UPSC 2024: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Nov 18 – Nov 24 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Current Affairs Monthly Magazine (Oct 2023)
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UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from Nov 18 – Nov 24 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.
Post your scores in the comment section below!
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UPSC 2024: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Nov 18 – Nov 24
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements with respect to global warming. (Level- Medium)
- There has been a steady annual increase in global surface temperature in the last twenty years with 2021 being the hottest year on record since record-keeping began in 1880.
- The warming in the Arctic region has been much faster than in the rest of the world.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The hottest years on record are 2016 and 2020 since record-keeping began in 1880.
- Statement 2 is correct: The Arctic region has warmed twice the global average. This phenomenon is known as the Arctic Amplification.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The hottest years on record are 2016 and 2020 since record-keeping began in 1880.
- Statement 2 is correct: The Arctic region has warmed twice the global average. This phenomenon is known as the Arctic Amplification.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements with respect to mangrove trees.
- Vivipary is a special adaptation observed in mangrove trees to help them reproduce successfully in high-saline environments.
- As per the latest Forest Survey of India, mangrove cover in India has decreased as compared to the previous assessment.
- Avicennia, Rhizophora, Sonneratia and Bruguiera are some of the mangrove tree species found in India.
Which of the above statements is correct? (Level- Difficult)
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct: In plants, vivipary occurs when seeds or embryos begin to develop before they detach from the parent. This adaptation is seen in mangrove trees to reproduce in highly saline environments.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The mangrove cover has increased by 0.34% in the previous assessment.
- Statement 3 is correct: Mangrove tree species of India include Avicennia Officinalis, Morinda Citrifolia, Rhizophora mucronata, Sonneratia Alba, Avicennia Alba, Bruguiera Cylindrica, Heriteira Littoralis, Phoenix paludosa, etc.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct: In plants, vivipary occurs when seeds or embryos begin to develop before they detach from the parent. This adaptation is seen in mangrove trees to reproduce in highly saline environments.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The mangrove cover has increased by 0.34% in the previous assessment.
- Statement 3 is correct: Mangrove tree species of India include Avicennia Officinalis, Morinda Citrifolia, Rhizophora mucronata, Sonneratia Alba, Avicennia Alba, Bruguiera Cylindrica, Heriteira Littoralis, Phoenix paludosa, etc.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Category: G KWhich of the following statements is/are correct about the recently declared National Sports Awards? (Level- Difficult)
- ‘Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award’ is the highest sporting honour in India and it has been awarded to Shri Sharath Kamal Achanta for the year 2022.
- The overall top-performing state in inter-state tournaments is given the Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct: The Khel Ratna Award, officially known as the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award, is the highest sporting honour in India. It is awarded annually by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India. Table Tennis player Shri Sharath Kamal Achanta received the award for the year 2022.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy is awarded by the President of India each year to a University that has all-around best performance in sports at Inter-University, National, and International competitions.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct: The Khel Ratna Award, officially known as the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award, is the highest sporting honour in India. It is awarded annually by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India. Table Tennis player Shri Sharath Kamal Achanta received the award for the year 2022.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy is awarded by the President of India each year to a University that has all-around best performance in sports at Inter-University, National, and International competitions.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Category: PolityThe Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of (Level- Medium)
Correct
- The Ninth Schedule of the Indian Constitution was added by the First Constitutional (Amendment) Act, 1951 during the prime ministership of Jawaharlal Nehru.
- It contains a list of central and state laws that cannot be challenged in the courts. The first amendment added 13 laws to the list.
Incorrect
- The Ninth Schedule of the Indian Constitution was added by the First Constitutional (Amendment) Act, 1951 during the prime ministership of Jawaharlal Nehru.
- It contains a list of central and state laws that cannot be challenged in the courts. The first amendment added 13 laws to the list.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements about Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI). (Level – Difficult)
- It is published by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
- The Index is assessed based on four factors – Greenhouse Gas Emissions, Renewable Energy Adoption, Energy Use and Climate Policy.
