UPSC 2021: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Sep 25 – Oct 01 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from Sep 25 – Oct 01 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.
Post your scores in the comment section below!
UPSC 2021: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Sep 25 - Oct 01
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UPSC 2021: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Sep 25 – Oct 01
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Category: SchemesConsider the following statements with respect to the Innovate in India (I3) program:
- It was launched under the National Health Mission.
- It has received financial assistance from the World Health Organisation.
- It has been launched to create an enabling ecosystem to promote entrepreneurship and indigenous manufacturing in the biopharma sector.
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
Only 3 is correct.
- Innovate in India (I3) program is a flagship program of the Government of India and has received financial assistance from the World Bank.
- It was launched under the National Biopharma Mission.
- It has been launched to create an enabling ecosystem to promote entrepreneurship and indigenous manufacturing in the biopharma sector.
Incorrect
Only 3 is correct.
- Innovate in India (I3) program is a flagship program of the Government of India and has received financial assistance from the World Bank.
- It was launched under the National Biopharma Mission.
- It has been launched to create an enabling ecosystem to promote entrepreneurship and indigenous manufacturing in the biopharma sector.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Category: G KConsider the following statements with respect to the Conference on Interaction and Confidence-Building Measures in Asia (CICA):
- It is headquartered in China.
- India is a member of CICA since its inception.
- For becoming a member of CICA, a state must have at least a part of its territory in Asia.
Which of the given statement/s is/are INCORRECT?
Correct
Only 1 is incorrect.
- The Conference on Interaction and Confidence-Building Measures in Asia (CICA) is an inter-governmental forum for enhancing cooperation towards promoting peace, security and stability in Asia.
- It is a forum based on the recognition that there is a close link between peace, security and stability in Asia and in the rest of the world.
- The key idea of the Conference is based on the priority of the indivisibility of security, joint initiative and mutually beneficial interaction of small and large states.
- It was established in 1999.
- It is headquartered at Nur-Sultan, Kazakhstan.
- For becoming a member of CICA, a state must have at least a part of its territory in Asia.
- India is a member of CICA since its inception.
Incorrect
Only 1 is incorrect.
- The Conference on Interaction and Confidence-Building Measures in Asia (CICA) is an inter-governmental forum for enhancing cooperation towards promoting peace, security and stability in Asia.
- It is a forum based on the recognition that there is a close link between peace, security and stability in Asia and in the rest of the world.
- The key idea of the Conference is based on the priority of the indivisibility of security, joint initiative and mutually beneficial interaction of small and large states.
- It was established in 1999.
- It is headquartered at Nur-Sultan, Kazakhstan.
- For becoming a member of CICA, a state must have at least a part of its territory in Asia.
- India is a member of CICA since its inception.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with respect to Lok Adalats:
- National Legal Services Authority (NALSA), along with other Legal Services Institutions, conducts Lok Adalats.
- Lok Adalats have been given statutory status.
- The jurisdiction of the Permanent Lok Adalats is up to Rs. One Lakh.
- The award of the Permanent Lok Adalat is final and binding on all the parties.
Which of the given statement/s is/are INCORRECT?
Correct
Statement 3 is incorrect.
The jurisdiction of the Permanent Lok Adalats is up to Rs. Ten Lakhs.
Incorrect
Statement 3 is incorrect.
The jurisdiction of the Permanent Lok Adalats is up to Rs. Ten Lakhs.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Category: SchemesConsider the following statements with respect to the Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana:
- It is a part of the National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM).
- It is a placement linked skill development program.
- It is an initiative of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship.
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
1 and 2 only are correct.
- Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) is the skilling and placement initiative of the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD).
- It is tasked with the dual objectives of adding diversity to the incomes of rural poor families and cater to the career aspirations of rural youth.
- It is a part of the National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM).
- DDU-GKY is uniquely focused on rural youth between the ages of 15 and 35 years from poor families.
- It is a placement linked skill development program which allows skilling in a PPP mode and assured placements in regular jobs in an organization not owned by the skilled person.
Incorrect
1 and 2 only are correct.
- Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) is the skilling and placement initiative of the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD).
