UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz May 27 – Jun 02 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from May 27 – Jun 02 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.
Post your scores in the comment section below!
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UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz May 27 – Jun 02
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Category: AgricultureConsider the following statements with regards to Broken Rice: (Level – Easy)
- If rice kernels are not sound, it is called broken rice.
- China is now the top buyer of Indian broken rice, which was earlier exported mostly to African countries.
- Broken Rice can be converted to make wine and noodles.
Choose the correct code.
Correct
Statement 1 is correct: If rice kernels are not sound, it is called broken rice. Generally, broken rice is classified into 2 categories: big and small.
Statement 2 is correct: China has emerged as the top byer of Indian rice during the COVID pandemic period.
Statement 3 is correct: Trade experts say the reason for this increase in export of broken rice to China is the higher demand of rice for making noodles and wine in that country.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: If rice kernels are not sound, it is called broken rice. Generally, broken rice is classified into 2 categories: big and small.
Statement 2 is correct: China has emerged as the top byer of Indian rice during the COVID pandemic period.
Statement 3 is correct: Trade experts say the reason for this increase in export of broken rice to China is the higher demand of rice for making noodles and wine in that country.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regard to the National Judicial Data Grid (NJDG): (Level – Medium)
- NJDG provides information relating to judicial proceedings/decisions of all computerized district and subordinate courts of the country.
- Case data is available on NJDG for both civil and criminal cases with the ability to perform drill-down analysis based on the age of the case as well as the State and district.
- NJDG doesn’t mention any reasons for the pendency of cases.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Statement 1 is correct: National Judicial Data Grid ( NJDG) provides information relating to judicial proceedings/decisions of all computerized district and subordinate courts of the country.
Statement 2 is correct: Case data is available on NJDG for both civil and criminal cases with the ability to perform drill-down analysis based on the age of the case as well as the State and district.
Statement 3 is incorrect: NJDG mentions reasons for the pendency of cases.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: National Judicial Data Grid ( NJDG) provides information relating to judicial proceedings/decisions of all computerized district and subordinate courts of the country.
Statement 2 is correct: Case data is available on NJDG for both civil and criminal cases with the ability to perform drill-down analysis based on the age of the case as well as the State and district.
Statement 3 is incorrect: NJDG mentions reasons for the pendency of cases.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Category: G KWho amongst the following is the Chancellor of the Vishva Bharati University? (Level – Easy)
Correct
The Prime Minister is the chancellor of a central university, Visva Bharati.
Incorrect
The Prime Minister is the chancellor of a central university, Visva Bharati.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Category: International RelationsLake Sawa in Iraq has been seen in the news recently because (Level – Medium)
Correct
In 2022, for the first time in its centuries-long history, Iraq’s lake Sawa dried up. A combination action of mismanagement by local investors, government neglect and climate change are causes of its drying up.
Incorrect
In 2022, for the first time in its centuries-long history, Iraq’s lake Sawa dried up. A combination action of mismanagement by local investors, government neglect and climate change are causes of its drying up.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements: (Level – Difficult)
- Web 1.0 was the first generation of the Internet, made of static web pages that only allowed for passive engagement.
- Web 2.0, the Internet of today, has created a social web, allowing users to communicate with servers and other users.
- Web3.0, the next generation, envisages a digital world built on blockchain technology and driven by artificial intelligence, where people will interact without needing an intermediary.
- Web 5.0 is aimed at “building an extra decentralized web that puts you in control of your data and identity”.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Statement 1 is correct: Web 1.0 was the first generation of the global digital communications network. It is often referred to as the “read-only” Internet made of static web-pages that only allowed for passive engagement.
Statement 2 is correct: Web 2.0 is the next stage in the evolution of the web as the “read and write” Internet. Users were now able to communicate with servers and other users leading to the creation of the social web. This is the world wide web that we use today.
Statement 3 is correct: Web 3.0 is an evolving term that is used to refer to the next generation of Internet – a “read-write-execute” web – with decentralization as its bedrock. It speaks about a digital world, built leveraging the blockchain technology, where people are able to interact with each other without the need of an intermediary. Web 3.0 will be driven by Artificial Intelligence and machine learning where machines will be able to interpret information like humans.
