UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Feb 25 – Mar 03 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from Feb 25 – Mar 03 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.
Post your scores in the comment section below!
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UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Feb 25 – Mar 03
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following technologies are based on Bioremediation?
- Bioventing
- Biosparging
- Bioaugmentation
- Composting
Options:
Correct
- Bioremediation is a process that uses mainly microorganisms, plants, or microbial or plant enzymes to detoxify contaminants in the soil and other environments.
- Bioventing: Method of treating contaminated material by adding oxygen directly to a site of contamination.
- Biosparging: Biosparging is an in-situ remediation technology that uses indigenous microorganisms to biodegrade organic constituents in the saturated zone.
- Bioaugmentation: Biological augmentation is the addition of archaea or bacterial cultures required to speed up the rate of degradation of a contaminant.
- Composting: Compost bioremediation refers to the use of a biological system of micro-organisms in a mature, cured compost to sequester or break down contaminants in water or soil. The contaminants are digested, metabolized, and transformed into humus and inert byproducts, such as carbon dioxide, water, and salts.
Incorrect
- Bioremediation is a process that uses mainly microorganisms, plants, or microbial or plant enzymes to detoxify contaminants in the soil and other environments.
- Bioventing: Method of treating contaminated material by adding oxygen directly to a site of contamination.
- Biosparging: Biosparging is an in-situ remediation technology that uses indigenous microorganisms to biodegrade organic constituents in the saturated zone.
- Bioaugmentation: Biological augmentation is the addition of archaea or bacterial cultures required to speed up the rate of degradation of a contaminant.
- Composting: Compost bioremediation refers to the use of a biological system of micro-organisms in a mature, cured compost to sequester or break down contaminants in water or soil. The contaminants are digested, metabolized, and transformed into humus and inert byproducts, such as carbon dioxide, water, and salts.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Category: HistoryWhich of the given pairs are correctly matched?
- Velu Nachiyar – The first Indian queen to wage war against the British East India Company.
- Jhalkari Bai – A woman soldier who was one of the key advisors to Kittur Rani Chennamma.
- Rani Abakka – Tuluva Queen of Ullal known for her revolt against the British East India Company in 1824.
Options:
Correct
Rani Abbakka:
- Rani Abbakka Chowta was a Tuluva Queen of Ullal who fought the Portuguese in the 16th century.
Jhalkari Bai:
- Jhalkaribai was a woman soldier who played an important role in the Indian Rebellion of 1857. She served in the women’s army of Rani Lakshmibai of Jhansi.
Velu Nachiyar:
- Rani Velu Nachiyar was a queen of the Sivaganga estate. She was the first Indian queen to wage war with the East India Company in India.
Incorrect
Rani Abbakka:
- Rani Abbakka Chowta was a Tuluva Queen of Ullal who fought the Portuguese in the 16th century.
Jhalkari Bai:
- Jhalkaribai was a woman soldier who played an important role in the Indian Rebellion of 1857. She served in the women’s army of Rani Lakshmibai of Jhansi.
Velu Nachiyar:
- Rani Velu Nachiyar was a queen of the Sivaganga estate. She was the first Indian queen to wage war with the East India Company in India.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Category: GeographyWhich of the given statements with respect to Mullaperiyar dam is/are INCORRECT?
- The Maharaja of Travancore signed a 999-year Periyar Lake lease agreement with the British government in 1886, for its construction across the Periyar River.
- The dam is located in Kerala, but is operated by Tamil Nadu.
- It is India’s largest masonry dam.
Options:
Correct
The Nagarjuna Sagar Dam in India is the largest masonry dam in the world. Nagarjunasagar Dam located in Nalgonda District is built across River Krishna.
Incorrect
The Nagarjuna Sagar Dam in India is the largest masonry dam in the world. Nagarjunasagar Dam located in Nalgonda District is built across River Krishna.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Category: Art and CultureIn which among these dance forms are characters grouped under clearly defined types - pacha, kathi, thadi, kari or minukku?
Correct
- Kathakali is a dance form popular in Kerala. It is an art which has evolved from many social and religious theatrical forms which existed in the southern region in ancient times. Chakiarkoothu, Koodiyattam, Krishnattam and Ramanattam are a few of the ritual performing arts of Kerala which have had a direct influence on Kathakali in its form and technique.