- It is tasked with the dual objectives of adding diversity to the incomes of rural poor families and cater to the career aspirations of rural youth.
- It is a part of the National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM).
- DDU-GKY is uniquely focused on rural youth between the ages of 15 and 35 years from poor families.
- It is a placement linked skill development program which allows skilling in a PPP mode and assured placements in regular jobs in an organization not owned by the skilled person.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with respect to the Consolidated Fund of India:
- It includes all revenues received by the government by way of direct taxes and indirect taxes.
- The money borrowed and receipts from loans given by the government are a part of the Consolidated Fund of India.
- Revenue generated from asset sale, earnings from state-run companies, disinvestment receipts go into the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the given statement/s is/are INCORRECT?
Correct
None of the above statements is incorrect.
- Consolidated Fund of India is the most important of all government accounts. Revenues received by the government and expenses made by it, excluding the exceptional items, are part of the Consolidated Fund.
- It includes all revenues received by the government by way of direct taxes and indirect taxes.
- The money borrowed and receipts from loans given by the government are a part of the Consolidated Fund of India.
- Revenue generated from asset sale, earnings from state-run companies, etc. go into the Consolidated Fund of India.
- Money cannot be withdrawn from this fund without the Parliament’s approval.
Incorrect
None of the above statements is incorrect.
- Consolidated Fund of India is the most important of all government accounts. Revenues received by the government and expenses made by it, excluding the exceptional items, are part of the Consolidated Fund.
- It includes all revenues received by the government by way of direct taxes and indirect taxes.
- The money borrowed and receipts from loans given by the government are a part of the Consolidated Fund of India.
- Revenue generated from asset sale, earnings from state-run companies, etc. go into the Consolidated Fund of India.
- Money cannot be withdrawn from this fund without the Parliament’s approval.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Category: GeographyWhich of the given pair/s is/are NOT correctly matched?
- Farakka Barrage – West Bengal
- Prakasam Barrage – Telangana
- Jobra Barrage – Maharashtra
- Hathnikund Barrage – Haryana
Options:
Correct
2 and 3 are not correctly matched.
- Farakka Barrage – West Bengal
- Prakasam Barrage – Andhra Pradesh
- Jobra Barrage – Odisha
- Hathnikund Barrage – Haryana
Incorrect
2 and 3 are not correctly matched.
- Farakka Barrage – West Bengal
- Prakasam Barrage – Andhra Pradesh
- Jobra Barrage – Odisha
- Hathnikund Barrage – Haryana
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with respect to Adjournment Sine Die:
- It is the termination of a session of the House by an order made by the President.
- It means terminating a sitting of Parliament for an indefinite period.
- It ends the very life of the existing House, and a new House is constituted after general elections are held.
- The presiding officer of a House can call a sitting of the House at any time after the House has been adjourned sine die.
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
2 and 4 only are correct.
- Adjournment sine die means terminating a sitting of Parliament for an indefinite period.
- The power of adjournment sine die lies with the presiding officer of the House.
- The presiding officer of a House can call a sitting of the House before the date or time to which it has been adjourned or at any time after the House has been adjourned sine die.
- Prorogation is the termination of a session of the House by an order made by the President under article 85(2)(a) of the Constitution.
- Prorogation terminates both the sitting and session of the House. Usually, within a few days after the House is adjourned sine die by the presiding officer, the President issues a notification for the prorogation of the session.
Incorrect
2 and 4 only are correct.
- Adjournment sine die means terminating a sitting of Parliament for an indefinite period.
- The power of adjournment sine die lies with the presiding officer of the House.
- The presiding officer of a House can call a sitting of the House before the date or time to which it has been adjourned or at any time after the House has been adjourned sine die.
- Prorogation is the termination of a session of the House by an order made by the President under article 85(2)(a) of the Constitution.
- Prorogation terminates both the sitting and session of the House. Usually, within a few days after the House is adjourned sine die by the presiding officer, the President issues a notification for the prorogation of the session.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Category: International RelationsIndia is a signatory to which of the following convention/s?