- The latest CCPI for 2023 ranks India eighth among the assessed countries.
- The first position in the CCPI, 2023 is occupied by the USA.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, CCPI is published by three NGOs namely Germanwatch, NewClimate Institute and Climate Action Network International.
- Statement 2 is correct, The Index is assessed based on four performance indicators namely Greenhouse Gas Emissions, Renewable Energy Adoption, Energy Use and Climate Policy.
- Statement 3 is correct, India has climbed two spots to reach the eighth rank out of 63 countries evaluated on CCPI 2023 on account of low emissions and the increasing use of renewable energy.
- Statement 4 is not correct, In the CCPI 2023, Denmark has reached the best ranking. However, no country performs well enough in all index categories to achieve an overall “very high” rating in the index.
- Therefore, the first three ranks in the overall ranking remain empty.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, CCPI is published by three NGOs namely Germanwatch, NewClimate Institute and Climate Action Network International.
- Statement 2 is correct, The Index is assessed based on four performance indicators namely Greenhouse Gas Emissions, Renewable Energy Adoption, Energy Use and Climate Policy.
- Statement 3 is correct, India has climbed two spots to reach the eighth rank out of 63 countries evaluated on CCPI 2023 on account of low emissions and the increasing use of renewable energy.
- Statement 4 is not correct, In the CCPI 2023, Denmark has reached the best ranking. However, no country performs well enough in all index categories to achieve an overall “very high” rating in the index.
- Therefore, the first three ranks in the overall ranking remain empty.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Category: PolityArrange the following states in the order of them attaining full statehood status starting from the earliest to the latest. (Level – Difficult)
- Goa
- Gujarat
- Jharkhand
- Meghalaya
- Andhra Pradesh
- Nagaland
Options:
Correct
- Andhra Pradesh: 1st of November 1953
- Gujarat: 1st of May 1960
- Nagaland: 1st of December 1963
- Meghalaya: 21st of January 1972
- Goa: 30th of May 1987
- Jharkhand: 15th of November 2000
Incorrect
- Andhra Pradesh: 1st of November 1953
- Gujarat: 1st of May 1960
- Nagaland: 1st of December 1963
- Meghalaya: 21st of January 1972
- Goa: 30th of May 1987
- Jharkhand: 15th of November 2000
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Category: EconomyWhich of the following statements are correct with respect to India’s foreign trade’s general trends in the recent past? (Level – Easy)
- In the merchandise segment, India imports more than it exports in terms of value.
- In the services segment, India exports more than it imports in terms of value.
- Generally, the trade surplus from the services segment is able to cover the trade deficit in the merchandise segment to result in a net trade surplus for India.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, In the merchandise segment, India imports more than it exports in terms of value.
- Statement 2 is correct, In the services segment, India exports more than it imports in terms of value.
- Statement 3 is not correct, As the trade surplus from the services segment has failed to offset the trade deficit in the merchandise segment, India is witnessing a net trade deficit.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, In the merchandise segment, India imports more than it exports in terms of value.
- Statement 2 is correct, In the services segment, India exports more than it imports in terms of value.
- Statement 3 is not correct, As the trade surplus from the services segment has failed to offset the trade deficit in the merchandise segment, India is witnessing a net trade deficit.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Category: PolityUnder which schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void? (Level – Medium) PYQ (2019)
Correct
In the Samatha v/s State of Andhra Pradesh & Ors judgment in 1997, the Supreme Court declared that the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining was null and void under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution.
Incorrect
In the Samatha v/s State of Andhra Pradesh & Ors judgment in 1997, the Supreme Court declared that the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining was null and void under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Category: Art and CultureConsider the following pairs: (Level-Difficult)
Saree State
- Chanderi Madhya Pradesh
- Jamdani Dhakai West Bengal
- Paithani Maharashtra
- Patola Gujarat
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
- Pair 01 is correctly matched, Chanderi sari is a traditional sari made in Chanderi, Madhya Pradesh. The weaving culture of Chanderi emerged between the 2nd and 7th centuries. It is situated on the boundary of two cultural regions of the state, Malwa and Bundelkhand.
