant to the Law of War, under the Geneva Convention, its articles, protocols and customs, together with other treaties including the Hague Convention for the Protection of Cultural Property in the Event of Armed Conflict and international law.
- In July 2019, Jaipur was added to the list of UNESCO World Heritage Sites from India. With this, India got its 38th UNESCO World Heritage Site.
- The capital city of Jaipur, included in the list of world heritage sites, was founded in 1727 by the then Kachwaha Rajput ruler of Amber, Sawai Jai Singh II.
- The city was established on the plains and built according to a grid plan interpreted in the light of Vedic architecture.
- India has 38 world heritage sites that include 30 Cultural heritage sites, 7 Natural sites and 1 mixed site.
Incorrect
All the statements are correct.
- A UNESCO World Heritage Site is a place that is listed by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) as of special cultural or physical significance.
- UNESCO designation as a World Heritage Site provides prima facie evidence that such culturally sensitive sites are legally protected pursuant to the Law of War, under the Geneva Convention, its articles, protocols and customs, together with other treaties including the Hague Convention for the Protection of Cultural Property in the Event of Armed Conflict and international law.
- In July 2019, Jaipur was added to the list of UNESCO World Heritage Sites from India. With this, India got its 38th UNESCO World Heritage Site.
- The capital city of Jaipur, included in the list of world heritage sites, was founded in 1727 by the then Kachwaha Rajput ruler of Amber, Sawai Jai Singh II.
- The city was established on the plains and built according to a grid plan interpreted in the light of Vedic architecture.
- India has 38 world heritage sites that include 30 Cultural heritage sites, 7 Natural sites and 1 mixed site.
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Category: PolityWhich of the following is/are correct?
- When the question of disqualification of a member on account of defection arises, the decision of the Speaker or the Chairman of the House is final.
- A member who is disqualified for being a member of that House under the 10th Schedule shall also be disqualified to be appointed as a Minister until the time he is re-elected as a member of the house.
- Under the Anti-defection law provisions, no court shall have any jurisdiction with respect to the matter connected with the disqualification of a member of a House under the 10th Schedule.
Correct
All the statements are correct.
Judicial Intervention:
- The 10th Schedule bars any court from having any jurisdiction in respect of matters connected with the disqualification of a member of a House under the Schedule.
- Further, Articles 122 and 212 expressly prevent the intervention of courts in the proceedings of Parliament and State Legislature.
-
- The doctrine of Basic Structure, as declared in the Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala consequently include bar of formal jurisdiction related to Articles 122 and 212.
- However, the power of the Supreme Court and the High Courts with respect to issuing writs, as given by Articles 32 and 226, remain applicable.
- In Chandra Kumar vs. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that if any provision of any law takes away the writ jurisdiction of any court, it will be deemed as a violation of the basic structure of the Constitution.
- In the Kihoto Hollohan vs. Zachillhu and Others verdict, Supreme Court laid down a balance between the judiciary’s intervention and the level of autonomy and discretion of speaker with respect to disqualification on the ground of defection:
- The law initially stated that the decision of the Presiding Officer is not subject to judicial review.
- This condition was struck down by the Supreme Court and allowed appeals in the Supreme Court and High Courts against the Presiding Officer’s decision.
- However, it held that there may not be any judicial intervention until the Presiding Officer gives his order.
- In 2015, the Hyderabad High Court refused to intervene after hearing a petition which alleged that there had been a delay by the Telangana Assembly Speaker in acting against a member under the anti-defection law.
Incorrect
All the statements are correct.
Judicial Intervention:
- The 10th Schedule bars any court from having any jurisdiction in respect of matters connected with the disqualification of a member of a House under the Schedule.
- Further, Articles 122 and 212 expressly prevent the intervention of courts in the proceedings of Parliament and State Legislature.
-
- The doctrine of Basic Structure, as declared in the Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala consequently include bar of formal jurisdiction related to Articles 122 and 212.
- However, the power of the Supreme Court and the High Courts with respect to issuing writs, as given by Articles 32 and 226, remain applicable.
- In Chandra Kumar vs. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that if any provision of any law takes away the writ jurisdiction of any court, it will be deemed as a violation of the basic structure of the Constitution.
- In the Kihoto Hollohan vs. Zachillhu and Others verdict, Supreme Court laid down a balance between the judiciary’s intervention and the level of autonomy and discretion of speaker with respect to disqualification on the ground of defection:
- The law initially stated that the decision of the Presiding Officer is not subject to judicial review.
- This condition was struck down by the Supreme Court and allowed appeals in the Supreme Court and High Courts against the Presiding Officer’s decision.
- However, it held that there may not be any judicial intervention until the Presiding Officer gives his order.
- In 2015, the Hyderabad High Court refused to intervene after hearing a petition which alleged that there had been a delay by the Telangana Assembly Speaker in acting against a member under the anti-defection law.
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Category: Current AffairsThe term Miyawaki is associated with which of the following?
Correct
Afforestation method.
- ‘Miyawaki forests’ is a highly successful technique, pioneered by Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki.
- The concept involves raising indigenous and native trees in dense plantations mimicking forest settings. It involves the preparation of the substrate if the land involved is much degraded.
- It promotes natural vegetation on degraded land.