Statement 4 is correct: Web 5.0 is aimed at “building an extra decentralized web that puts you in control of your data and identity”. Web 5.0 is Web 2.0 plus Web 3.0 that will allow users to ‘own their identity’ on the Internet and ‘control their data’.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: Web 1.0 was the first generation of the global digital communications network. It is often referred to as the “read-only” Internet made of static web-pages that only allowed for passive engagement.
Statement 2 is correct: Web 2.0 is the next stage in the evolution of the web as the “read and write” Internet. Users were now able to communicate with servers and other users leading to the creation of the social web. This is the world wide web that we use today.
Statement 3 is correct: Web 3.0 is an evolving term that is used to refer to the next generation of Internet – a “read-write-execute” web – with decentralization as its bedrock. It speaks about a digital world, built leveraging the blockchain technology, where people are able to interact with each other without the need of an intermediary. Web 3.0 will be driven by Artificial Intelligence and machine learning where machines will be able to interpret information like humans.
Statement 4 is correct: Web 5.0 is aimed at “building an extra decentralized web that puts you in control of your data and identity”. Web 5.0 is Web 2.0 plus Web 3.0 that will allow users to ‘own their identity’ on the Internet and ‘control their data’.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Category: PolityUnder the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates (Level – Easy)
Correct
Article 39 (Directive Principles of State Policy) in the Constitution Of India states, Certain principles of policy to be followed by the State: The State shall, in particular, direct its policy towards securing:
- that the ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as best to sub-serve the common good;
- that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment; Article 39 (b) and (c) are the two most important directive principles that pledge to minimize the concentration of wealth.
Incorrect
Article 39 (Directive Principles of State Policy) in the Constitution Of India states, Certain principles of policy to be followed by the State: The State shall, in particular, direct its policy towards securing:
- that the ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as best to sub-serve the common good;
- that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment; Article 39 (b) and (c) are the two most important directive principles that pledge to minimize the concentration of wealth.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regard to the census exercise in India:
- Census is conducted under the provisions of the Census Act, 1948.
- The decennial Census is conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, Ministry of Home Affairs.
- The information collected during the population Census is so confidential that it is not even accessible to the courts of law.
Choose the correct code.
Correct
- An Act to provide for certain matters in connection with the taking of census. This Act may be called the Census Act, 1948.
- The Decennial Census of India has been conducted 15 times, as of 2011. Census Division assists the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India for timely and successful conduct of Census Operations once in ten years in the country.
- The information gathered during the census is so private that it is not even available to courts of law. The Census Act of 1948 ensures confidentiality. The legislation establishes penalties for both public and census authorities who fail to comply with or violate any part of the Act.
- Hence all the statements are correct.
Incorrect
- An Act to provide for certain matters in connection with the taking of census. This Act may be called the Census Act, 1948.
- The Decennial Census of India has been conducted 15 times, as of 2011. Census Division assists the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India for timely and successful conduct of Census Operations once in ten years in the country.
- The information gathered during the census is so private that it is not even available to courts of law. The Census Act of 1948 ensures confidentiality. The legislation establishes penalties for both public and census authorities who fail to comply with or violate any part of the Act.
- Hence all the statements are correct.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Category: SchemesConsider the following statements with regard to the National Pension System:
- NPS is being implemented and regulated by PFRDA (Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority).
- OCI (Overseas Citizens of India) and PIO (Person of Indian Origin) cardholders and Hindu Undivided Family (HUFs) are not eligible for opening of NPS accounts.
- The withdrawals are permitted from the Tier 1 account as per the needs of the subscriber as and when claimed.
Choose the incorrect code:
Correct
- National Pension System is now regulated under PFRDA Act, 2013 and regulation framed thereunder by Department of Financial Services and PFRDA. Under the NPS, every Government servant is registered and allotted a Permanent Retirement Account Number (PRAN). Hence statement 1 is correct.
- NPS is now made available for Overseas Citizens of India (OCI). OCI will be considered at par with Non-Resident Indian (NRI) while subscribing to NPS. The option of the NPS Tier II account will not be available for both NRI & OCI Subscribers. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- The NPS Tier 1 account matures when the member reaches the age of 60, however you can defer withdrawal until the age of 70. You can take up to 60% of your corpus tax-free under existing NPS withdrawal guidelines for withdrawal after maturity. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
- National Pension System is now regulated under PFRDA Act, 2013 and regulation framed thereunder by Department of Financial Services and PFRDA. Under the NPS, every Government servant is registered and allotted a Permanent Retirement Account Number (PRAN). Hence statement 1 is correct.