- Pair 02 is correctly matched, Jamdani is a fine muslin textile produced for centuries in South Bangladesh and West Bengal. The historic production of jamdani was patronised by imperial warrants of the Mughal emperors.
- Jamdani is typically woven using a mixture of cotton and gold thread.
- In 2013, the traditional art of weaving jamdani was declared a UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.
- In 2016, Bangladesh received geographical indication (GI) status for Jamdani Sari.
- Pair 03 is correctly matched, Paithani is a variety of sari, named after the Paithan town in the Aurangabad district of Maharashtra.
- Paithani is characterised by borders of an oblique square design, and a padar (end of the sari) with a peacock design.
- Pair 04 is correctly matched, Patola is a double ikat woven sari, usually made from silk, made in Patan, Gujarat, India.
- Patola are usually woven in Surat, Ahmedabad and Patan. But velvet patola styles are majorly made in Surat.
- It received a Geographical Indication (GI) tag in 2013.
- Patola sarees are highly valued in Indonesia and became part of the local weaving tradition there.
Incorrect
- Pair 01 is correctly matched, Chanderi sari is a traditional sari made in Chanderi, Madhya Pradesh. The weaving culture of Chanderi emerged between the 2nd and 7th centuries. It is situated on the boundary of two cultural regions of the state, Malwa and Bundelkhand.
- Pair 02 is correctly matched, Jamdani is a fine muslin textile produced for centuries in South Bangladesh and West Bengal. The historic production of jamdani was patronised by imperial warrants of the Mughal emperors.
- Jamdani is typically woven using a mixture of cotton and gold thread.
- In 2013, the traditional art of weaving jamdani was declared a UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.
- In 2016, Bangladesh received geographical indication (GI) status for Jamdani Sari.
- Pair 03 is correctly matched, Paithani is a variety of sari, named after the Paithan town in the Aurangabad district of Maharashtra.
- Paithani is characterised by borders of an oblique square design, and a padar (end of the sari) with a peacock design.
- Pair 04 is correctly matched, Patola is a double ikat woven sari, usually made from silk, made in Patan, Gujarat, India.
- Patola are usually woven in Surat, Ahmedabad and Patan. But velvet patola styles are majorly made in Surat.
- It received a Geographical Indication (GI) tag in 2013.
- Patola sarees are highly valued in Indonesia and became part of the local weaving tradition there.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Category: HistoryWith respect to Kartar Singh Sarabha, which of the following statements is/are correct? (Level-Medium)
- Kartar Singh was a key member of the Ghadar Party.
- He was sent to trial in the Lahore Conspiracy case.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, Kartar Singh Sarabha was Ghadar Party’s youngest founding member. He was one of the most active fundraisers in the organisation, holding meetings in the rural areas where the farmers donated generously.
- Statement 02 is correct, In 1915, Kartar Singh Sarabha was arrested and put on a trial for what came to be called the Lahore conspiracy case which resulted in the execution of 24 Ghadris including him.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, Kartar Singh Sarabha was Ghadar Party’s youngest founding member. He was one of the most active fundraisers in the organisation, holding meetings in the rural areas where the farmers donated generously.
- Statement 02 is correct, In 1915, Kartar Singh Sarabha was arrested and put on a trial for what came to be called the Lahore conspiracy case which resulted in the execution of 24 Ghadris including him.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Category: HistoryWhich of the following are the books written by Swami Dayananda Saraswati? (Level-Difficult)
- Satyartha Prakash
- Sanskarvidhi
- Rigved Bhashyam
- Vedic chronology and Vedanga Jyotisha
Options:
Correct
- Major literary works by Swami Dayananda Saraswati are Satyartha Prakash, Sanskarvidhi, Rigved Bhashyam, etc.