- Kathakali is a blend of dance, music and acting and dramatizes stories, which are mostly adapted from the Indian epics. It is a stylised art form, the four aspects of abhinaya – angika, aharya, vachika, satvika and the nritta, nritya and natya aspects are combined perfectly.
- Kathakali is a visual art where aharya, costume and make-up are suited to the characters, as per the tenets laid down in the Natya Shastra. The characters are grouped under certain clearly defined types like the pacha, kathi, thadi, kari or minukku. The face of the artist is painted over to appear as though a mask is worn.
Incorrect
- Kathakali is a dance form popular in Kerala. It is an art which has evolved from many social and religious theatrical forms which existed in the southern region in ancient times. Chakiarkoothu, Koodiyattam, Krishnattam and Ramanattam are a few of the ritual performing arts of Kerala which have had a direct influence on Kathakali in its form and technique.
- Kathakali is a blend of dance, music and acting and dramatizes stories, which are mostly adapted from the Indian epics. It is a stylised art form, the four aspects of abhinaya – angika, aharya, vachika, satvika and the nritta, nritya and natya aspects are combined perfectly.
- Kathakali is a visual art where aharya, costume and make-up are suited to the characters, as per the tenets laid down in the Natya Shastra. The characters are grouped under certain clearly defined types like the pacha, kathi, thadi, kari or minukku. The face of the artist is painted over to appear as though a mask is worn.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Category: HistoryConsider the following:
- Calcutta Unitarian Committee
- Tabernacle of New Dispensation
- Indian Reform Association
Keshab Chandra Sen is associated with the establishment of which of the above? (UPSC-2016)
Correct
- Keshab Chandra Sen was a social reformer from Bengal. He was a member of the Brahmo Samaj.
- In 1868 Keshab Chandra Sen laid the foundation stone of his mandir called the Tabernacle of New Dispensation.
- Keshab Chandra Sen was also a part of the Indian Reform Association. Its objectives involved creating public opinion against child marriage and the promotion of the status of women.
- The Calcutta Unitarian Committee, jointly founded by William Adam and Ram Mohan Roy in September 1821, sought to bring together prominent Brahmins who were friends of Roy’s and supporters of his agenda for the promotion of religious monotheism and social reform among Hindus.
Incorrect
- Keshab Chandra Sen was a social reformer from Bengal. He was a member of the Brahmo Samaj.
- In 1868 Keshab Chandra Sen laid the foundation stone of his mandir called the Tabernacle of New Dispensation.
- Keshab Chandra Sen was also a part of the Indian Reform Association. Its objectives involved creating public opinion against child marriage and the promotion of the status of women.
- The Calcutta Unitarian Committee, jointly founded by William Adam and Ram Mohan Roy in September 1821, sought to bring together prominent Brahmins who were friends of Roy’s and supporters of his agenda for the promotion of religious monotheism and social reform among Hindus.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Category: International RelationsWhich of the following statements is/are correct?
- The ASEAN Digital Ministers (ADGMIN) meeting is an annual meeting of Telecom Ministers of 10 ASEAN countries and ASEAN’s dialogue partner countries.
- Recently, the Ministers’ meeting approved the India-ASEAN Digital Work Plan 2022.
Options:
Correct
- The ADGMIN is an annual meeting of Telecom Ministers of 10 ASEAN (Association of South-East Asian Nations) countries.
- The meeting discussed and deliberated various matters relevant to strengthening regional digital cooperation in the spirit of digital inclusion and integration.
- The Ministers’ meeting approved the India-ASEAN Digital Work Plan 2022.
- The work plan includes a system for combating the use of stolen and counterfeit mobile handsets, WiFi Access network interface and Communication Technologies such as the Internet of Things (IoT), 5G, Advanced Satellite Communication, Cyber Forensics, etc.
- Hence both the Statements are Correct.
Incorrect
- The ADGMIN is an annual meeting of Telecom Ministers of 10 ASEAN (Association of South-East Asian Nations) countries.
- The meeting discussed and deliberated various matters relevant to strengthening regional digital cooperation in the spirit of digital inclusion and integration.
