UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz May 20 – May 26 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from May 20 – May 26 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.
Post your scores in the comment section below!
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UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz May 20 – May 26
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Category: HistoryQ1. Consider the following pairs of tribal revolts and the associated personalities. (Level: Difficult)
Tribal revolts Personality
- Khasi uprising of 1830s Tirot Sing
- Kol uprising of 1830s Budhu Bhagat
- Santhal rebellion of 1850s Sidhu Murmu
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Correct
- The Khasi rebellion occurred in 1833 in the land between the Khasi and Jaintia Hills, in protest of a planned British route across the area. The insurrection was led by Tirot Sing Syiem. The Khasis were defeated in this battle, and the British acquired control of the highlands.
- In 1831, the Kol tribesmen of Chhota Nagpur, who were upset over the exploitation by agents of the East India Company (EIC), rose in revolt against the EIC. The rebel Kols were under the leadership of Buddhu Bhagat, Joa Bhagat, Jhindrai Manki, Madara Mahato and others.
- On 30th June 1855, two years before the Great Revolt of 1857, two Santhal brothers Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu organized 10,000 Santhals and proclaimed a rebellion against the British. The tribals took an oath to drive the British away from their homeland.
Incorrect
- The Khasi rebellion occurred in 1833 in the land between the Khasi and Jaintia Hills, in protest of a planned British route across the area. The insurrection was led by Tirot Sing Syiem. The Khasis were defeated in this battle, and the British acquired control of the highlands.
- In 1831, the Kol tribesmen of Chhota Nagpur, who were upset over the exploitation by agents of the East India Company (EIC), rose in revolt against the EIC. The rebel Kols were under the leadership of Buddhu Bhagat, Joa Bhagat, Jhindrai Manki, Madara Mahato and others.
- On 30th June 1855, two years before the Great Revolt of 1857, two Santhal brothers Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu organized 10,000 Santhals and proclaimed a rebellion against the British. The tribals took an oath to drive the British away from their homeland.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following statements is/are correct with respect to surface-level Ozone pollutant? (Level: Medium)
- Ozone is a secondary pollutant.
- As per the new air quality standards notified by the environment ministry, for ozone, the limits are 100 and 180 µg/m3 respectively as 1-hour and 8-hour mean values.
Options:
Correct
- Ground-level ozone is a colourless and highly irritating gas that forms just above the earth’s surface. It is called a “secondary” pollutant because it is produced when two primary pollutants react in sunlight and stagnant air.
- Data from the Delhi Pollution Control Committee (DPCC) indicates that ozone levels were well above the 8-hour standard of 100 µg/m3 and hourly standard of 180 µg/m3 according to the National Ambient Air Quality Standards at different monitoring stations on multiple days.
Incorrect
- Ground-level ozone is a colourless and highly irritating gas that forms just above the earth’s surface. It is called a “secondary” pollutant because it is produced when two primary pollutants react in sunlight and stagnant air.
- Data from the Delhi Pollution Control Committee (DPCC) indicates that ozone levels were well above the 8-hour standard of 100 µg/m3 and hourly standard of 180 µg/m3 according to the National Ambient Air Quality Standards at different monitoring stations on multiple days.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following statements is/are correct with respect to e-waste in India? (Level: Easy)
- India is the world’s largest e-waste generator in the last two years.
- More than 90% of the e-waste generated in India is collected and scientifically disposed of.
Options:
Correct
- India is the third-largest electronic waste generator in the world after China and the USA. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- According to recent data, Only 22.7 per cent of the e-waste generated in 2019-20 in India was collected, dismantled, and recycled or disposed of. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Incorrect
- India is the third-largest electronic waste generator in the world after China and the USA. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- According to recent data, Only 22.7 per cent of the e-waste generated in 2019-20 in India was collected, dismantled, and recycled or disposed of. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Category: PolityWhich of the following are the powers enjoyed by the Rajya Sabha? (Level: Medium)
- The authority to move a subject from the State List to the Union List for a set amount of time.