- Vedic chronology and Vedanga Jyotisha were authored by Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
Incorrect
- Major literary works by Swami Dayananda Saraswati are Satyartha Prakash, Sanskarvidhi, Rigved Bhashyam, etc.
- Vedic chronology and Vedanga Jyotisha were authored by Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following are the objectives of Artemis missions? (Level-Medium)
- Demonstrate new technologies, capabilities, and business approaches needed for future exploration including Mars.
- Broaden the commercial and international partnerships of NASA.
- Inspire a new generation and encourage careers in STEM.
- Study the Moon to learn more about the origin and history of Earth, the Moon, and our solar system.
Options:
Correct
- The main objectives of the Artemis mission are:
- Demonstrate new technologies, capabilities, and business approaches needed for future exploration including Mars.
- Study the Moon to learn more about the origin and history of Earth, the Moon, and our solar system.
- Establish American leadership and a strategic presence on the Moon while expanding our U.S. global economic impact.
- Broaden NASA’s commercial and international partnerships.
- Inspire a new generation and encourage careers in STEM.
Incorrect
- The main objectives of the Artemis mission are:
- Demonstrate new technologies, capabilities, and business approaches needed for future exploration including Mars.
- Study the Moon to learn more about the origin and history of Earth, the Moon, and our solar system.
- Establish American leadership and a strategic presence on the Moon while expanding our U.S. global economic impact.
- Broaden NASA’s commercial and international partnerships.
- Inspire a new generation and encourage careers in STEM.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements: DNA Barcoding can be a tool to:(Level-Medium) (CSE-PYQ-2022)
- Assess the age of a plant or animal.
- Distinguish among species that look alike.
- Identify undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 01 is incorrect, To measure the age of plant and animal remains scientists use the carbon dating method.
- Statement 02 is correct, DNA barcodes help to objectively identify species – even from small, damaged, or industrially processed material. It can be used to distinguish among species that look alike.
- Statement 03 is correct, DNA barcoding helps to identify the undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is incorrect, To measure the age of plant and animal remains scientists use the carbon dating method.
- Statement 02 is correct, DNA barcodes help to objectively identify species – even from small, damaged, or industrially processed material. It can be used to distinguish among species that look alike.
- Statement 03 is correct, DNA barcoding helps to identify the undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Category: HistoryWith respect to Sant Kabir Das, which of the following statements is/are correct? (Level-Difficult)
- He did not undertake any formal education but was well-trained as a weaver.
- He never opposed idol worship as he felt it is a means to focus one’s religious pursuits and bhakti.
- His famous writings include ‘Sakhi Granth’, ‘Anurag Sagar’ and ‘Bijak’.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 01 is incorrect, Sant Kabir Das did not undertake any formal education. He was also not trained as a weaver. While his poems abound with weaving metaphors, his heart was not fully in this profession. He was on a spiritual journey to seek the truth, which is clearly manifested in his poetry.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, Kabir always opposed the idea of worshipping the idols and showed clear confidence in Bhakti and Sufi ideas.
- Statement 03 is correct, Sant Kabir Das was a highly acclaimed poet of his time. His writings significantly influenced the Bhakti movement.
- Some of his famous writings include ‘Sakhi Granth’, ‘Anurag Sagar’, ‘Bijak’ and ‘Kabir Granthawali’.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is incorrect, Sant Kabir Das did not undertake any formal education. He was also not trained as a weaver. While his poems abound with weaving metaphors, his heart was not fully in this profession. He was on a spiritual journey to seek the truth, which is clearly manifested in his poetry.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, Kabir always opposed the idea of worshipping the idols and showed clear confidence in Bhakti and Sufi ideas.
- Statement 03 is correct, Sant Kabir Das was a highly acclaimed poet of his time. His writings significantly influenced the Bhakti movement.
- Some of his famous writings include ‘Sakhi Granth’, ‘Anurag Sagar’, ‘Bijak’ and ‘Kabir Granthawali’.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with respect to the transfer of High Court Judges: (Level -Medium)
- Consent of a Judge for his first or subsequent transfer would not be required.
