UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Nov 19 – Nov 25 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from Nov 19 – Nov 25 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.
Post your scores in the comment section below!
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UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Nov 19 – Nov 25
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Category: PolityIn which of the following cases, burden to prove innocent rests on the accused?
- Dowry Death
- Cases under SC/ST Act
- Child Sexual Assault Cases
- Drug cases under NDPS Act
Options:
Correct
- It is a fundamental principle of criminal jurisprudence that an accused is presumed to be innocent and, therefore, the burden lies on the prosecution to prove the guilt of the accused beyond reasonable doubt.
- However in case of certain crimes like dowry death, cases under SC/ST act, child sexual assault cases and drug cases under the NDPS act, the burden to prove innocent rests on the accused.
Incorrect
- It is a fundamental principle of criminal jurisprudence that an accused is presumed to be innocent and, therefore, the burden lies on the prosecution to prove the guilt of the accused beyond reasonable doubt.
- However in case of certain crimes like dowry death, cases under SC/ST act, child sexual assault cases and drug cases under the NDPS act, the burden to prove innocent rests on the accused.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Category: International RelationsCAATSA has been imposed on which of the following countries?
- Afghanistan
- Iran
- North Korea
- Russia
- Syria
Options:
Correct
- The Countering America’s Adversaries Through Sanctions Act is a United States federal law that imposed sanctions on Iran, North Korea, and Russia.
- CAATSA authorises the U.S. administration to impose sanctions on countries that indulge in defence trade with the above three countries.
Incorrect
- The Countering America’s Adversaries Through Sanctions Act is a United States federal law that imposed sanctions on Iran, North Korea, and Russia.
- CAATSA authorises the U.S. administration to impose sanctions on countries that indulge in defence trade with the above three countries.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Category: PolityWhich of the following statements is/are correct?
- A person to be appointed as a judge of a high court should have been an advocate of a high court for seven years.
- A distinguished Jurist in the opinion of the President can be a Judge of the High Court.
Options:
Correct
- A person to be appointed as a judge of a high court should have been an advocate of a high court for at least ten years
- A distinguished Jurist in the opinion of President can be a Judge of the Supreme Court but there is no such provision for High Court judges.
Incorrect
- A person to be appointed as a judge of a high court should have been an advocate of a high court for at least ten years
- A distinguished Jurist in the opinion of President can be a Judge of the Supreme Court but there is no such provision for High Court judges.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Category: PolityThe Ministries/Departments of the Government are created by the
Correct
The Ministries/Departments of the Government of India are created by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister under the Government of India (Allocation of Business Rules) 1961.
Incorrect
The Ministries/Departments of the Government of India are created by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister under the Government of India (Allocation of Business Rules) 1961.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Category: HistoryIn the context of the history of India, consider the following pairs: (UPSC-2016)
Term Description
- Eripatti : Land, revenue from which was set apart for the maintenance of the village tank
- Taniyurs : Villages donated to a single Brahmin or a group of Brahmins
- Ghatikas : Colleges generally attached to the temples
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Taniyurs was a large village and were distinct revenue units under Cholas. The villages donated to a single Brahmin or a group of Brahmins are known as Brahmadeya.
Incorrect
Taniyurs was a large village and were distinct revenue units under Cholas. The villages donated to a single Brahmin or a group of Brahmins are known as Brahmadeya.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with respect to Habeas Corpus:
- It can be issued against both public authorities, as well as private individuals.
- Locus Standi does not apply.
- The Principle of application of res judicata is not applicable in Writ of Habeas Corpus even if filed on the same grounds as the first one.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- ‘Habeas Corpus’ literally means “to have a body of”. It allows a prisoner to indicate that his or her constitutionally guaranteed rights to fair treatment in a trial have been infringed upon.
- The writ of habeas corpus can be issued against both public authorities as well as private individuals.
- Locus Standi does not apply to Habeas Corpus. If a person detained or confined can’t file an application for the writ then some other person can file it on his/her behalf.
- Res judicata means a case that has already been decided or a matter settled by a decision or judgment. The Principle of application of res judicata is applicable in the Writ of Habeas Corpus even if filed on the same grounds as the first one.
Incorrect
- ‘Habeas Corpus’ literally means “to have a body of”. It allows a prisoner to indicate that his or her constitutionally guaranteed rights to fair treatment in a trial have been infringed upon.