- Recommending the creation of additional All-India Services.
- When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, Rajya Sabha can declare an emergency under Article 352 for a limited time.
Options:
Correct
- According to the Constitution, Rajya Sabha may pass a resolution by a majority of at least two-thirds of the Members present and voting, stating that it is fundamental or convenient in the national interest for Parliament to make law on any issue on the State List.
- The All India Services (including All India Judicial Service) can be created by the parliament of India if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution declaring that it is essential in the interest of the nation.
- If the Lok Sabha is dissolved at the time of the declaration of emergency, it must be approved by the reconstituted Lok Sabha within thirty days of its first sitting, unless it has already been approved by the Rajya Sabha.
- Hence all the Statements are correct.
Incorrect
- According to the Constitution, Rajya Sabha may pass a resolution by a majority of at least two-thirds of the Members present and voting, stating that it is fundamental or convenient in the national interest for Parliament to make law on any issue on the State List.
- The All India Services (including All India Judicial Service) can be created by the parliament of India if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution declaring that it is essential in the interest of the nation.
- If the Lok Sabha is dissolved at the time of the declaration of emergency, it must be approved by the reconstituted Lok Sabha within thirty days of its first sitting, unless it has already been approved by the Rajya Sabha.
- Hence all the Statements are correct.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyIn the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements: (Level: Medium) [UPSC 2019]
- In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created, and the physical the world is completely shut out.
- In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real life objects or surroundings.
- AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of a smart-phone or PC.
- VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Images generated by a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings in Augmented Reality (AR). Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
- A computer-generated simulation of an alternate world or reality is referred to as virtual reality. Virtual Reality (VR) creates a simulated environment while blocking out the physical world. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
- AR allows people to be present in their surroundings and enhances the experience by utilizing the camera on their smartphone or PC. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- Virtual reality has also been used for a long time in training, education, and science. Users in VR interact with the visual environment. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
Incorrect
- Images generated by a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings in Augmented Reality (AR). Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
- A computer-generated simulation of an alternate world or reality is referred to as virtual reality. Virtual Reality (VR) creates a simulated environment while blocking out the physical world. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
- AR allows people to be present in their surroundings and enhances the experience by utilizing the camera on their smartphone or PC. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- Virtual reality has also been used for a long time in training, education, and science. Users in VR interact with the visual environment. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with respect to Chief Secretary: (Level: Medium)
- The office of the Chief Secretary had its origin in the Central Government during the British rule and was created in 1799 by Lord Wellesley.
- He/she is chosen by the Governor from among the senior IAS officers of the State Cadre.
- The powers and functions of the Chief Secretary are mentioned in the ‘Rules of Business’ framed by the Central government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- The position of Chief Secretary is the most senior position in the civil services of India’s states and union territories. The office originated in the Central government during the rule of Lord Wellesley in 1799. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- The Chief Minister appoints the Chief Secretary. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Members of these services are recruited by the Centre, but their services are placed under various State cadres, and they are liable to serve under both the State and the Centre. This aspect of the All India Services strengthens the Indian federation’s unitary character. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
- The position of Chief Secretary is the most senior position in the civil services of India’s states and union territories. The office originated in the Central government during the rule of Lord Wellesley in 1799. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- The Chief Minister appoints the Chief Secretary. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Members of these services are recruited by the Centre, but their services are placed under various State cadres, and they are liable to serve under both the State and the Centre. This aspect of the All India Services strengthens the Indian federation’s unitary character. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Category: AgricultureWhich of the following statements with respect to Sugarcane is/are correct? (Level: Medium)
- Sugarcane originated in New Guinea.
- Sugar recovery is highest when the weather is dry with low humidity; bright sunshine hours, cooler nights with wide diurnal variations and very little rainfall during the ripening period.
- Maharashtra is the largest cultivator of sugarcane in India.