- Only the transferred judge and no one else is entitled to file a case challenging such transfer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, Article 222 of the Indian Constitution makes provision for the transfer of a Judge (including Chief Justice) from one High Court to any other High Court.
- The initiation of the proposal for the transfer of a Judge should be made by the Chief Justice of India whose opinion in this regard is determinative.
- Consent of a Judge for his first or subsequent transfer would not be required.
- Statement 02 is correct, A Division Bench of Madras High Court held that only the transferred judge and no one else was entitled to file a case challenging such transfer and that even the aggrieved judge concerned could question the transfer order only on limited grounds such as the proposal not having emanated from the Chief Justice of India (CJI).
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, Article 222 of the Indian Constitution makes provision for the transfer of a Judge (including Chief Justice) from one High Court to any other High Court.
- The initiation of the proposal for the transfer of a Judge should be made by the Chief Justice of India whose opinion in this regard is determinative.
- Consent of a Judge for his first or subsequent transfer would not be required.
- Statement 02 is correct, A Division Bench of Madras High Court held that only the transferred judge and no one else was entitled to file a case challenging such transfer and that even the aggrieved judge concerned could question the transfer order only on limited grounds such as the proposal not having emanated from the Chief Justice of India (CJI).
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is the best description of Cerebrotendinous xanthomatosis (CTX)? (Level-Difficult)
Correct
- Cerebrotendinous xanthomatosis is a disorder characterised by abnormal storage of fats (lipids) in many areas of the body. People with this disorder cannot break down certain lipids effectively, specifically different forms of cholesterol, so these fats accumulate in the body in the form of fatty yellow nodules called xanthomas.
- People with cerebrotendinous xanthomatosis often develop neurological problems in early adulthood that are thought to be caused by an abnormal accumulation of fats and an increasing number of xanthomas in the brain.
- These neurological problems include recurrent seizures (epilepsy), movement disorders, impaired speech (dysarthria), loss of sensation in the arms and legs (peripheral neuropathy), a decline in intellectual function (dementia), hallucinations, and depression.
Incorrect
- Cerebrotendinous xanthomatosis is a disorder characterised by abnormal storage of fats (lipids) in many areas of the body. People with this disorder cannot break down certain lipids effectively, specifically different forms of cholesterol, so these fats accumulate in the body in the form of fatty yellow nodules called xanthomas.
- People with cerebrotendinous xanthomatosis often develop neurological problems in early adulthood that are thought to be caused by an abnormal accumulation of fats and an increasing number of xanthomas in the brain.
- These neurological problems include recurrent seizures (epilepsy), movement disorders, impaired speech (dysarthria), loss of sensation in the arms and legs (peripheral neuropathy), a decline in intellectual function (dementia), hallucinations, and depression.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Category: Art and CultureWith respect to Baliyatra, which of the following statements is/are correct? (Level-Difficult)
- It is a festival held in the State of West Bengal.
- It is a unique socio-cultural event with a glorious history which commemorates the past association of the people of West Bengal with Bali remembering the glorious maritime tradition of transoceanic voyages.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 01 is incorrect, Baliyatra is the major festival held at Cuttack, Odisha at Gadagadia Ghata of the Mahanadi river on Kartik Purnima. It is considered to be one of Asia’s largest open trade fairs.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, It is celebrated to mark the day when ancient Sadhabas (Odia mariners) would set sail to Indonesia and Sri Lanka for trade and cultural expansion from Odisha.
- To commemorate this, the festival is celebrated every year from the day of Kartika Purnima (full moon day of the month of Kartika) according to the Odia calendar.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is incorrect, Baliyatra is the major festival held at Cuttack, Odisha at Gadagadia Ghata of the Mahanadi river on Kartik Purnima. It is considered to be one of Asia’s largest open trade fairs.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, It is celebrated to mark the day when ancient Sadhabas (Odia mariners) would set sail to Indonesia and Sri Lanka for trade and cultural expansion from Odisha.