- NPS is now made available for Overseas Citizens of India (OCI). OCI will be considered at par with Non-Resident Indian (NRI) while subscribing to NPS. The option of the NPS Tier II account will not be available for both NRI & OCI Subscribers. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- The NPS Tier 1 account matures when the member reaches the age of 60, however you can defer withdrawal until the age of 70. You can take up to 60% of your corpus tax-free under existing NPS withdrawal guidelines for withdrawal after maturity. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Category: International RelationsThe New Development Bank (NDB), formerly referred to as the BRICS Development Bank, a development bank established by the BRICS states (Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa) has four more members apart from the five founding states. Name them. (Level – Difficult)
Correct
- The New Development Bank (NDB) was established in 2015 by BRICS countries – Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa. The Bank’s membership is open to members of the United Nations.
- Bangladesh, the United Arab Emirates, Egypt and Uruguay joined the NDB in 2021.
- Hence option A is correct.
Incorrect
- The New Development Bank (NDB) was established in 2015 by BRICS countries – Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa. The Bank’s membership is open to members of the United Nations.
- Bangladesh, the United Arab Emirates, Egypt and Uruguay joined the NDB in 2021.
- Hence option A is correct.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Category: EconomyConsider the following statements with regard to the Periodic Labor Force Survey: (Level – Easy)
- It was launched by the National Statistical Office.
- The National Statistical Office (NSO) uses a “rotational panel sampling design” in urban areas to assess the labour force participation rate (LFPR).
- The Labor Force Participation Rate is the percentage of persons in the labour force (that is, working or seeking work or available for work) in the population.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Considering the importance of availability of labour force data at more frequent time intervals, National Statistical Office (NSO) launched Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) in 2017. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The Periodic Labor Force Survey (PLFS) gives estimates of Key employment and unemployment Indicators like, the Labor Force Participation Rates (LFPR), Worker Population Ratio (WPR), Unemployment Rate (UR), etc. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR): LFPR is defined as the percentage of persons in the labour force (i.e. working or seeking or available for work)in the population. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
- Considering the importance of availability of labour force data at more frequent time intervals, National Statistical Office (NSO) launched Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) in 2017. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The Periodic Labor Force Survey (PLFS) gives estimates of Key employment and unemployment Indicators like, the Labor Force Participation Rates (LFPR), Worker Population Ratio (WPR), Unemployment Rate (UR), etc. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR): LFPR is defined as the percentage of persons in the labour force (i.e. working or seeking or available for work)in the population. Hence statement 3 is correct.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Category: HistoryWith reference to Madanapalle of Andhra Pradesh, which one of the following statements is correct?
Correct
In 1919, Rabindranath Tagore during his brief stay at Theosophical college, Madanapalle, a town in Chittoor, A.P., translated his Bengali poem / National Anthem ‘Jana Gana Mana’ into English as ‘Morning Song of India’.
Incorrect
In 1919, Rabindranath Tagore during his brief stay at Theosophical college, Madanapalle, a town in Chittoor, A.P., translated his Bengali poem / National Anthem ‘Jana Gana Mana’ into English as ‘Morning Song of India’.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements: (Difficulty Level: Medium)
- The right to property ceased to be a fundamental right with the 42nd Constitution Amendment in 1978.
- The Doctrine of Adverse Possession refers to the power of the government to take private property and convert it into public use.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- The 44th Constitution Amendment Act of 1978 removed the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights, and it was later established as a legal right by Article 300-A in Part-12 of the Constitution.
- Adverse Possession is a legal theory that asserts that if a renter has inhabited a property for 12 years and the owner does not take action, the tenant is awarded ownership rights to the property.
- Hence both statements are incorrect.
Incorrect
- The 44th Constitution Amendment Act of 1978 removed the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights, and it was later established as a legal right by Article 300-A in Part-12 of the Constitution.
- Adverse Possession is a legal theory that asserts that if a renter has inhabited a property for 12 years and the owner does not take action, the tenant is awarded ownership rights to the property.
- Hence both statements are incorrect.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Category: PolityWhich of the following statements is/are correct? (Difficulty Level: Medium)
- Population control and family planning are under the State list.
- The responsibility of conducting the decennial Census rests with the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- According to the National Family Health Survey-5, the current fertility rate is slightly lower than the replacement level of fertility of 2.1 children per woman.