Options:
Correct
- Sugarcane originated in Melanesia, most probably in New Guinea, from the wild species Saccharum robustum. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- Sugar recovery is highest when the weather is dry with low humidity; bright sunshine hours, cooler nights with wide diurnal variations and very little rainfall during the ripening period. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- Uttar Pradesh is the largest cultivator of sugarcane in India. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
- Sugarcane originated in Melanesia, most probably in New Guinea, from the wild species Saccharum robustum. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- Sugar recovery is highest when the weather is dry with low humidity; bright sunshine hours, cooler nights with wide diurnal variations and very little rainfall during the ripening period. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- Uttar Pradesh is the largest cultivator of sugarcane in India. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Category: PolityWith respect to Anti-Defection law, which of the following statements is/are correct? (Level: Difficult)
- The Presiding Officer can take up a defection case suo moto.
- According to Anti Defection law a petition seeking disqualification has to be decided by the Presiding Officer within three months
Options:
Correct
- The decision on disqualification questions on the ground of defection is referred to the Speaker or the Chairman of the House, and his/her decision is final. Thus, the defection case is not taken suo moto. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- There is no time limit as per the law within which the Presiding Officers should decide on a plea for disqualification. The courts also can intervene only after the officer has made a decision, and so the only option for the petitioner is to wait until the decision is made. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Incorrect
- The decision on disqualification questions on the ground of defection is referred to the Speaker or the Chairman of the House, and his/her decision is final. Thus, the defection case is not taken suo moto. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- There is no time limit as per the law within which the Presiding Officers should decide on a plea for disqualification. The courts also can intervene only after the officer has made a decision, and so the only option for the petitioner is to wait until the decision is made. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Category: AgricultureWhich amongst the following crops are the Kharif crops? (Level: Medium)
- Rice
- Cotton
- Bajra
- Mustard
- Tur
Options:
Correct
- Kharif crops or monsoon crops are domesticated plants cultivated and harvested during the rainy (monsoon) season in South Asia, which lasts between April and October depending on the area.
Hence option A is correct.
Incorrect
- Kharif crops or monsoon crops are domesticated plants cultivated and harvested during the rainy (monsoon) season in South Asia, which lasts between April and October depending on the area.
Hence option A is correct.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWith reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant Vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements: (Level: Medium) (UPSC 2021)
- Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines.
- Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Recombinant Vector Vaccines are genetically modified and use genetic engineering to mimic the virus for which the vaccine is being produced. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Recombinant vector vaccines are live replicating viruses that have been engineered to carry extra genes derived from a pathogen, and these extra genes produce proteins that we want to generate immunity against. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- These vaccine genomes may evolve to lose the extra genes during the vaccine manufacturing process or during replication within an individual, and this evolution may severely limit the vaccine’s efficacy.
Incorrect
- Recombinant Vector Vaccines are genetically modified and use genetic engineering to mimic the virus for which the vaccine is being produced. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Recombinant vector vaccines are live replicating viruses that have been engineered to carry extra genes derived from a pathogen, and these extra genes produce proteins that we want to generate immunity against. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- These vaccine genomes may evolve to lose the extra genes during the vaccine manufacturing process or during replication within an individual, and this evolution may severely limit the vaccine’s efficacy.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Category: PolityWhich of the following statements is/are correct? (Level: Medium)
- An election to fill the vacancy caused by the expiration of the term of office of the outgoing President is required to be completed within six months of the end of the term, until which the outgoing President will serve as the caretaker President.
- Political parties can issue a whip to their members to vote in favour of a candidate like that observed in the elections to the Rajya Sabha.
Options:
Correct
- Article 62 of the Indian Constitution states that there shall be an election to fill the vacancy caused by the expiration of the term of office of the outgoing President and the election shall be conducted before the expiry of the term. This makes statement 1 incorrect.
- Political parties cannot issue a whip to their members to vote in favour of a candidate in the case of Rajya Sabha Elections. This makes option 2 incorrect.
- Therefore, ‘d’ is the correct answer.