- To commemorate this, the festival is celebrated every year from the day of Kartika Purnima (full moon day of the month of Kartika) according to the Odia calendar.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Category: HistoryWith reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements: (Level-Medium) (CSE-PYQ-2022)
- The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States.
- Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 01 is incorrect, As per the proposals of the Cripps Mission, after the end of the war, a constituent assembly would be convened to frame a new constitution. Members of this assembly would be partly elected by the provincial assemblies through proportional representation and partly nominated by the princes.
- Statement 02 is correct, Cripps Mission also proposed that the provinces not agreeing to the new constitution would have the right to keep themselves out of the proposed Union. Such provinces would also be entitled to create their own separate Union and have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is incorrect, As per the proposals of the Cripps Mission, after the end of the war, a constituent assembly would be convened to frame a new constitution. Members of this assembly would be partly elected by the provincial assemblies through proportional representation and partly nominated by the princes.
- Statement 02 is correct, Cripps Mission also proposed that the provinces not agreeing to the new constitution would have the right to keep themselves out of the proposed Union. Such provinces would also be entitled to create their own separate Union and have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regards to the Supreme Court of India: (Level – Easy)
- While the Chief Justice of India is the judicial head of the Supreme Court, the President of India plays the role of the administrative head of the Court.
- President of India exercises the prerogative of allocating cases to particular benches.
- The Chief Justice decides the number of judges that will hear a case.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, The Chief Justice of India as the “Master of Roster” is both the judicial as well as the administrative head of the Supreme Court.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The Chief Justice of India is responsible for the allocation of cases to particular benches.
- Statement 3 is correct, The Chief Justice of India decides the number of judges and even its composition of a bench that will hear a case.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, The Chief Justice of India as the “Master of Roster” is both the judicial as well as the administrative head of the Supreme Court.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The Chief Justice of India is responsible for the allocation of cases to particular benches.
- Statement 3 is correct, The Chief Justice of India decides the number of judges and even its composition of a bench that will hear a case.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Category: Current AffairsConsider the following statements with regards to the Nuclear non-proliferation treaty: (Level – Medium)
- The Treaty represents the only binding commitment in a multilateral treaty to the goal of disarmament by the nuclear-weapon States.
- Safeguards are used to verify compliance with the Treaty through inspections conducted by the IAEA.
- More countries have ratified the NPT than any other arms limitation and disarmament agreement.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, The NPT represents the only binding commitment in a multilateral treaty to the goal of disarmament by the nuclear-weapon States.
- Statement 2 is correct, The Treaty establishes a safeguards system under the responsibility of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA).
- Safeguards are used to verify compliance with the Treaty through inspections conducted by the IAEA.
- Statement 3 is correct, More countries have ratified the NPT than any other arms limitation and disarmament agreement
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, The NPT represents the only binding commitment in a multilateral treaty to the goal of disarmament by the nuclear-weapon States.
- Statement 2 is correct, The Treaty establishes a safeguards system under the responsibility of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA).
- Safeguards are used to verify compliance with the Treaty through inspections conducted by the IAEA.
- Statement 3 is correct, More countries have ratified the NPT than any other arms limitation and disarmament agreement
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Category: G KConsider the following statements with regards to the 2022 FIFA world cup: (Level – Medium)
- This is the first football World Cup to be hosted in Asia.
- FIFA has suspended Russia from international competitions “until further notice”, including its participation in the 2022 FIFA World Cup.
- The tournament’s official mascot is named ‘Al-Rihla’, which is an Arabic word meaning “super-skilled player”.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, The 2022 FIFA world cup will be the first World Cup to be held in the Arab countries and the second instance to be held entirely in Asia after the 2002 tournament in South Korea and Japan.
- Statement 2 is correct, FIFA has suspended Russia from international competitions “until further notice”, including its participation in the 2022 FIFA World Cup.
- Statement 3 is not correct, The Official Mascot for the Qatar 2022 World Cup has been revealed and he is a super-skilled football player called “La’eeb”.