- The Ministers’ meeting approved the India-ASEAN Digital Work Plan 2022.
- The work plan includes a system for combating the use of stolen and counterfeit mobile handsets, WiFi Access network interface and Communication Technologies such as the Internet of Things (IoT), 5G, Advanced Satellite Communication, Cyber Forensics, etc.
- Hence both the Statements are Correct.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Category: EconomyGenerally, an FTA between two countries covers which of the following areas?
- Trade in Goods
- Trade in Services
- Investments
- Intellectual Property Rights
- Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures
Options:
Correct
- A Free trade Agreement (FTA) is an agreement between two or more countries where the countries agree on certain obligations that affect trade in goods and services, etc.
- FTAs, a form of trade pacts, determine the tariffs and duties that countries impose on imports and exports with the goal of reducing or eliminating trade barriers, thus encouraging international trade.
- Such agreements include clauses on trade facilitation and rule-making in areas such as investment, intellectual property, government procurement, technical standards and sanitary and phytosanitary issues, etc.
- Hence Option D is correct.
Incorrect
- A Free trade Agreement (FTA) is an agreement between two or more countries where the countries agree on certain obligations that affect trade in goods and services, etc.
- FTAs, a form of trade pacts, determine the tariffs and duties that countries impose on imports and exports with the goal of reducing or eliminating trade barriers, thus encouraging international trade.
- Such agreements include clauses on trade facilitation and rule-making in areas such as investment, intellectual property, government procurement, technical standards and sanitary and phytosanitary issues, etc.
- Hence Option D is correct.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Category: International RelationsWhich of the following statements is/are correct?
- The Protocol on Visits to Religious Shrines 1974 is a bilateral agreement between India and Pakistan facilitating both nationals to visit certain select religious shrines in both countries.
- It provides visa-free travel to the pilgrims.
- The protocol enables religious pilgrimage between the two countries without any discrimination on the lines of religion or sect.
Options:
Correct
- The Protocol on Visits to Religious Shrines 1974 is a bilateral agreement between India and Pakistan facilitating Indian and Pakistani nationals to visit certain religious shrines in both countries. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- It does not provide visa-free travel to the pilgrims. Hence Statement 2 is not correct.
- Under the 1974 protocol between countries, visits to religious shrines are being facilitated regularly. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
- The Protocol on Visits to Religious Shrines 1974 is a bilateral agreement between India and Pakistan facilitating Indian and Pakistani nationals to visit certain religious shrines in both countries. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- It does not provide visa-free travel to the pilgrims. Hence Statement 2 is not correct.
- Under the 1974 protocol between countries, visits to religious shrines are being facilitated regularly. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following statements is/are correct?
- The BRT Tiger Reserve is located in Tamil Nadu.
- It is a critical habitat providing connectivity for wildlife between the Eastern and the Western ghats landscape.
Options:
Correct
- Bandipur Tiger Reserve is situated in the contiguous landscape spread in the two revenue districts of Southern Karnataka namely Mysore and Chamarajanagar. Hence Statement 1 is not correct.
- It is considered to be the wildlife corridor that connects the Eastern Ghats to the Western Ghats which in turn facilitates gene flow between the population species inhabiting both the mountain ranges. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
- Bandipur Tiger Reserve is situated in the contiguous landscape spread in the two revenue districts of Southern Karnataka namely Mysore and Chamarajanagar. Hence Statement 1 is not correct.
- It is considered to be the wildlife corridor that connects the Eastern Ghats to the Western Ghats which in turn facilitates gene flow between the population species inhabiting both the mountain ranges. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements:
- Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.
- One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas.
- Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
- The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was constituted under the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006. PNGRB is not the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India. Hence Statement 1 is not correct.
- PNGRB Objectives: –
- To protect the interests of consumers and entities engaged in specified activities relating to petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas.
- To promote competitive markets and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- Currently, the electricity sector has state-level regulatory commissions:
- The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first level of appeal for regulatory disputes.
- Appeals against the PNGRB order go to the Appellate Tribunal for Electricity.
- Hence Statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
- The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was constituted under the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006. PNGRB is not the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India. Hence Statement 1 is not correct.
- PNGRB Objectives: –
- To protect the interests of consumers and entities engaged in specified activities relating to petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas.