Incorrect
- Article 62 of the Indian Constitution states that there shall be an election to fill the vacancy caused by the expiration of the term of office of the outgoing President and the election shall be conducted before the expiry of the term. This makes statement 1 incorrect.
- Political parties cannot issue a whip to their members to vote in favour of a candidate in the case of Rajya Sabha Elections. This makes option 2 incorrect.
- Therefore, ‘d’ is the correct answer.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Category: Current AffairsConsider the following statements with respect to the World Investment Report: (Level: Medium)
- It is published by the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development.
- As per this report, India is the third-largest Foreign Direct Investment receiving country after China and the U.S.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
- The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development releases the World Investment Report annually to determine and assess the global trend of Foreign Direct Investment. This makes option 1 correct.
- According to the World Investment Report 2021, India is in the 7th position as FDI recipient. The US receives the highest FDI inflows and is at the top position (1st Rank) as per the report. This makes option 2 incorrect.
- The right answer is ‘a’.
Incorrect
- The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development releases the World Investment Report annually to determine and assess the global trend of Foreign Direct Investment. This makes option 1 correct.
- According to the World Investment Report 2021, India is in the 7th position as FDI recipient. The US receives the highest FDI inflows and is at the top position (1st Rank) as per the report. This makes option 2 incorrect.
- The right answer is ‘a’.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Category: GeographyConsider the following pairs of seas and bordering countries. (Level: Medium)
Sea Bordering country
- Aegean Sea Turkey
- Sea of Okhotsk Japan
- Adriatic Sea Italy
- Tasman Sea Australia
Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Correct
- The Aegean Sea is situated between Greece and Turkey. It is bordered by Greece, Turkey, North Macedonia, Serbia, and Bulgaria. This makes option 1 correct.
- The Sea of Okhotsk is bordered by Japan and Russia (the Kamchatka Peninsula). Therefore, option 2 is correct.
- The countries which coasts on the Adriatic Sea include Albania, Bosnia, Herzegovina, Croatia, Montenegro, Italy and Slovenia. This makes option 3 correct.
- The Tasman Sea is bordered by Australia on the west and New Zealand on the east. This makes option 4 correct.
- Therefore, ‘c’ (1,2,3,4) is the correct answer.
Incorrect
- The Aegean Sea is situated between Greece and Turkey. It is bordered by Greece, Turkey, North Macedonia, Serbia, and Bulgaria. This makes option 1 correct.
- The Sea of Okhotsk is bordered by Japan and Russia (the Kamchatka Peninsula). Therefore, option 2 is correct.
- The countries which coasts on the Adriatic Sea include Albania, Bosnia, Herzegovina, Croatia, Montenegro, Italy and Slovenia. This makes option 3 correct.
- The Tasman Sea is bordered by Australia on the west and New Zealand on the east. This makes option 4 correct.
- Therefore, ‘c’ (1,2,3,4) is the correct answer.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Category: EconomyWhich of the following statements is/are incorrect with respect to bond yields? (Level: Difficult)
- There is an inverse relationship between bond price and bond yield.
- Higher interest rates in the economy will lead to a lowering in the bond yields.
Options:
Correct
- There exists an inverse relationship between the bond price and bond yield. When the bond price is lower than the face value, the bond yield is higher than the coupon rate. This makes option 1 correct.
- Conversely, when interest rates rise, newer bonds will pay investors better interest rates than existing bonds. Here, the older bonds are less attractive and will drop their prices as compensation and sell at a discounted price. This makes option 2 incorrect.
- As the question is asking for the incorrect statement, the correct answer is ‘b’ (2 only).
Incorrect
- There exists an inverse relationship between the bond price and bond yield. When the bond price is lower than the face value, the bond yield is higher than the coupon rate. This makes option 1 correct.
- Conversely, when interest rates rise, newer bonds will pay investors better interest rates than existing bonds. Here, the older bonds are less attractive and will drop their prices as compensation and sell at a discounted price. This makes option 2 incorrect.