- The official match ball for the 2022 FIFA World Cup is named “Al Rihla” by Adidas which means “the journey” in Arabic and is inspired by the culture, architecture, iconic boats and flag of Qatar.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, The 2022 FIFA world cup will be the first World Cup to be held in the Arab countries and the second instance to be held entirely in Asia after the 2002 tournament in South Korea and Japan.
- Statement 2 is correct, FIFA has suspended Russia from international competitions “until further notice”, including its participation in the 2022 FIFA World Cup.
- Statement 3 is not correct, The Official Mascot for the Qatar 2022 World Cup has been revealed and he is a super-skilled football player called “La’eeb”.
- The official match ball for the 2022 FIFA World Cup is named “Al Rihla” by Adidas which means “the journey” in Arabic and is inspired by the culture, architecture, iconic boats and flag of Qatar.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Category: Current AffairsWhich of the following organizations publishes the ‘State of the economy’ report? (Level – Easy)
Correct
- The “State of the economy” Report is published by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
Incorrect
- The “State of the economy” Report is published by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Category: PolityThe Preamble to the Constitution of India is (Level – Easy) PYQ (2020)
Correct
Case Judgement A.K. Gopalan vs State of Madras (1950) The Supreme Court ruled that Preamble is not enforceable in a court of law. Berubari Union (1960) The Supreme Court ruled that Preamble is not a part of the Indian Constitution however, it helps in interpretation of the clauses of the Constitution. Keshavananda Bharti vs State of Kerala (1973) The Supreme Court ruled that the Preamble is a part of the Indian Constitution. Union Government Vs LIC of India (1995 ) The Supreme Court once again held that Preamble is the integral part of the Constitution but is not directly enforceable in a court of justice in India. Incorrect
Case Judgement A.K. Gopalan vs State of Madras (1950) The Supreme Court ruled that Preamble is not enforceable in a court of law. Berubari Union (1960) The Supreme Court ruled that Preamble is not a part of the Indian Constitution however, it helps in interpretation of the clauses of the Constitution. Keshavananda Bharti vs State of Kerala (1973) The Supreme Court ruled that the Preamble is a part of the Indian Constitution. Union Government Vs LIC of India (1995 ) The Supreme Court once again held that Preamble is the integral part of the Constitution but is not directly enforceable in a court of justice in India. -
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Category: HistoryWhich of the following statements with respect to Thiruvalluvar is/are correct? (Level-Medium)
- He is a celebrated Tamil poet and philosopher, best known as the author of Thirukkural
- Thirukkural is considered as one of the greatest works ever written on ethics and morality, it is known for its universality and secular nature
Options:
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, The composition of Thirukkural is attributed to the poet Tiruvalluvar, who is thought to have lived in India in the 6th century. Thiruvalluvar, also called Valluvar, was a Tamil poet-saint.
- Statement 02 is correct, Tirukkural is comprised of 133 sections of 10 couplets each is divided into three books: Aram (virtue), Porul (government and society), and Kamam (love). It is considered one of the greatest works ever written on ethics and morality, it is known for its universality and secular nature.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, The composition of Thirukkural is attributed to the poet Tiruvalluvar, who is thought to have lived in India in the 6th century. Thiruvalluvar, also called Valluvar, was a Tamil poet-saint.
- Statement 02 is correct, Tirukkural is comprised of 133 sections of 10 couplets each is divided into three books: Aram (virtue), Porul (government and society), and Kamam (love). It is considered one of the greatest works ever written on ethics and morality, it is known for its universality and secular nature.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Category: GeographyWhich of the following has/have been accorded the GI Tag? (Level-Difficult)
- Musa indandamanensi
- Nicobari hodi
- Zingiber
Options:
Correct
- A sweet banana species with orange pulp named as Musa indandamanensis was discovered in Andamans by team of scientists from the Botanical Survey of India (BSI) from a remote Krishna Nalah tropical rain forest on the Little Andaman islands. It has not been accorded GI Tag.