- The writ of habeas corpus can be issued against both public authorities as well as private individuals.
- Locus Standi does not apply to Habeas Corpus. If a person detained or confined can’t file an application for the writ then some other person can file it on his/her behalf.
- Res judicata means a case that has already been decided or a matter settled by a decision or judgment. The Principle of application of res judicata is applicable in the Writ of Habeas Corpus even if filed on the same grounds as the first one.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Category: PolityWith respect to Defamation in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Defamation is civil as well as criminal wrong.
- The civil law of defamation is not codified whereas criminal law is codified.
- The right to reputation is an integral part of Article 21 of the Constitution.
Options:
Correct
- Defamation means “The offence of injuring a person’s character, fame, or reputation by false and malicious statements”. In other words, defamation is nothing but causing damage to the reputation of another.
- In India, defamation could both be a civil and a criminal offence.
- The criminal law on defamation is contained in sections 499 to 502 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860. But the civil law of defamation is not codified.
- In the Subramanian Swamy v. Union of India case, the apex court held that the reputation of an individual is a basic element under Article 21 of the Constitution.
Incorrect
- Defamation means “The offence of injuring a person’s character, fame, or reputation by false and malicious statements”. In other words, defamation is nothing but causing damage to the reputation of another.
- In India, defamation could both be a civil and a criminal offence.
- The criminal law on defamation is contained in sections 499 to 502 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860. But the civil law of defamation is not codified.
- In the Subramanian Swamy v. Union of India case, the apex court held that the reputation of an individual is a basic element under Article 21 of the Constitution.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Category: EconomyWhich of the following statements is/are correct?
- Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) is released by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce & Industry.
- The ICI is released every six months.
Options:
Correct
- The Office of Economic Adviser, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry releases the Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI). ICI measures combined and individual performance of production in selected eight core industries viz. Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Refinery Products, Fertilizers, Steel, Cement and Electricity. The Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27 per cent of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
- It is a monthly index. ICI for a reference month is released with a time lag of one month on the last day of the next month.
Incorrect
- The Office of Economic Adviser, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry releases the Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI). ICI measures combined and individual performance of production in selected eight core industries viz. Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Refinery Products, Fertilizers, Steel, Cement and Electricity. The Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27 per cent of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
- It is a monthly index. ICI for a reference month is released with a time lag of one month on the last day of the next month.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Category: EconomyWith respect to the Governor of RBI, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- An economics or finance background is compulsory as prescribed under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
- He/she can hold office for a term of three years or until the age of 70 years with no scope for reappointment.
Options:
Correct
The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 doesn’t mention any specific qualification for the governor. Persons with diverse educational backgrounds have been selected as Governors in the past. Section 8 (4) of the RBI Act explains the following: “The Governor and a Deputy Governor shall hold office for such term not exceeding five years as the (Central Government) may fix when appointing them and shall be eligible for re-appointment.
Incorrect
The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 doesn’t mention any specific qualification for the governor. Persons with diverse educational backgrounds have been selected as Governors in the past. Section 8 (4) of the RBI Act explains the following: “The Governor and a Deputy Governor shall hold office for such term not exceeding five years as the (Central Government) may fix when appointing them and shall be eligible for re-appointment.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements:
- The Sustainable Development Goals were first proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called the ‘Club of Rome’.
- The Sustainable Development Goals have to be achieved by 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- The UN Conference on Sustainable Development held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil in 2012, commemorating the 20th Anniversary of the ‘Rio Earth Summit’ (held in 1992), initiated the debate and work towards post-2015 development agenda targets. Accordingly, the UN General Assembly in its 70th Session considered and adopted the 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and associated 169 targets for the next 15 years.
- The Sustainable Development Goals have to be achieved by 2030 which would act as the deadline.
Incorrect
- The UN Conference on Sustainable Development held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil in 2012, commemorating the 20th Anniversary of the ‘Rio Earth Summit’ (held in 1992), initiated the debate and work towards post-2015 development agenda targets. Accordingly, the UN General Assembly in its 70th Session considered and adopted the 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and associated 169 targets for the next 15 years.
- The Sustainable Development Goals have to be achieved by 2030 which would act as the deadline.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Category: HistoryWhat was Damin-i-Koh?