Options:
Correct
- Population control and family planning are listed in the Concurrent List. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India, under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India, is in charge of conducting the decennial Census. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- According to the National Family Health Survey-5, India has made significant progress in population control measures in recent times with the Total Fertility Rates (TFR). TFR of 2.1 is considered the replacement level fertility rate at which population stability is achieved. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
- Population control and family planning are listed in the Concurrent List. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India, under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India, is in charge of conducting the decennial Census. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- According to the National Family Health Survey-5, India has made significant progress in population control measures in recent times with the Total Fertility Rates (TFR). TFR of 2.1 is considered the replacement level fertility rate at which population stability is achieved. Hence statement 3 is correct.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Category: G KWith respect to the Press Council of India (PCI), which of the following statements is/are correct? (Difficulty Level: Medium)
- It only has the power to enforce standards on print media and has no powers to enforce standards on electronic media.
- PCI is responsible for enquiring about the complaints it receives and can also penalize anyone for violation of the guidelines.
Options:
Correct
- The Press Council of India (PCI) is a statutory body created by the Press Council Act of 1978. It is the apex body for the regulation of Print Media in India. It enjoys independence from the government. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- PCI is responsible for enquiring about the complaints it receives. It can summon witnesses, and demand copies of public records. PCI can issue warnings, and criticize the guilty, it could be journalists, newspapers, newspaper agencies or editors. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Incorrect
- The Press Council of India (PCI) is a statutory body created by the Press Council Act of 1978. It is the apex body for the regulation of Print Media in India. It enjoys independence from the government. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- PCI is responsible for enquiring about the complaints it receives. It can summon witnesses, and demand copies of public records. PCI can issue warnings, and criticize the guilty, it could be journalists, newspapers, newspaper agencies or editors. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Category: Defence & SecurityWhich of the following missiles is/are developed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme? (Difficulty Level: Easy)
- Agni
- Akash
- Trishul
- Prithvi
Options:
Correct
- The Integrated Guided Missile Development Program (IGMDP) was launched in 1983. This program was launched with an agenda to develop five missile systems in the country – Trishul, Akash, Nag, Prithvi, and Agni.
- Hence D is the correct option.
Incorrect
- The Integrated Guided Missile Development Program (IGMDP) was launched in 1983. This program was launched with an agenda to develop five missile systems in the country – Trishul, Akash, Nag, Prithvi, and Agni.
- Hence D is the correct option.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyWhich one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”? (Difficulty Level: Medium) [UPSC 2022]
Correct
- Greenwashing is the technique of creating a false image or presenting misleading information about how a company’s products are better for the environment. Greenwashing is defined as making an unfounded claim in order to mislead customers into believing that a company’s products are ecologically beneficial.
- Hence A is the correct option.
Incorrect
- Greenwashing is the technique of creating a false image or presenting misleading information about how a company’s products are better for the environment. Greenwashing is defined as making an unfounded claim in order to mislead customers into believing that a company’s products are ecologically beneficial.
- Hence A is the correct option.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Category: International RelationsIn which of the following international groupings, India is a member, but no ASEAN nation is a member?
- Mekong Ganga Cooperation
- Shanghai Cooperation Organization
- SAARC
- BIMSTEC
Choose the correct code.
Correct
- The Mekong Ganga Cooperation (MGC) is an initiative by six countries – India and five ASEAN countries – Cambodia, Lao PDR, Myanmar, Thailand, and Vietnam.
- The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) is an international alliance that consists of 8 member states and 4 observers from Eurasia.
- The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is an economic and political organization of eight countries in South Asia.
- BIMSTEC has a total of seven member countries – five from South Asia, including Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, and Sri Lanka, and two from Southeast Asia, including Myanmar and Thailand.
- Hence b is the correct option.
Incorrect
- The Mekong Ganga Cooperation (MGC) is an initiative by six countries – India and five ASEAN countries – Cambodia, Lao PDR, Myanmar, Thailand, and Vietnam.
- The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) is an international alliance that consists of 8 member states and 4 observers from Eurasia.
- The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is an economic and political organization of eight countries in South Asia.
- BIMSTEC has a total of seven member countries – five from South Asia, including Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, and Sri Lanka, and two from Southeast Asia, including Myanmar and Thailand.
- Hence b is the correct option.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Category: Art and CultureConsider the following statements:
- UNESCO has designated Champaner-Pavagadh Archeological Park as a World Heritage Site, calling it the “only complete and unchanged Islamic pre-Mughal city”.