- As the question is asking for the incorrect statement, the correct answer is ‘b’ (2 only).
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Category: HealthWhich of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India? (Level: Medium)
- Genetic predisposition of some people
- Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases
- Using antibiotics in livestock farming
- Multiple chronic diseases in some people
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
- The reasons for multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India include taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases, using antibiotics in livestock farming, rapid mutation, gene recombination happening in the microorganisms, enzymatic inactivation of the drug by the microorganism, development of proteinaceous pumps and so on. This makes options 2 and 3 correct.
- Genetic predisposition of some people and Multiple chronic diseases in some people cannot be related to multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens. This makes options 1 & 4 incorrect.
- Therefore, ‘b’ is the right answer.
Incorrect
- The reasons for multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India include taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases, using antibiotics in livestock farming, rapid mutation, gene recombination happening in the microorganisms, enzymatic inactivation of the drug by the microorganism, development of proteinaceous pumps and so on. This makes options 2 and 3 correct.
- Genetic predisposition of some people and Multiple chronic diseases in some people cannot be related to multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens. This makes options 1 & 4 incorrect.
- Therefore, ‘b’ is the right answer.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Category: GeographyConsider the following statements:
- Jaduguda is the first mine in the country to produce uranium ore in a commercial scale
- Uranium deposits are not found in Northeastern states
- Uranium has applications in the counterweights of aircraft control surfaces and radiation shielding.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Jaduguda is the deepest operating underground mine in the country. It has a depth of nearly 3000 feet, one of the deepest in the country. It was the first uranium mine in India. Hence statement 1 is correct
- As per the Atomic Minerals Division (AMD), among the Northeastern states, uranium deposits are so far available only in Meghalaya. Hence statement 2 is incorrect
- Uranium is primarily used as a fuel in nuclear power reactors to generate energy. Aside from producing around 14% of the world’s power, uranium is used for a variety of other important purposes, including: Radioisotopes are utilized in medicine for diagnosis and research. It is also used in the counterweights of aircraft control surfaces and radiation shielding. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
- Jaduguda is the deepest operating underground mine in the country. It has a depth of nearly 3000 feet, one of the deepest in the country. It was the first uranium mine in India. Hence statement 1 is correct
- As per the Atomic Minerals Division (AMD), among the Northeastern states, uranium deposits are so far available only in Meghalaya. Hence statement 2 is incorrect
- Uranium is primarily used as a fuel in nuclear power reactors to generate energy. Aside from producing around 14% of the world’s power, uranium is used for a variety of other important purposes, including: Radioisotopes are utilized in medicine for diagnosis and research. It is also used in the counterweights of aircraft control surfaces and radiation shielding. Hence statement 3 is correct.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Category: HealthWhich one among the following statements best describes Amyloidosis?
Correct
Amyloidosis is a rare disease that occurs when an abnormal protein, called amyloid, builds up in your organs and interferes with their normal function. Amyloid isn’t normally found in the body, but it can be formed from several different types of protein.
Hence option B is correct.
Incorrect
Amyloidosis is a rare disease that occurs when an abnormal protein, called amyloid, builds up in your organs and interferes with their normal function. Amyloid isn’t normally found in the body, but it can be formed from several different types of protein.
Hence option B is correct.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyFernandina Giant Tortoise is listed in the IUCN Red List as:
Correct
- Chelonoidis niger phantasticus is a subspecies of Galápagos tortoise that was discovered in 1906 and thought extinct, until a single female was discovered living on Fernandina Island by an expedition in February 2019.
- According to the IUCN Red List, six are considered Critically Endangered, three Endangered, three Vulnerable, and two Extinct. In the case of the Fernandina tortoise, it is probably extinct but anecdotal information suggests that a few individuals may remain.
- Hence option A is correct.
Incorrect
- Chelonoidis niger phantasticus is a subspecies of Galápagos tortoise that was discovered in 1906 and thought extinct, until a single female was discovered living on Fernandina Island by an expedition in February 2019.