Correct
Damin-i-koh (or sometimes referred to simply as Damin) was the name given to the forested hilly areas of Rajmahal hills broadly in the area of present Sahebganj, Pakur and Godda districts in the Indian state of Jharkhand.
Incorrect
Damin-i-koh (or sometimes referred to simply as Damin) was the name given to the forested hilly areas of Rajmahal hills broadly in the area of present Sahebganj, Pakur and Godda districts in the Indian state of Jharkhand.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Category: GeographyWith respect to Bridgmanite, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is the most volumetrically abundant mineral of the Earth’s interior.
- It is present in the lower mantle.
Options:
Correct
- Bridgmanite is the most volumetrically abundant mineral in the interior of the Earth. It is present in the lower mantle (from 660 to 2700 km).
- Bridgmanite consists of magnesium, iron, calcium and aluminium oxide and has a perovskite structure.
- A perovskite is any material with a crystal structure similar to the mineral called perovskite, which consists of calcium titanium oxide (CaTiO3).
Incorrect
- Bridgmanite is the most volumetrically abundant mineral in the interior of the Earth. It is present in the lower mantle (from 660 to 2700 km).
- Bridgmanite consists of magnesium, iron, calcium and aluminium oxide and has a perovskite structure.
- A perovskite is any material with a crystal structure similar to the mineral called perovskite, which consists of calcium titanium oxide (CaTiO3).
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Category: G KWhich of the following reports are published by International Monetary Fund (IMF)?
- Global Financial Stability Report (GFSR)
- Travel & Tourism Competitiveness Report
- World Economic Outlook
Options:
Correct
- Important publications of the International Monetary Fund (IMF):
- World Economic Outlook
- Global Financial Stability Report
- Fiscal Monitor
- Global Policy Agenda
- Travel & Tourism Competitiveness Report is brought out by the World Economic Forum.
Incorrect
- Important publications of the International Monetary Fund (IMF):
- World Economic Outlook
- Global Financial Stability Report
- Fiscal Monitor
- Global Policy Agenda
- Travel & Tourism Competitiveness Report is brought out by the World Economic Forum.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Category: GeographyWhich of the following statements is/are incorrect?
- Arabica is a mild coffee and has a higher market value compared to Robusta beans.
- Robusta is susceptible to pests & diseases such as White Stem Borer and requires more shade than Arabica
Options:
Correct
- The two main varieties of coffee viz., Arabica and Robusta are grown in India.
- Arabica is mild coffee, but the beans being more aromatic, it has higher market value compared to Robusta beans. On the other hand Robusta has more strength and is, therefore, used in making various blends.
- Arabica is grown at higher altitudes than Robusta. The cool and equable temperature, ranging between 15 degree Celsius to 25 degree Celsius, is suitable for Arabica while for Robusta, hot and humid climate with temperature ranging from 20 degree Celsius to 30 degree Celsius is suitable. Arabica requires more care & nurture and is more suitable for large holdings whereas Robusta is suitable irrespective of size of the farm.
- The harvest of Arabica takes place between November to January, while for Robusta it is December to February.
- Arabica is susceptible to pests & diseases such as White Stem Borer, leaf rust etc., and requires more shade than Robusta.
Incorrect
- The two main varieties of coffee viz., Arabica and Robusta are grown in India.
- Arabica is mild coffee, but the beans being more aromatic, it has higher market value compared to Robusta beans. On the other hand Robusta has more strength and is, therefore, used in making various blends.
- Arabica is grown at higher altitudes than Robusta. The cool and equable temperature, ranging between 15 degree Celsius to 25 degree Celsius, is suitable for Arabica while for Robusta, hot and humid climate with temperature ranging from 20 degree Celsius to 30 degree Celsius is suitable. Arabica requires more care & nurture and is more suitable for large holdings whereas Robusta is suitable irrespective of size of the farm.
- The harvest of Arabica takes place between November to January, while for Robusta it is December to February.
- Arabica is susceptible to pests & diseases such as White Stem Borer, leaf rust etc., and requires more shade than Robusta.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Category: SchemesWith reference to ‘Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana’, consider the following statements (UPSC 2016):
- Under this scheme, farmers will have to pay a uniform premium of two percent for any crop they cultivate in any season of the year.