- Kalika Mata Temple lies within the Champaner-Pavagadh Archaeological Park.
- The temple complex also houses a dargah.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- UNESCO has designated Champaner-Pavagadh as a World Heritage Site and called it the only ‘complete and unchanged Islamic pre-Mughal city’.
- It also includes Kalika Mata Temple on the hill and Jama Masjid at the foothills.
- According to a note kept by the trust, it is believed that in the 15th century, Sultan Mahmud Begada conquered Champaner, where he established his capital and ‘destroyed the spire of the temple’. Sadanshah Pir Dargah was built around that time.
- Hence all the statements are correct.
Incorrect
- UNESCO has designated Champaner-Pavagadh as a World Heritage Site and called it the only ‘complete and unchanged Islamic pre-Mughal city’.
- It also includes Kalika Mata Temple on the hill and Jama Masjid at the foothills.
- According to a note kept by the trust, it is believed that in the 15th century, Sultan Mahmud Begada conquered Champaner, where he established his capital and ‘destroyed the spire of the temple’. Sadanshah Pir Dargah was built around that time.
- Hence all the statements are correct.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Category: International RelationsWhich of the following nations is/are not members of the I2U2 group?
- Indonesia
- United Kingdom
- Israel
- UAE
- India
- Ukraine
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- In 2022, India, Israel, the United Arab Emirates, and the United States will establish the I2U2 group.
- The organization’s goal is to re-energize and revitalize American relationships across the world.
- Hence Indonesia, the United Kingdom and Ukraine are not members of the I2U2 group.
- Hence option b is correct.
Incorrect
- In 2022, India, Israel, the United Arab Emirates, and the United States will establish the I2U2 group.
- The organization’s goal is to re-energize and revitalize American relationships across the world.
- Hence Indonesia, the United Kingdom and Ukraine are not members of the I2U2 group.
- Hence option b is correct.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Category: HistoryThe infamous ‘Black Death’ pandemic was caused by which of the following microorganisms?
Correct
- The Black Death was the first wave of a roughly 500-year-long pandemic known as the second plague pandemic, and it was one of the most devastating infectious disease disasters in human history.
- Plague is caused by the zoonotic bacterium Yersinia pestis, which is present in small animals and their fleas.
- Hence A is correct.
Incorrect
- The Black Death was the first wave of a roughly 500-year-long pandemic known as the second plague pandemic, and it was one of the most devastating infectious disease disasters in human history.
- Plague is caused by the zoonotic bacterium Yersinia pestis, which is present in small animals and their fleas.
- Hence A is correct.
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Category: Environment and Ecology‘R2 Code of Practices’ constitutes a tool available for promoting the adoption of [UPSC 2021]
Correct
R2 stands for Responsible Recycling and is a standard specifically created for the electronics recycling industry by Sustainable Electronics Recycling International (SERI). R2 certified companies to have a policy on managing used and end-of-life electronics equipment, components and materials based on strategies such as reuse, materials and energy recovery and/or disposal. This certification is intended for electronics recyclers.
Hence option A is correct.
Incorrect
R2 stands for Responsible Recycling and is a standard specifically created for the electronics recycling industry by Sustainable Electronics Recycling International (SERI). R2 certified companies to have a policy on managing used and end-of-life electronics equipment, components and materials based on strategies such as reuse, materials and energy recovery and/or disposal. This certification is intended for electronics recyclers.
Hence option A is correct.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Category: GeographyConsider the following rainfall distribution categories by the Indian Meteorological Department on an all-India scale:
- Normal or near normal, when the percentage departure of actual rainfall is +/-10% of LPA, that is, between 96-104% of LPA (Long Period Average).
- Below normal, when departure of actual rainfall is less than 10% of LPA, that is 90-96% of LPA.
- Above normal, when actual rainfall is 104-110% of LPA
- Deficient, when departure of actual rainfall is less than 90% of LPA.
- Excess, when the departure of actual rainfall is more than 110% of LPA.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Normal Rainfall: IMD calls a monsoon season normal when the total amount of rainfall in the country between June and September is within 10%(plus or minus) of the LPA, i.e. between 96-104% of LPA (Long Period Average).
Below Normal: when total rainfall is less than 10% of LPA, i.e. 90-96% of LPA.