- According to the IUCN Red List, six are considered Critically Endangered, three Endangered, three Vulnerable, and two Extinct. In the case of the Fernandina tortoise, it is probably extinct but anecdotal information suggests that a few individuals may remain.
- Hence option A is correct.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Category: HistoryWhich of the following statements about Sant Tukaram is/are correct?
- He was a contemporary of Maratha ruler Shivaji Maharaj
- He pointed out the evil of wrongdoings of society, social system and Maharajs by his kirtans and abhangs.
Options:
Correct
- Sant Tukaram is a 17th-century poet-saint who was a contemporary of Shivaji Maharaj, Eknath and Ramdas. His poetry was dedicated to Vithoba or Vitthala, an incarnation of Vishnu, the Hindu God.
- Tukaram was a Bhakti saint of Maharashtra and was said to be a contemporary of Shivaji.
- Tukaram is most known for his religious poetry known as Abhanga, as well as his community-oriented worship with spiritual melodies known as kirtans. Tukaram pointed out the evil of wrongdoings of the society, social system and Maharajs by his kirtans and Abhangs.
- Hence both statements are correct.
Incorrect
- Sant Tukaram is a 17th-century poet-saint who was a contemporary of Shivaji Maharaj, Eknath and Ramdas. His poetry was dedicated to Vithoba or Vitthala, an incarnation of Vishnu, the Hindu God.
- Tukaram was a Bhakti saint of Maharashtra and was said to be a contemporary of Shivaji.
- Tukaram is most known for his religious poetry known as Abhanga, as well as his community-oriented worship with spiritual melodies known as kirtans. Tukaram pointed out the evil of wrongdoings of the society, social system and Maharajs by his kirtans and Abhangs.
- Hence both statements are correct.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Category: AgricultureAmong the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide ?
Correct
Wet rice fields, livestock, animal waste, landfills, and biomass burning are all significant anthropogenic sources of biogenic methane. Land-use change, fertiliser production and usage, and manure application are all significant anthropogenic sources of biogenic nitrous oxide.
Hence Option B is correct.
Incorrect
Wet rice fields, livestock, animal waste, landfills, and biomass burning are all significant anthropogenic sources of biogenic methane. Land-use change, fertiliser production and usage, and manure application are all significant anthropogenic sources of biogenic nitrous oxide.
Hence Option B is correct.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Category: HistoryWhich of the following statement/s is/are correct with respect to Alluri Sitaram Raju?
- He led the Rampa Rebellion opposing the enactment of the 1882 Madras Forest Act.
- He was inspired by the Non-Cooperation Movement and persuaded people to wear khadi.
Options:
Correct
- Alluri Seetharama Raju laid down his life to break the shackles of the motherland.
- The Rampa Rebellion of 1922, also known as the Manyam Rebellion, was a tribal uprising led by Alluri Sitarama Raju in Godavari Agency of Madras Presidency, British India.
- Raju was inspired by the Non-Cooperation Movement and persuaded people to wear khadi and give up drinking. He also asserted that India could be liberated only by the use of force, not non-violence.
- Hence both the statements are correct
Incorrect
- Alluri Seetharama Raju laid down his life to break the shackles of the motherland.
- The Rampa Rebellion of 1922, also known as the Manyam Rebellion, was a tribal uprising led by Alluri Sitarama Raju in Godavari Agency of Madras Presidency, British India.
- Raju was inspired by the Non-Cooperation Movement and persuaded people to wear khadi and give up drinking. He also asserted that India could be liberated only by the use of force, not non-violence.
- Hence both the statements are correct
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Category: PolityWhich of the following statement/s is/are correct with respect to Zonal Councils in India?
- The Zonal councils are Constitutional bodies provided for under Article 263 of the Indian Constitution.
- The Union Home Minister is the common chairman of the zonal councils.