- Recently, Tribal Development Council, Andaman & Nicobar Islands has applied for the Geographical Indication (GI) tag for the Nicobari hodi boat. It has not been accorded GI Tag yet.
- Zingiber (commonly referred to as ginger) has not been accorded GI Tag.
Incorrect
- A sweet banana species with orange pulp named as Musa indandamanensis was discovered in Andamans by team of scientists from the Botanical Survey of India (BSI) from a remote Krishna Nalah tropical rain forest on the Little Andaman islands. It has not been accorded GI Tag.
- Recently, Tribal Development Council, Andaman & Nicobar Islands has applied for the Geographical Indication (GI) tag for the Nicobari hodi boat. It has not been accorded GI Tag yet.
- Zingiber (commonly referred to as ginger) has not been accorded GI Tag.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements: (Level-Difficult)
- It is a National Park located in Andhra Pradesh
- Godavari River flows through the park
- The park exists in the Eastern Ghats
The above statements best describe:
Correct
- The Papikonda National Park spreads in East and West Godavari districts of Andhra Pradesh.
- The park lies on the left and right banks of the river Godavari.
- This National Park cuts through the Papikonda hill range of Eastern Ghats.
- The majority of the area of the park is covered with moist deciduous forest.
Incorrect
- The Papikonda National Park spreads in East and West Godavari districts of Andhra Pradesh.
- The park lies on the left and right banks of the river Godavari.
- This National Park cuts through the Papikonda hill range of Eastern Ghats.
- The majority of the area of the park is covered with moist deciduous forest.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Category: GeographyArrange the following islands from South to North: (Level-Difficult)
- Barren Island
- Rutland Island
- Chowra Island
- Katchal Island
Options:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Category: GeographyThe Tunga River flows through the State of: (Level-Medium)
Correct
- The river is born in the Western Ghats on a hill known as Varaha Parvata at a place called Gangamoola. From here, the river flows through two districts in Karnataka – Chikmagalur District and Shimoga District.
- It is 147 km long and merges with the Bhadra River at Koodli, a small town near Shimoga City. The river is given the compound name Tungabhadra from this point on.
- The river flows eastwards and merges with the Krishna River in Andhra Pradesh.
Incorrect
- The river is born in the Western Ghats on a hill known as Varaha Parvata at a place called Gangamoola. From here, the river flows through two districts in Karnataka – Chikmagalur District and Shimoga District.
- It is 147 km long and merges with the Bhadra River at Koodli, a small town near Shimoga City. The river is given the compound name Tungabhadra from this point on.
- The river flows eastwards and merges with the Krishna River in Andhra Pradesh.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Category: EconomyWhich one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India? (PYQ-CSE-2022)(Level-Medium)
Correct
- Indirect transfers refer to situations where when foreign entities own shares or assets in India, the shares of such foreign entities are transferred instead of a direct transfer of the underlying assets in India.
Incorrect
- Indirect transfers refer to situations where when foreign entities own shares or assets in India, the shares of such foreign entities are transferred instead of a direct transfer of the underlying assets in India.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements with respect to ‘Great Knot’ recently seen in news: (Level- Difficult)
- It is a small wader and smallest of the calidrid species.
- It is classified as Critically Endangered in the IUCN Red-List.
- It is an international migratory bird that travels vast distances between the northern hemisphere and southern hemisphere.
How many of the given statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 01 is incorrect, The great knot is a small wader. It is the largest of the calidrid species.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, They are listed as ‘Endangered’ in the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
- Statement 03 is correct, They are long-distance migrants and they stay in the Yellow Sea region and Thailand in southeast Asia before proceeding to their southerly winter grounds, including Peninsular India along the Central Asian Flyway.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is incorrect, The great knot is a small wader. It is the largest of the calidrid species.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, They are listed as ‘Endangered’ in the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
- Statement 03 is correct, They are long-distance migrants and they stay in the Yellow Sea region and Thailand in southeast Asia before proceeding to their southerly winter grounds, including Peninsular India along the Central Asian Flyway.
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