Above normal: when total rainfall is more than 10% of LPA, i.e. 104-110% of LPA.
Deficient: when total rainfall is less than 90% of LPA.
Excess: when total rainfall is more than 110% of LPA.Incorrect
Normal Rainfall: IMD calls a monsoon season normal when the total amount of rainfall in the country between June and September is within 10%(plus or minus) of the LPA, i.e. between 96-104% of LPA (Long Period Average).
Below Normal: when total rainfall is less than 10% of LPA, i.e. 90-96% of LPA.
Above normal: when total rainfall is more than 10% of LPA, i.e. 104-110% of LPA.
Deficient: when total rainfall is less than 90% of LPA.
Excess: when total rainfall is more than 110% of LPA. -
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements about the properties of Urea:
- It is acidic in nature.
- It consists of Nitrogen and Oxygen only.
- It can be used to supplement cattle feed.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, Urea is basic in nature.
- Statement 2 is not correct, Urea (CH4N2O) is an organic chemical made up of nitrogen, carbon and hydrogen.
- Statement 3 is correct, Urea can be used to supplement the diet of cattle and other ruminants.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, Urea is basic in nature.
- Statement 2 is not correct, Urea (CH4N2O) is an organic chemical made up of nitrogen, carbon and hydrogen.
- Statement 3 is correct, Urea can be used to supplement the diet of cattle and other ruminants.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Category: International RelationsConsider the following statements with regards to the FATF:
- Grey List has countries that are considered safe havens for supporting terror funding and money laundering.
- Countries known as Non-Cooperative Countries or Territories (NCCTs) are put on the blacklist. These countries support terror funding and money laundering activities.
- FAFT was established in 1989 during the G20 Summit in Paris.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, FATF Grey List has countries that are considered safe havens for supporting terror funding and money laundering.
- Statement 2 is correct, the FATF Black list represents “Non-Compliant or Non-Cooperative Countries or Territories (NCCTs)”.
- Statement 3 is not correct, FATF was established at the G7 Summit of 1989 in Paris with an aim to address loopholes in the global financial system after the member states raised concerns about increasing money laundering activities.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, FATF Grey List has countries that are considered safe havens for supporting terror funding and money laundering.
- Statement 2 is correct, the FATF Black list represents “Non-Compliant or Non-Cooperative Countries or Territories (NCCTs)”.
- Statement 3 is not correct, FATF was established at the G7 Summit of 1989 in Paris with an aim to address loopholes in the global financial system after the member states raised concerns about increasing money laundering activities.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Category: Current Affairs‘Amal’ puppet, in the news recently, is on a mission to raise awareness about which of the following issues?
Correct
- Amal puppet is on a mission to raise awareness about the Syrian refugee crisis.
- The puppet Amal depicts a 10-year-old girl migrant from Syria, who walked 8,000 km looking for her mother in 2021.
Incorrect
- Amal puppet is on a mission to raise awareness about the Syrian refugee crisis.
- The puppet Amal depicts a 10-year-old girl migrant from Syria, who walked 8,000 km looking for her mother in 2021.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Category: EconomyWhich one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effects? [UPSC 2021]
Correct
Extremely high rates of inflation are generally associated with high rates of money growth and it is often the result of financing large deficits by printing money.
Incorrect
Extremely high rates of inflation are generally associated with high rates of money growth and it is often the result of financing large deficits by printing money.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with respect to Department-related Standing Committees (DRSCs)? (Level – Medium)
- Currently, there are 24 DRSCs with all of them coming under the jurisdiction of the Speaker, Lok Sabha.
- The term of office of these committees does not exceed five years or the term of the Lok Sabha whichever is lower.
- The DRSCs consider the Demands for Grants, annual reports and examine bills pertaining to the related Ministries/Departments and their recommendations are binding.
Which of the above statements is correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, Currently there are 24 DRSCs, out of which 8 are placed within the jurisdiction of the Chairman, Rajya Sabha and 16 within the jurisdiction of the Speaker, Lok Sabha.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The term of office of each Committee is one year from the date of its constitution
- Statement 3 is not correct, The DRSCs consider the Demands for Grants, annual reports and examine bills pertaining to the related Ministries/Departments and their recommendations are just advisory in nature and hence not binding.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, Currently there are 24 DRSCs, out of which 8 are placed within the jurisdiction of the Chairman, Rajya Sabha and 16 within the jurisdiction of the Speaker, Lok Sabha.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The term of office of each Committee is one year from the date of its constitution
- Statement 3 is not correct, The DRSCs consider the Demands for Grants, annual reports and examine bills pertaining to the related Ministries/Departments and their recommendations are just advisory in nature and hence not binding.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Category: Art and CultureWhich of the following pairs of festivals and the associated states are correctly matched? (Level – Difficult)
- Sarhul – Jharkhand
- Wanchuwa – Assam
- Nongkrem – Meghalaya
Options:
Correct
- Sarhul is a spring festival associated with Jharkhand.