- The union territory of Lakshadweep is a member of the western zonal council
Options:
Correct
- The Zonal Councils are statutory (rather than constitutional) institutions. They were founded by a Parliamentary Act in 1956, known as the States Reorganization Act. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- The Central Government’s Home Minister serves as the common chairperson of the five zonal councils. By rotation, each chief minister serves as vice-chairman of the council, maintaining office for one year at a time. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The union territories of Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep are not members of any of the Zonal Councils. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
- The Zonal Councils are statutory (rather than constitutional) institutions. They were founded by a Parliamentary Act in 1956, known as the States Reorganization Act. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- The Central Government’s Home Minister serves as the common chairperson of the five zonal councils. By rotation, each chief minister serves as vice-chairman of the council, maintaining office for one year at a time. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The union territories of Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep are not members of any of the Zonal Councils. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Category: International RelationsThe term ‘Peace clause’ is used frequently with respect to which of the following international organizations?
Correct
- A peace clause is a mechanism that protects a developing country’s food procurement programs against action from World trade organization (WTO) members in case subsidy ceilings are breached.
- It is a mechanism that protects a developing country’s food procurement programs against action from World trade organization (WTO) members in case subsidy ceilings are breached.
- Hence option C is correct.
Incorrect
- A peace clause is a mechanism that protects a developing country’s food procurement programs against action from World trade organization (WTO) members in case subsidy ceilings are breached.
- It is a mechanism that protects a developing country’s food procurement programs against action from World trade organization (WTO) members in case subsidy ceilings are breached.
- Hence option C is correct.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Category: International RelationsWhich of the following countries is not part of the Five Eyes alliance?
Correct
- The Five Eyes (FVEY) is an alliance of intelligence agencies of Australia, Canada, New Zealand, the United Kingdom and the United States.
- It is the most well known of all espionage alliances in the world.
- Hence option B is correct.
Incorrect
- The Five Eyes (FVEY) is an alliance of intelligence agencies of Australia, Canada, New Zealand, the United Kingdom and the United States.
- It is the most well known of all espionage alliances in the world.
- Hence option B is correct.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Category: Science and Technology‘RNA interference (RNAi) technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why?
- It is used in developing gene-silencing therapies.
- It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer.
- It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.
- It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
- RNA interference (RNAi)’ technology gained popularity due to its application of gene silencing therapies associated with diseases such as cancer.
- RNAi is a gene-silencing method that uses double-stranded RNA to suppress protein production in target cells. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- mRNA vaccines have become a promising platform for cancer immunotherapy. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- mRNAs encoding antigens and/or adjuvants can be used as vaccines to evoke protective immunity against infectious diseases (prophylactic vaccines), or to harness the immune system to fight cancer (therapeutic vaccines). Hence, It cannot be used to develop hormone replacement therapies. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
- RNA interference is also utilized to develop agricultural plants that are resistant to plant viruses such as RNA and DNA viruses, viroids, insects, and other fungal diseases. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Incorrect
- RNA interference (RNAi)’ technology gained popularity due to its application of gene silencing therapies associated with diseases such as cancer.
- RNAi is a gene-silencing method that uses double-stranded RNA to suppress protein production in target cells. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- mRNA vaccines have become a promising platform for cancer immunotherapy. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- mRNAs encoding antigens and/or adjuvants can be used as vaccines to evoke protective immunity against infectious diseases (prophylactic vaccines), or to harness the immune system to fight cancer (therapeutic vaccines). Hence, It cannot be used to develop hormone replacement therapies. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
- RNA interference is also utilized to develop agricultural plants that are resistant to plant viruses such as RNA and DNA viruses, viroids, insects, and other fungal diseases. Hence statement 4 is correct.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Category: HistoryWhich of the following statements are correct? (Level - Moderate)
- Dinosaurs of the Sauropod family were widespread millions of years ago in the territory that is now India.
- Fossils of these animals have been found in Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Meghalaya.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, Dinosaurs of the Sauropod family were among the largest land animals that ever lived and were widespread millions of years ago in the territory that is now India.