- This scheme covers post-harvest losses arising out of cyclones and unseasonal rains.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- The Pradhan Mantri Fasal bima yojana (PMFBY) is an insurance service for farmers for their yields. It has replaced earlier two schemes National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS) and Modified National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (MNAIS).
- It aims to reduce the premium burden on farmers and ensure early settlement of crop assurance claim for the full insured sum.
- PMFBY aims to provide a comprehensive insurance cover against failure of the crop thus helping in stabilising the income of the farmers.
- The scheme is implemented by empanelled general insurance companies.
- The scheme is compulsory for loanee farmers availing Crop Loan /KCC account for notified crops and voluntary for other others. The scheme is being administered by the Ministry of Agriculture.
- Under this scheme, there are different premium rates for the Kharif and Rabi crops. There will be a uniform premium of only 2% to be paid by farmers for all Kharif crops and 1.5% for all Rabi crops. In case of annual commercial and horticultural crops, the premium to be paid by farmers will be only 5%.
- The scheme also covers post-harvest losses: Coverage is available only up to a maximum period of two weeks from harvesting, for those crops which are required to be dried in cut and spread / small bundled condition in the field after harvesting against specific perils of Hailstorm, Cyclone, Cyclonic rains and Unseasonal rains.
Incorrect
- The Pradhan Mantri Fasal bima yojana (PMFBY) is an insurance service for farmers for their yields. It has replaced earlier two schemes National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS) and Modified National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (MNAIS).
- It aims to reduce the premium burden on farmers and ensure early settlement of crop assurance claim for the full insured sum.
- PMFBY aims to provide a comprehensive insurance cover against failure of the crop thus helping in stabilising the income of the farmers.
- The scheme is implemented by empanelled general insurance companies.
- The scheme is compulsory for loanee farmers availing Crop Loan /KCC account for notified crops and voluntary for other others. The scheme is being administered by the Ministry of Agriculture.
- Under this scheme, there are different premium rates for the Kharif and Rabi crops. There will be a uniform premium of only 2% to be paid by farmers for all Kharif crops and 1.5% for all Rabi crops. In case of annual commercial and horticultural crops, the premium to be paid by farmers will be only 5%.
- The scheme also covers post-harvest losses: Coverage is available only up to a maximum period of two weeks from harvesting, for those crops which are required to be dried in cut and spread / small bundled condition in the field after harvesting against specific perils of Hailstorm, Cyclone, Cyclonic rains and Unseasonal rains.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements with regards to Ganges River Dolphins and choose the correct ones:
- They are listed as ‘endangered’ on the IUCN red list.
- It is the national aquatic animal of India.
- It features in Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Which of these statements are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct: IUCN red list of Threatened Species has given the status of ‘Endangered’ to the Ganges River Dolphin.
- Statement 2 is correct: The Ganges River Dolphin, also called ‘Susu,’ is the National Aquatic Animal of India.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The species is included in the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972– Schedule I. It makes it prohibited to be hunted throughout India, except under threat to human life.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct: IUCN red list of Threatened Species has given the status of ‘Endangered’ to the Ganges River Dolphin.
- Statement 2 is correct: The Ganges River Dolphin, also called ‘Susu,’ is the National Aquatic Animal of India.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The species is included in the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972– Schedule I. It makes it prohibited to be hunted throughout India, except under threat to human life.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Category: History“Hindus and Muslims are the two eyes of the beautiful bride that is Hindustan. Weakness of any one of them will spoil the beauty of the bride.” This statement is associated with whom amongst the following?
Correct
- This quote was said by Sir Syed Ahmed Khan.
Incorrect
- This quote was said by Sir Syed Ahmed Khan.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Category: HealthConsider the following statements with regards to Dengue:
- The same mosquito species is responsible for causing dengue, chikungunya, yellow fever and zika infection.
- Diagnosis of dengue infection is done with a blood test.
- National Vector-Borne Disease Control Programme, under the Ministry of Urban Development, is the central nodal agency for the prevention and control of Dengue in India.
Which of these statements are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct: The female mosquitoes of the Aedes variety is responsible for causing dengue, chikungunya, yellow fever and zika infection.
- Statement 2 is correct: Diagnosis of dengue infection is done with a blood test.
- Statement 3 is correct: It is under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct: The female mosquitoes of the Aedes variety is responsible for causing dengue, chikungunya, yellow fever and zika infection.