- U.N. Convention on Narcotic Drugs – 1961
- U.N. Convention on Psychotropic Substances – 1972
- U.N. Convention Against Illicit Traffic in Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances – 1988
- UN Convention against Transnational Organised Crime- 2000
Choose the correct option:
Correct
India is a signatory to all the four conventions.
Incorrect
India is a signatory to all the four conventions.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Category: PolityWhich of the following is/are the function/s of Environment Pollution Control Authority (EPCA)?
- To protect and improve the quality of the environment and prevent and control environmental pollution in the National Capital Region.
- To enforce the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) in NCR.
- Effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection in NCR.
- Provision of relief and compensation to the victims of pollution and other environmental damage in the NCR.
Choose the correct option:
Correct
1 and 2 only are correct.
Functions of the Environment Pollution Control Authority (EPCA):
- To protect and improve the quality of the environment and prevent and control environmental pollution in the National Capital Region.
- To enforce the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) in NCR as per the pollution levels.
Incorrect
1 and 2 only are correct.
Functions of the Environment Pollution Control Authority (EPCA):
- To protect and improve the quality of the environment and prevent and control environmental pollution in the National Capital Region.
- To enforce the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) in NCR as per the pollution levels.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements:
- The Central Government issues treasury bills and bonds.
- The State Governments issue only bonds.
- The purpose of issuing State Development Loans is to meet the budgetary needs of state governments.
Which of the given statement/s is/are INCORRECT?
Correct
None of the above is incorrect.
- State Development Loans (SDLs) are dated securities issued by states for meeting their market borrowing requirements. It is a Government Security (G-Sec).
- In effect, the SDLs are similar to the dated securities issued by the central government.
- The purpose of issuing State Development Loans is to meet the budgetary needs of state governments.
- In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities while the State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called the State Development Loans (SDLs).
Incorrect
None of the above is incorrect.
- State Development Loans (SDLs) are dated securities issued by states for meeting their market borrowing requirements. It is a Government Security (G-Sec).
- In effect, the SDLs are similar to the dated securities issued by the central government.
- The purpose of issuing State Development Loans is to meet the budgetary needs of state governments.
- In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities while the State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called the State Development Loans (SDLs).
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following is/are incorrect about the Air Quality Index (AQI)?
- There are five AQI categories.
- AQI is an index for reporting daily air quality.
- AQI is calculated for eight major air pollutants.
Options:
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect.
- Air Quality Index (AQI) is an index for reporting daily air quality.
- There are six AQI categories, namely Good, Satisfactory, Moderately polluted, Poor, Very Poor, and Severe.
- AQI is calculated for eight major air pollutants: Ground-level ozone, PM10, PM2.5, Carbon monoxide, Sulfur dioxide, Nitrogen dioxide, Ammonia, Lead.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect.
- Air Quality Index (AQI) is an index for reporting daily air quality.
- There are six AQI categories, namely Good, Satisfactory, Moderately polluted, Poor, Very Poor, and Severe.
- AQI is calculated for eight major air pollutants: Ground-level ozone, PM10, PM2.5, Carbon monoxide, Sulfur dioxide, Nitrogen dioxide, Ammonia, Lead.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Category: Current AffairsConsider the following statements with respect to the National Investigation Agency (NIA):
- It acts as the Central Counter-Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency.
- As per the NIA Act, Central Government can order NIA to take over the investigation of any scheduled offense anywhere in India.
- Officers of the NIA are drawn from the Indian Police Service and Indian Revenue Service.
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
All three are correct.
- National Investigation Agency is a central agency established by the Indian Government to combat terror in India.
- It acts as the Central Counter-Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency.
- As per the NIA Act, Central Government can order NIA to take over the investigation of any scheduled offense anywhere in India.
- As per the NIA Act, NIA is empowered to deal with terror-related crimes across states without special permission from the states.
- Officers of the NIA are drawn from the Indian Police Service and Indian Revenue Service.
Incorrect
All three are correct.
- National Investigation Agency is a central agency established by the Indian Government to combat terror in India.
- It acts as the Central Counter-Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency.
- As per the NIA Act, Central Government can order NIA to take over the investigation of any scheduled offense anywhere in India.