Incorrect
Afforestation method.
- ‘Miyawaki forests’ is a highly successful technique, pioneered by Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki.
- The concept involves raising indigenous and native trees in dense plantations mimicking forest settings. It involves the preparation of the substrate if the land involved is much degraded.
- It promotes natural vegetation on degraded land.
-
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Category: PolityWhich of the following statements is/are correct?
- The Eat Right India Movement is an initiative of the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
- It involves providing fortified food to infants and lactating mothers at Anganwadi Centres.
Options:
Correct
Both are incorrect.
- The Eat Right India Movement is a year-long social and mass media campaign of the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI). It is the new healthy eating approach which places citizens at the centre of a Health Revolution through food and fitness.
- The strength of the ‘The Eat Right Movement’ lies in its holistic and collaborative approach, with stakeholders on both the demand and supply-side joining to make a difference through some clearly identified steps.
- On the demand side, the Eat Right Movement focuses on empowering citizens to make the right food choices.
- On the supply side, it nudges food businesses to reformulate their products, provide better nutritional information to consumers and make investments in healthy food as responsible food businesses.
- ‘The Eat Right Movement’ brings together three ongoing initiatives of FSSAI:
- Safe and Nutritious Food Initiative, focused on social and behavioural change around food safety and nutrition at home, school, workplace and on-the-go;
- The Eat Healthy Campaign focused on reduction of high fat, sugar and salt foods in the diet; and
- Food Fortification, focused on promoting five staple foods – wheat flour, rice, oil, milk and salt that are added with key vitamins and minerals to improve their nutritional content.
Incorrect
Both are incorrect.
- The Eat Right India Movement is a year-long social and mass media campaign of the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI). It is the new healthy eating approach which places citizens at the centre of a Health Revolution through food and fitness.
- The strength of the ‘The Eat Right Movement’ lies in its holistic and collaborative approach, with stakeholders on both the demand and supply-side joining to make a difference through some clearly identified steps.
- On the demand side, the Eat Right Movement focuses on empowering citizens to make the right food choices.
- On the supply side, it nudges food businesses to reformulate their products, provide better nutritional information to consumers and make investments in healthy food as responsible food businesses.
- ‘The Eat Right Movement’ brings together three ongoing initiatives of FSSAI:
- Safe and Nutritious Food Initiative, focused on social and behavioural change around food safety and nutrition at home, school, workplace and on-the-go;
- The Eat Healthy Campaign focused on reduction of high fat, sugar and salt foods in the diet; and
- Food Fortification, focused on promoting five staple foods – wheat flour, rice, oil, milk and salt that are added with key vitamins and minerals to improve their nutritional content.
-
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Category: International RelationsIndia is a member of which of these?
- Belt and Road Initiative
- The Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership
- The Indo-Pacific Business Forum
- The Blue Dot Network
- Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
Options:
Correct
None of the above.
- India is not part of the Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) of China citing sovereignty concerns over the passing of CPEC through PoK.
- India decided against signing onto the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership fearing that it would affect the domestic producers.
- The Indo-Pacific Business Forum (IPBF), was created by the U.S., Japan and Australia as also the Blue Dot network.
- The Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC), an inter-governmental forum for 21 member economies in the Pacific Rim, promotes free trade throughout the Asia-Pacific region. It includes both China and the U.S.
Incorrect
None of the above.
- India is not part of the Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) of China citing sovereignty concerns over the passing of CPEC through PoK.
- India decided against signing onto the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership fearing that it would affect the domestic producers.
- The Indo-Pacific Business Forum (IPBF), was created by the U.S., Japan and Australia as also the Blue Dot network.
- The Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC), an inter-governmental forum for 21 member economies in the Pacific Rim, promotes free trade throughout the Asia-Pacific region. It includes both China and the U.S.
-
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyThe term Drosophila is associated with which of the following?
Correct
Flies.
- Drosophila is a genus of flies, belonging to the family Drosophilidae, whose members are often called “small fruit flies”.
- Drosophila is one of the most widely used and preferred model organisms in biological research. They are ideal for the study of genetics and development given the close relationship between fruit fly and human genes.
Incorrect
Flies.
- Drosophila is a genus of flies, belonging to the family Drosophilidae, whose members are often called “small fruit flies”.
- Drosophila is one of the most widely used and preferred model organisms in biological research. They are ideal for the study of genetics and development given the close relationship between fruit fly and human genes.
-
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements:
- The Supreme Court has the ability to review any judgment declared by it.
- Review Petition, Curative Petition and Presidential Pardon are the resources available to those seeking relief from an Order of the Supreme Court.
- Curative Petition is the last judicial resort available for redressal of grievances in court.
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
All are correct statements.
The Supreme Court does have the ability to review any judgment declared by it. Review Petition, Curative Petition and Presidential Pardon are the resources available to those seeking relief from an Order of the Supreme Court. Curative Petition is the last judicial resort available for redressal of grievances in court.
Incorrect
All are correct statements.
The Supreme Court does have the ability to review any judgment declared by it. Review Petition, Curative Petition and Presidential Pardon are the resources available to those seeking relief from an Order of the Supreme Court. Curative Petition is the last judicial resort available for redressal of grievances in court.
Comments