- Statement 2 is correct: Diagnosis of dengue infection is done with a blood test.
- Statement 3 is correct: It is under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Category: International RelationsWhich of these nations is not a part of the BASIC group of nations?
Correct
- The BASIC countries (also Basic countries or BASIC) are a bloc of four large newly industrialized countries – Brazil, South Africa, India and China.
Incorrect
- The BASIC countries (also Basic countries or BASIC) are a bloc of four large newly industrialized countries – Brazil, South Africa, India and China.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Category: HistoryWho among of the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?
Correct
- Jahangir shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to the album and individual portraits.
Incorrect
- Jahangir shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to the album and individual portraits.
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Category: Defence & SecurityConsider the following statements with regards to the Defense Acquisition Council and choose the correct ones:
- It is the highest decision-making body in the Defense Ministry for deciding on new policies and capital acquisitions for the three services (Army, Navy and Air Force) and the Indian Coast Guard.
- The Chief of Defense Staff is the Chairman of the Council.
- It was formed after the Group of Ministers’ recommendations on ‘Reforming the National Security System’, in 2001, post the Kargil War (1999).
Which of these statements are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct: The Defence Acquisition Council is the highest decision-making body for deciding on new policies and capital acquisitions for the three services (Army, Navy and Air Force) and the Indian Coast Guard.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: It is chaired by the Defence Minister.
- Statement 3 is correct: It was formed after the Group of Ministers’ recommendations on ‘Reforming the National Security System’.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct: The Defence Acquisition Council is the highest decision-making body for deciding on new policies and capital acquisitions for the three services (Army, Navy and Air Force) and the Indian Coast Guard.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: It is chaired by the Defence Minister.
- Statement 3 is correct: It was formed after the Group of Ministers’ recommendations on ‘Reforming the National Security System’.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Category: International RelationsCountering America’s Adversaries Through Sanctions Act (CAATSA), a United States federal law, does not impose sanctions on which of the following nations?
Correct
The Countering America’s Adversaries through Sanctions Act (CAATSA) is a United States Federal Law that has imposed sanctions against Iran, Russia and North Korea.
Incorrect
The Countering America’s Adversaries through Sanctions Act (CAATSA) is a United States Federal Law that has imposed sanctions against Iran, Russia and North Korea.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Category: SchemesConsider the following statements with regards to Ayushman CAPF scheme:
- It will provide healthcare services to the serving and retired CAPF personnel from all seven forces, viz. Assam Rifles, BSF, CISF, CRPF, ITBP, NSG and SSB, and their dependents through the Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY IT platform.
- A dedicated call centre for support and grievance redressal for CAPF personnel has also been set up.
- Under this scheme, any medical expense done by the CAPF personnel will be reimbursed up to the limit of Rs. 5 lakh per family.
Which of these statements are incorrect?
Correct
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The government has extended the Ayushman CAPF healthcare scheme benefits to the personnel of all Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs), viz. Assam Rifles, BSF, CISF, CRPF, ITBP, NSG and SSB, and their dependents. It is not extended to retired personnel.
- Statement 2 is correct.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The scheme provides cashless medical cover.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The government has extended the Ayushman CAPF healthcare scheme benefits to the personnel of all Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs), viz. Assam Rifles, BSF, CISF, CRPF, ITBP, NSG and SSB, and their dependents. It is not extended to retired personnel.
- Statement 2 is correct.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The scheme provides cashless medical cover.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Category: EconomyConsider the following statements with regards to the recently released guidelines on NPAs by the Union Finance Ministry:
- Staff accountability need not be examined in the case of NPA accounts with outstanding of up to Rs. 20 lakh.
- The accountability exercise, whenever needed, must be completed within 3 months from the date that the account is declared as NPA.
- If NPA is caused by external factors such as changes in government policies or natural calamities, it should not attract a staff accountability examination.
Which of these statements are incorrect?
Correct
- Statement 1 is incorrect: For examining staff accountability, banks may decide on a threshold of Rs 10 lakh or Rs 20 lakh, depending on their business size.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Banks will have to complete an accountability exercise within six months from the date an account is classified as NPA.