- Statement 2 is correct, the fossils of these animals have been found in Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Meghalaya.
- The Upper Cretaceous Lameta Formation of Central India is famous for dinosaur fossils (both skeletal and egg remains).
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, Dinosaurs of the Sauropod family were among the largest land animals that ever lived and were widespread millions of years ago in the territory that is now India.
- Statement 2 is correct, the fossils of these animals have been found in Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Meghalaya.
- The Upper Cretaceous Lameta Formation of Central India is famous for dinosaur fossils (both skeletal and egg remains).
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following statements are incorrect? (Level - Easy)
- Groundwater contamination can occur only due to industrial pollutants.
- Contaminants found in groundwater cover a broad range of physical, inorganic chemical, organic chemical, bacteriological, and radioactive parameters.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, Groundwater contamination occurs due to a wide range of pollutants such as nitrates, fluoride, iron, total coliform and faecal coliform, gasoline, oil, road salts and other chemicals.
- Statement 2 is correct, Contaminants found in groundwater cover a broad range of physical, inorganic chemical, organic chemical, bacteriological, and radioactive parameters.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, Groundwater contamination occurs due to a wide range of pollutants such as nitrates, fluoride, iron, total coliform and faecal coliform, gasoline, oil, road salts and other chemicals.
- Statement 2 is correct, Contaminants found in groundwater cover a broad range of physical, inorganic chemical, organic chemical, bacteriological, and radioactive parameters.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Category: SchemesWhich of the following initiatives under Purvottar Kalyan have helped in transforming the political & economic landscape of North-East India, in recent years? (Level - Moderate)
- AFSPA areas reduced & peace accords with insurgent groups.
- New air routes for improving connectivity under UDAN.
- Construction of Bogibeel bridge.
- Setting up of higher education institutions.
- Establishment of Bamboo technology parks.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- All the above initiatives have contributed significantly in transforming the political & economic landscape of North-East India.
- Hence option d is correct.
Incorrect
- All the above initiatives have contributed significantly in transforming the political & economic landscape of North-East India.
- Hence option d is correct.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Category: International RelationsWhich of the following statements best defines the G-33? (Level - Easy)
Correct
- The G33 is a coalition of developing countries, established prior to the 2003 Cancun ministerial conference, that have coordinated during the Doha Round of World Trade Organization negotiations.
- The aim of the G33 group is to limit the degree of market opening required of developing countries.
Incorrect
- The G33 is a coalition of developing countries, established prior to the 2003 Cancun ministerial conference, that have coordinated during the Doha Round of World Trade Organization negotiations.
- The aim of the G33 group is to limit the degree of market opening required of developing countries.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements: (Level - Difficult)
- Genetic changes can be introduced in the cells that produce eggs or sperms of a prospective parent.
- A person’s genome can be edited before birth at the early embryonic stage.
- Human-induced pluripotent stem cells can be injected into the embryo of a pig.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, Germline gene therapy involves the modification of germ cells (gametes) that will pass the change on to the next generation. With germline therapy, genes can be corrected in the egg or the sperm that is being used to conceive
- Hence, genetic changes can be introduced in the cells that produce eggs or sperms of a prospective parent.
- Statement 2 is correct, A person’s genome can be edited before birth at early embryonic stage
- Statement 3 is correct, Human induced pluripotent (iPS) stem cells were injected into the pig embryos and these cells have the potential to develop into any tissue type in the resulting foetus.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, Germline gene therapy involves the modification of germ cells (gametes) that will pass the change on to the next generation. With germline therapy, genes can be corrected in the egg or the sperm that is being used to conceive
- Hence, genetic changes can be introduced in the cells that produce eggs or sperms of a prospective parent.
- Statement 2 is correct, A person’s genome can be edited before birth at early embryonic stage
- Statement 3 is correct, Human induced pluripotent (iPS) stem cells were injected into the pig embryos and these cells have the potential to develop into any tissue type in the resulting foetus.
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