- As per the NIA Act, NIA is empowered to deal with terror-related crimes across states without special permission from the states.
- Officers of the NIA are drawn from the Indian Police Service and Indian Revenue Service.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements with respect to Cyanobacteria:
- Cyanobacteria are a group of photosynthetic bacteria.
- They contain phycocyanin which they use to capture light for photosynthesis.
- They contain ‘chlorophyll a’, the photosynthetic pigment that plants use.
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
All three are correct.
- Cyanobacteria are a group of photosynthetic bacteria, some of which are nitrogen-fixing.
- Cyanobacteria are microscopic organisms common in water and sometimes found in soil.
- Cyanobacteria get their name from the bluish pigment phycocyanin, which they use to capture light for photosynthesis.
- They also contain ‘chlorophyll a’, the same photosynthetic pigment that plants use.
Incorrect
All three are correct.
- Cyanobacteria are a group of photosynthetic bacteria, some of which are nitrogen-fixing.
- Cyanobacteria are microscopic organisms common in water and sometimes found in soil.
- Cyanobacteria get their name from the bluish pigment phycocyanin, which they use to capture light for photosynthesis.
- They also contain ‘chlorophyll a’, the same photosynthetic pigment that plants use.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Category: GeographyWest Bank is bordered by:
- Mediterranean Sea
- Dead Sea
- Israel
- Jordan
- Lebanon
Choose the correct option:
Correct
2, 3 and 4 only are correct.
Dead Sea, Jordan and Israel border the West Bank area.
Incorrect
2, 3 and 4 only are correct.
Dead Sea, Jordan and Israel border the West Bank area.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Category: EconomyConsider the following statements:
- Basel III is an internationally agreed set of measures developed by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision in response to the financial crisis of 2007-09.
- Basel III regulations are designed to enhance the quality and quantity of capital held by banks.
- The Secretariat of the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision is located at the Bank for International Settlements (BIS).
Which of the given statement/s is/are INCORRECT?
Correct
None of the above is incorrect.
- Basel III is an internationally agreed set of measures developed by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision in response to the financial crisis of 2007-09.
- Basel III regulations are designed to enhance the quality and quantity of capital held by banks.
- The Bank for International Settlements (BIS) hosts the Secretariat of the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision.
Incorrect
None of the above is incorrect.
- Basel III is an internationally agreed set of measures developed by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision in response to the financial crisis of 2007-09.
- Basel III regulations are designed to enhance the quality and quantity of capital held by banks.
- The Bank for International Settlements (BIS) hosts the Secretariat of the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements with respect to Neutrinos:
- Neutrinos occur in five different flavours and carry positive electrical charge.
- They interact with gravity.
- They are extremely difficult to detect because they have very little interaction with matter.
Which of the given statement/s is/are INCORRECT?
Correct
Only 1 is incorrect.
- Neutrinos are elusive subatomic particles created in a wide variety of nuclear processes. Their name, which means “little neutral one,” refers to the fact that they carry no electrical charge. Neutrinos occur in three different types, or flavours.
- Of the four fundamental forces in the universe, neutrinos only interact with two — gravity and the weak force, which is responsible for the radioactive decay of atoms.
- Neutrinos are extremely difficult to detect because they have very little (weak) interaction with matter.
Incorrect
Only 1 is incorrect.
- Neutrinos are elusive subatomic particles created in a wide variety of nuclear processes. Their name, which means “little neutral one,” refers to the fact that they carry no electrical charge. Neutrinos occur in three different types, or flavours.
- Of the four fundamental forces in the universe, neutrinos only interact with two — gravity and the weak force, which is responsible for the radioactive decay of atoms.
- Neutrinos are extremely difficult to detect because they have very little (weak) interaction with matter.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Category: HistoryConsider the following statements with respect to the Kakatiyas:
- They were initially the feudatories of the Western Chalukyas of Kalyana.
- Prataparudra I established a sovereign dynasty.
- Ganapathi Deva and Rudramadevi are the notable rulers of the Kakatiya dynasty.
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
All the statements are correct.