- Statement 3 is correct: The guideline says that if NPA is caused by external factors such as a change in government policy, natural calamities, non-release of government subsidy/grant — it should not attract a staff accountability examination.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is incorrect: For examining staff accountability, banks may decide on a threshold of Rs 10 lakh or Rs 20 lakh, depending on their business size.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Banks will have to complete an accountability exercise within six months from the date an account is classified as NPA.
- Statement 3 is correct: The guideline says that if NPA is caused by external factors such as a change in government policy, natural calamities, non-release of government subsidy/grant — it should not attract a staff accountability examination.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements:
- The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
- The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
- The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
- If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The Speaker may admit or reject the motion.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution of India does not define or provide any detail of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’.
- Statements 3 and 4 are correct.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The Speaker may admit or reject the motion.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution of India does not define or provide any detail of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’.
- Statements 3 and 4 are correct.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Category: GeographyConsider the following statements with regards to the tea garden community of Assam:
- They are found mainly in those districts of Upper Assam and Northern Brahmaputra belt where there is high concentration of tea gardens.
- The Government of Assam has a full-fledged “Tea-tribes welfare department” for looking after the socio-economic welfare of the community.
- Tribals among the community have been fighting for decades to receive Scheduled Tribe (ST) status, which is being denied to them in Assam although in other states of India their counterparts fully enjoy that status.
Choose the correct ones from the given codes:
Correct
- In Assam, the tea-garden community is a group of multi-ethnic communities of tea garden workers. This community is officially referred to as “Tea-tribes”.
- They are mostly found in Upper Assam and the Northern Brahmaputra belt districts with a large concentration of tea gardens, such as Kokrajhar, Udalguri, Sonitpur, Nagaon, Golaghat, Jorhat, Sivasagar, Charaideo, Dibrugarh, and Tinsukia. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- The Assam government addresses the socio-economic well-being of the Tea-Tribes through a full-fledged “Tea-tribes welfare department”, “Adivasi Development Councils” and “Tea & ex-Tea garden tribes Development Councils.” Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- Tea-tribes have been demanding Scheduled Tribe (ST) status, which is being denied to them in Assam. However, in many other states of India Tea-tribes and their counterparts fully enjoy the Scheduled Tribe (ST) status. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
- In Assam, the tea-garden community is a group of multi-ethnic communities of tea garden workers. This community is officially referred to as “Tea-tribes”.
- They are mostly found in Upper Assam and the Northern Brahmaputra belt districts with a large concentration of tea gardens, such as Kokrajhar, Udalguri, Sonitpur, Nagaon, Golaghat, Jorhat, Sivasagar, Charaideo, Dibrugarh, and Tinsukia. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- The Assam government addresses the socio-economic well-being of the Tea-Tribes through a full-fledged “Tea-tribes welfare department”, “Adivasi Development Councils” and “Tea & ex-Tea garden tribes Development Councils.” Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- Tea-tribes have been demanding Scheduled Tribe (ST) status, which is being denied to them in Assam. However, in many other states of India Tea-tribes and their counterparts fully enjoy the Scheduled Tribe (ST) status. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Category: International RelationsAs per the 2015 JCPOA deal between Iran and P5+1 nations, Iran was not meant to enrich Uranium above ______, while enriched Uranium above _____ can be used for nuclear weapons.
Correct
- Recently, Iran’s atomic agency disclosed that its stockpile of 20% enriched uranium has reached over 210 kilograms.
- The Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action or JCPOA is a nuclear deal between Iran and the World Powers.
- According to the 2015 nuclear deal, Iran was not meant to enrich uranium above 3.67%. Enriched uranium above 90% can be used for nuclear weapons.
- This deal promises Iran economic incentives in exchange for limits on its nuclear programme, and is meant to prevent Iran from developing a nuclear bomb.
Incorrect
- Recently, Iran’s atomic agency disclosed that its stockpile of 20% enriched uranium has reached over 210 kilograms.
- The Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action or JCPOA is a nuclear deal between Iran and the World Powers.
- According to the 2015 nuclear deal, Iran was not meant to enrich uranium above 3.67%. Enriched uranium above 90% can be used for nuclear weapons.
- This deal promises Iran economic incentives in exchange for limits on its nuclear programme, and is meant to prevent Iran from developing a nuclear bomb.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements with regards to the Air Quality Index:
- It measures a total of 10 major air pollutants.
- AQI reading from 401-500 is considered as ‘severe’.