- The festival represents the commencement of the new year and according to the tradition, it symbolises marriage between the Earth and the Sun.
- It is celebrated by tribal groups such as Bhumijs, Mundas and Oraons
- Wanshuwa is an important religious festival of the Tiwa tribes of the Karbi Anglong district in Assam.
- The festival is celebrated to mark a good harvest and involves prayers for protection from pests and natural calamities.
- It involves songs, dances and a bunch of rituals performed by people clad in their native attires.
- Nongkrem dance festival is an annual festival associated with Meghalaya.
- Nongkrem dance is a traditional dance form celebrated by the people of the Khasi tribe.
- Nongkrem festival is conducted to honour the goddess Ka Blei Synshar worshipped by the tribe.
Incorrect
- Sarhul is a spring festival associated with Jharkhand.
- The festival represents the commencement of the new year and according to the tradition, it symbolises marriage between the Earth and the Sun.
- It is celebrated by tribal groups such as Bhumijs, Mundas and Oraons
- Wanshuwa is an important religious festival of the Tiwa tribes of the Karbi Anglong district in Assam.
- The festival is celebrated to mark a good harvest and involves prayers for protection from pests and natural calamities.
- It involves songs, dances and a bunch of rituals performed by people clad in their native attires.
- Nongkrem dance festival is an annual festival associated with Meghalaya.
- Nongkrem dance is a traditional dance form celebrated by the people of the Khasi tribe.
- Nongkrem festival is conducted to honour the goddess Ka Blei Synshar worshipped by the tribe.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Category: HistoryWhich of the following statement/s are correct with respect to Goa’s conquest and Liberation? (Level – Difficult)
- Goa became a Portuguese colony in 1510 when Afonso de Albuquerque captured the city from the sultan of Bijapur.
- Tristao de Braganca Cunha was a prominent Indian nationalist and anti-colonial activist from Goa.
- India annexed the then Portuguese Indian territories of Goa, Daman and Diu through an armed action codenamed Operation Vijay in 1960.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, The Portuguese conquest of Goa began when Afonso de Albuquerque captured the city in 1510 from the Adil Shahis who was the then Sultan of Bijapur.
- Statement 2 is correct, Tristao de Braganca Cunha was a prominent Indian nationalist and anti-colonial activist from Goa.
- Statement 3 is not correct, India annexed the then Portuguese Indian territories of Goa, Daman and Diu through an armed action codenamed Operation Vijay in 1961.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, The Portuguese conquest of Goa began when Afonso de Albuquerque captured the city in 1510 from the Adil Shahis who was the then Sultan of Bijapur.
- Statement 2 is correct, Tristao de Braganca Cunha was a prominent Indian nationalist and anti-colonial activist from Goa.
- Statement 3 is not correct, India annexed the then Portuguese Indian territories of Goa, Daman and Diu through an armed action codenamed Operation Vijay in 1961.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Category: PolityWhich of the following statement/s is/are correct with respect to the Provisions of the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017? (Level – Medium)
- The Maternity leave should not be availed before eight weeks from the date of expected delivery.
- The act has a provision which requires establishments with 50 or more employees to provide creche facilities.
- There is a mandatory work-from-home provision that the employee can avail of after the end of the maternity leave period for up to six months.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, The Maternity leave should not be availed before eight weeks from the date of expected delivery.
- Statement 2 is correct, As per the Act, the establishments employing 50 or more employees are required to provide creche facilities.
- Statement 3 is not correct, Employers may allow eligible Employees to work from home on a case to case basis depending on the nature of work.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, The Maternity leave should not be availed before eight weeks from the date of expected delivery.
- Statement 2 is correct, As per the Act, the establishments employing 50 or more employees are required to provide creche facilities.
- Statement 3 is not correct, Employers may allow eligible Employees to work from home on a case to case basis depending on the nature of work.
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