- The 12th and the 13th centuries saw the emergence of the Kakatiyas.
- They were at first the feudatories of the Western Chalukyas of Kalyana, ruling over a small territory near Warangal.
- Prataparudra I established a sovereign dynasty in 1163 CE.
- Ganapathi Deva and Rudramadevi are the notable rulers of the Kakatiya dynasty.
Incorrect
All the statements are correct.
- The 12th and the 13th centuries saw the emergence of the Kakatiyas.
- They were at first the feudatories of the Western Chalukyas of Kalyana, ruling over a small territory near Warangal.
- Prataparudra I established a sovereign dynasty in 1163 CE.
- Ganapathi Deva and Rudramadevi are the notable rulers of the Kakatiya dynasty.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Category: HealthConsider the following statements with respect to the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP):
- It was started by the Ministry of Health and Family Affairs with the assistance of the World Health Organisation.
- It was launched in the backdrop of the COVID-19 pandemic in 2020 to strengthen the decentralized laboratory based IT enabled disease surveillance system.
Which of the given statement/s is/are INCORRECT?
Correct
Both statements are incorrect.
- Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP) is an initiative by the Ministry of Health and Family Affairs that started in 2004 with the assistance of the World Bank.
- It was started in the year 2004.
- Among its objectives are:
- Strengthening/maintaining a decentralized laboratory based IT enabled disease surveillance system for epidemic prone diseases to monitor disease trends.
- Detecting and responding to outbreaks in the early rising phase through trained Rapid Response Teams (RRTs).
Incorrect
Both statements are incorrect.
- Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP) is an initiative by the Ministry of Health and Family Affairs that started in 2004 with the assistance of the World Bank.
- It was started in the year 2004.
- Among its objectives are:
- Strengthening/maintaining a decentralized laboratory based IT enabled disease surveillance system for epidemic prone diseases to monitor disease trends.
- Detecting and responding to outbreaks in the early rising phase through trained Rapid Response Teams (RRTs).
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Category: Geography“Tulung La” is located in:
Correct
Tulung La is located in Arunachal Pradesh.
Incorrect
Tulung La is located in Arunachal Pradesh.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Category: Art and CultureWhich of the given pairs are correctly matched?
- Chendamangalam Dhoties and Set Mundu – Kerala
- Muga Silk – Assam
- Arani Silk – Tamil Nadu
- Kandangi Saree – Karnataka
Choose the correct option:
Correct
1, 2 and 3 only are correctly matched. Tamil Nadu has got the registration of Geographical Indication Tag for Kandangi Sarees.
Incorrect
1, 2 and 3 only are correctly matched. Tamil Nadu has got the registration of Geographical Indication Tag for Kandangi Sarees.
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Category: PolityWhich of the following existing laws were subsumed under the Social Security Code Bill?
- Provident Fund Act, 1952
- Maternity Benefit Act, 1961
- Unorganised Workers’ Social Security Act, 2008
- Contract Labour Act, 1970
- Inter-State Migrant Workers Act, 1979
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
1, 2 and 3 only.
- The Social Security Code Bill replaces nine laws related to social security. These include the Employees’ Provident Fund Act, 1952, the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, and the Unorganised Workers’ Social Security Act, 2008.
- The Occupational Safety Code subsumes and replaces 13 labour laws relating to safety, health and working conditions. These laws include: Factories Act, 1948; Mines Act, 1952; Dock Workers Act, 1986; Contract Labour Act, 1970; and Inter-State Migrant Workers Act, 1979.
Incorrect
1, 2 and 3 only.
- The Social Security Code Bill replaces nine laws related to social security. These include the Employees’ Provident Fund Act, 1952, the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, and the Unorganised Workers’ Social Security Act, 2008.
- The Occupational Safety Code subsumes and replaces 13 labour laws relating to safety, health and working conditions. These laws include: Factories Act, 1948; Mines Act, 1952; Dock Workers Act, 1986; Contract Labour Act, 1970; and Inter-State Migrant Workers Act, 1979.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Category: Current AffairsWhich of the following could be considered as possible benefits of the proposed Vehicle scrappage policy?
- Will help reduce Current account deficit.