- PM 2.5 refers to the concentration of microscopic particles less than 2.5 microns in radius.
Which of these statements are incorrect?
Correct
- Air Quality is measured using a metric called Air Quality Index (AQI). AQI keeps a tab on 8 major air pollutants in the atmosphere. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
- The 8 major air pollutants measured by AQI are:
- Particulate Matter (PM10)
- Particulate Matter (PM2.5)
- Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2)
- Sulphur Dioxide (SO2)
- Carbon Monoxide (CO)
- Ozone (O3)
- Ammonia (NH3)
- Lead (Pb)
- An AQI between 0 and 50 is considered “good”, 51 and 100 “satisfactory”, 101 and 200 “moderate”, 201 and 300 “poor”, 301 and 400 “very poor”, and 401 and 500 “severe”. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- PM 2.5 refers to the concentration of microscopic particles less than 2.5 microns in diameter (NOT Radius). Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
- Air Quality is measured using a metric called Air Quality Index (AQI). AQI keeps a tab on 8 major air pollutants in the atmosphere. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
- The 8 major air pollutants measured by AQI are:
- Particulate Matter (PM10)
- Particulate Matter (PM2.5)
- Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2)
- Sulphur Dioxide (SO2)
- Carbon Monoxide (CO)
- Ozone (O3)
- Ammonia (NH3)
- Lead (Pb)
- An AQI between 0 and 50 is considered “good”, 51 and 100 “satisfactory”, 101 and 200 “moderate”, 201 and 300 “poor”, 301 and 400 “very poor”, and 401 and 500 “severe”. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- PM 2.5 refers to the concentration of microscopic particles less than 2.5 microns in diameter (NOT Radius). Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements with regards to the practice of Stubble Burning:
- It is notified as an offence under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
- In Punjab and Haryana, farmers burn the stubble (rice chaff) left after the rice harvest so that the field may be readied for the next Kharif (winter) crop like wheat.
- Madhya Pradesh government has set up an innovative experiment, called gauthans, to solve this problem.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Stubble burning is the intentional burning or setting on fire of crop residue to remove them from the field in order to sow the next crop. It is notified as an offence under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- The farmers in Punjab and Haryana burn the stubble left after the rice harvest so that the field may be readied for the next Rabi (NOT Kharif) crop like wheat. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
- The “gauthans” have been initiated by the Chhattisgarh government in many villages to solve the problem of Stubble burning. In gauthans, farmers bring their stubble to a ‘gauthan’ where it is mixed with cow dung and enzymes to obtain organic fertilizer. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
- Stubble burning is the intentional burning or setting on fire of crop residue to remove them from the field in order to sow the next crop. It is notified as an offence under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- The farmers in Punjab and Haryana burn the stubble left after the rice harvest so that the field may be readied for the next Rabi (NOT Kharif) crop like wheat. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
- The “gauthans” have been initiated by the Chhattisgarh government in many villages to solve the problem of Stubble burning. In gauthans, farmers bring their stubble to a ‘gauthan’ where it is mixed with cow dung and enzymes to obtain organic fertilizer. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements:
- Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
- Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
- One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Nearly all wild lions live in sub-Saharan Africa, but one small population of Asiatic lions exists in India’s Gir Forest. Asiatic lions and African lions are subspecies of the same species. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
The Bactrian camel is a large, even-toed ungulate native to the steppes of Central Asia. The Bactrian camel has two humps on its back, in contrast to the single-humped dromedary camel. Its population of two million exists mainly in the domesticated form. A small number of feral Bactrian camels still roam in Kazakhstan and the Nubra Valley in India. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
The greater one-horned rhino lives in northern India and southern Nepal, in riverine (floodplain) grasslands and adjacent woodland. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.Incorrect
Nearly all wild lions live in sub-Saharan Africa, but one small population of Asiatic lions exists in India’s Gir Forest. Asiatic lions and African lions are subspecies of the same species. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
The Bactrian camel is a large, even-toed ungulate native to the steppes of Central Asia. The Bactrian camel has two humps on its back, in contrast to the single-humped dromedary camel. Its population of two million exists mainly in the domesticated form. A small number of feral Bactrian camels still roam in Kazakhstan and the Nubra Valley in India. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
The greater one-horned rhino lives in northern India and southern Nepal, in riverine (floodplain) grasslands and adjacent woodland. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.
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