- Will help improve Capital account inflows in India.
- Will help improve Balance of payments position of India.
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
All three are correct.
Incorrect
All three are correct.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statement/s is/are correct?
- CRISPRs are specialized stretches of DNA.
- The protein Cas9 is an enzyme that acts like a pair of molecular scissors, capable of cutting strands of DNA.
- CRISPR technology is a powerful tool for editing genomes.
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
All three are correct.
- “CRISPR” stands for “Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats”.
- CRISPRs are specialized stretches of DNA. The protein Cas9 (or “CRISPR-associated”) is an enzyme that acts like a pair of molecular scissors, capable of cutting strands of DNA.
- CRISPR technology was adapted from the natural defence mechanisms of bacteria and archaea (the domain of single-celled microorganisms). These organisms use CRISPR-derived RNA and various Cas proteins, including Cas9, to foil attacks by viruses and other foreign bodies. They do so primarily by chopping up and destroying the DNA of a foreign invader.
- CRISPR technology is a powerful tool for editing genomes. It allows researchers to easily alter DNA sequences and modify gene function. Its many potential applications include correcting genetic defects, treating and preventing the spread of diseases and improving crops.
Incorrect
All three are correct.
- “CRISPR” stands for “Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats”.
- CRISPRs are specialized stretches of DNA. The protein Cas9 (or “CRISPR-associated”) is an enzyme that acts like a pair of molecular scissors, capable of cutting strands of DNA.
- CRISPR technology was adapted from the natural defence mechanisms of bacteria and archaea (the domain of single-celled microorganisms). These organisms use CRISPR-derived RNA and various Cas proteins, including Cas9, to foil attacks by viruses and other foreign bodies. They do so primarily by chopping up and destroying the DNA of a foreign invader.
- CRISPR technology is a powerful tool for editing genomes. It allows researchers to easily alter DNA sequences and modify gene function. Its many potential applications include correcting genetic defects, treating and preventing the spread of diseases and improving crops.
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Category: HealthWhich of the following statement/s is/are correct?
- Scrub typhus is a disease caused by a virus called Orientia tsutsugamushi.
- Scrub typhus does not spread from person to person.
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
2 only is correct.
- Scrub typhus, also known as bush typhus, is a disease caused by a bacteria called Orientia tsutsugamushi. Scrub typhus is spread to people through bites of infected larval mites.
- The mites are found in grasslands, forests, bush areas, wood piles, gardens, and beaches.
- Scrub Typhus can also be transmitted through unscreened blood transfusions and unhygienic needles. It does not spread from person to person.
Incorrect
2 only is correct.
- Scrub typhus, also known as bush typhus, is a disease caused by a bacteria called Orientia tsutsugamushi. Scrub typhus is spread to people through bites of infected larval mites.
- The mites are found in grasslands, forests, bush areas, wood piles, gardens, and beaches.
- Scrub Typhus can also be transmitted through unscreened blood transfusions and unhygienic needles. It does not spread from person to person.
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with respect to Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS):
- It is a centrally-sponsored scheme.
- Under the scheme, funds are released in the form of grants in-aid directly to the district authorities.
- The funds released under the scheme are non-lapsable.
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
All are correct statements.
- MPLADS is a centrally-sponsored plan scheme fully funded by the government of India under which funds are released in the form of grants in-aid directly to the district authorities.
- Under the scheme, funds are released in the form of grants in-aid directly to the district authorities.
- The funds released under the scheme are non-lapsable.
- Funds not released in a particular year is carried forward to the subsequent years, subject to eligibility.
Incorrect
All are correct statements.
- MPLADS is a centrally-sponsored plan scheme fully funded by the government of India under which funds are released in the form of grants in-aid directly to the district authorities.
- Under the scheme, funds are released in the form of grants in-aid directly to the district authorities.
- The funds released under the scheme are non-lapsable.
- Funds not released in a particular year is carried forward to the subsequent years, subject to eligibility.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements with respect to Nandankanan Zoological Park:
- It is located in Madhya Pradesh.
- It hosts India’s only pangolin conservation breeding centre.
- It is the only zoological park in India to become an institutional member of World Association of Zoos and Aquarium (WAZA).
Which of the given statement/s is/are INCORRECT?
Correct
1 only is incorrect.
- Nandankanan Zoological Park is located in Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
- It lies in adjacent to Chandaka-Dampara Wildlife Sanctuary.
- It is the only zoological park in India to become an institutional member of World Association of Zoos and Aquarium (WAZA).
- The Nandankanan zoo hosts India’s only pangolin conservation breeding centre.
Incorrect
1 only is incorrect.
- Nandankanan Zoological Park is located in Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
- It lies in adjacent to Chandaka-Dampara Wildlife Sanctuary.
- It is the only zoological park in India to become an institutional member of World Association of Zoos and Aquarium (WAZA).
- The Nandankanan zoo hosts India’s only pangolin conservation breeding centre.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyWhat is the classification of Sloth Bears in the IUCN Red List?
Correct
- Sloth bear (Melursus ursinus) is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List.
- The sloth bear is listed in Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
- International trade of the sloth bear is prohibited as it is listed in Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES).
Incorrect
- Sloth bear (Melursus ursinus) is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List.
- The sloth bear is listed in Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
- International trade of the sloth bear is prohibited as it is listed in Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES).
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Category: SchemesConsider the following statements with respect to National Bamboo Mission:
- It is a sub-scheme under Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH).
- National Bamboo Mission is a Central Sector scheme.
Which of the given statement/s is/are INCORRECT?
Correct
Only 2 is incorrect.
- National Bamboo Mission is a sub-scheme under Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH).
- It is a 100% Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
- The Mission envisages promoting holistic growth of the bamboo sector by adopting the area-based, regionally differentiated strategy and to increase the area under bamboo cultivation and marketing.
- Under the Mission, steps have been taken to increase the availability of quality planting material by supporting the setting up of new nurseries and strengthening of existing ones.
Incorrect
Only 2 is incorrect.
- National Bamboo Mission is a sub-scheme under Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH).
- It is a 100% Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
- The Mission envisages promoting holistic growth of the bamboo sector by adopting the area-based, regionally differentiated strategy and to increase the area under bamboo cultivation and marketing.
- Under the Mission, steps have been taken to increase the availability of quality planting material by supporting the setting up of new nurseries and strengthening of existing ones.
-
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements:
- Ramsar Convention was established by UNESCO.
- Chilika Lake and Keoladeo National Park were the first ones to be recognized as Ramsar Sites of India.
- Rajasthan has two Ramsar sites.
Which of the given statement/s is/are INCORRECT?
Correct
None of the above is incorrect.
- The Convention on Wetlands, known as the Ramsar Convention, is an intergovernmental environmental treaty established in 1971 by UNESCO.
- Chilika Lake of Odisha and Keoladeo National Park of Rajasthan were the first ones to be recognized as Ramsar Sites of India in 1981.
- Rajasthan has two Ramsar sites: Keoladeo National Park and Sambhar Lake.
Incorrect
None of the above is incorrect.
- The Convention on Wetlands, known as the Ramsar Convention, is an intergovernmental environmental treaty established in 1971 by UNESCO.
- Chilika Lake of Odisha and Keoladeo National Park of Rajasthan were the first ones to be recognized as Ramsar Sites of India in 1981.
- Rajasthan has two Ramsar sites: Keoladeo National Park and Sambhar Lake.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Category: GeographyConsider the following statements with respect to Gwadar Port:
- It is a warm water, deep sea port.
- The port is located in Pakistan’s Balochistan province.
- The China Pakistan Economic Corridor will connect Gwadar Port with China’s Xinjiang province.
Which of the given statement/s is/are INCORRECT?
Correct
None of the above is incorrect.
- Gwadar Port is a warm water, deep sea port in Pakistan’s Balochistan province.
- The China Pakistan Economic Corridor will connect Gwadar Port with China’s Xinjiang province.
Incorrect
None of the above is incorrect.
- Gwadar Port is a warm water, deep sea port in Pakistan’s Balochistan province.
- The China Pakistan Economic Corridor will connect Gwadar Port with China’s Xinjiang province.
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