- To promote competitive markets and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- Currently, the electricity sector has state-level regulatory commissions:
- The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first level of appeal for regulatory disputes.
- Appeals against the PNGRB order go to the Appellate Tribunal for Electricity.
- Hence Statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Category: PolityWith respect to Juvenile Justice Act (JJA), which of the following statements is/are correct?
- A child in conflict with law cannot be sentenced to death or life imprisonment without the possibility of release
- A child in conflict with law has to be sent to a place of safety till he attains the age of 18 years and thereafter, the person shall be transferred to a jail
Options:
Correct
- The Juvenile Justice Act (JJA) pertains to provisions for children found in conflict with the law in India. It also gives provisions for children in need of care and protection.
- No child in conflict with law shall be sentenced to death or for life imprisonment without the possibility of release, for any such offense, either under the provisions of Juvenile Justice Act (JJA) or under the provisions of the Indian Penal Code or any other law for the time being in force. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- As per the act, the child who is found to be in conflict with law is sent to a place of safety till he attains the age of twenty-one years and thereafter, the person shall be transferred to a jail. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
Incorrect
- The Juvenile Justice Act (JJA) pertains to provisions for children found in conflict with the law in India. It also gives provisions for children in need of care and protection.
- No child in conflict with law shall be sentenced to death or for life imprisonment without the possibility of release, for any such offense, either under the provisions of Juvenile Justice Act (JJA) or under the provisions of the Indian Penal Code or any other law for the time being in force. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- As per the act, the child who is found to be in conflict with law is sent to a place of safety till he attains the age of twenty-one years and thereafter, the person shall be transferred to a jail. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Category: PolityThe Golden Triangle of the Indian Constitution includes which of the following Articles?
- Article 14
- Article 17
- Article 19
- Article 20
- Article 21
- Article 32
Options:
Correct
- The golden triangle provides full protection to individuals from any encroachment upon their rights.
- Article 14 (Right to Equality), 19 (Right to Freedom) and 21 (Right to Life and Liberty) are popularly known as the ‘golden triangle’ of the Indian Constitution.
- They are of prime importance and breathe vitality in the concept of the rule of law.
- Hence Option C is correct.
Know more About ‘Golden triangle’ of the Indian Constitution
Incorrect
- The golden triangle provides full protection to individuals from any encroachment upon their rights.
- Article 14 (Right to Equality), 19 (Right to Freedom) and 21 (Right to Life and Liberty) are popularly known as the ‘golden triangle’ of the Indian Constitution.
- They are of prime importance and breathe vitality in the concept of the rule of law.
- Hence Option C is correct.
Know more About ‘Golden triangle’ of the Indian Constitution
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Category: G KConsider the following statements with respect to Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS):
- It is a series of meetings held every two years.
- IONS was conceived by the Indian Navy in 2014
- It includes 24 nations that permanently hold territory that abuts or lies within the Indian Ocean.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- The Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS) refers to a series of meetings held every two years. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- IONS was conceived by the Indian Navy in 2008 to enhance maritime cooperation among Navies of the littoral states of the IOR. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
- The 24 member states of the IONS are classified under four sub-regions, namely the South Asian sub-region, the West Asian sub-region, the South-East Asian and Australian sub-region, and the East African sub-region. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
- The Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS) refers to a series of meetings held every two years. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- IONS was conceived by the Indian Navy in 2008 to enhance maritime cooperation among Navies of the littoral states of the IOR. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
- The 24 member states of the IONS are classified under four sub-regions, namely the South Asian sub-region, the West Asian sub-region, the South-East Asian and Australian sub-region, and the East African sub-region. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Category: GeographyConsider the following statements:
- Ten Degree Channel separates the Andaman Islands and Nicobar Islands from each other in the Bay of Bengal
- India’s only confirmed active volcano is located in Barren Island
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
- The Ten Degree Channel is a channel that separates the Andaman Islands and Nicobar Islands from each other in the Bay of Bengal.
- Barren Island, a possession of India in the Andaman Sea, is the only historically active volcano along the N-S-trending volcanic arc extending between Sumatra and Burma.
- Hence Both Statements are correct.
Incorrect
- The Ten Degree Channel is a channel that separates the Andaman Islands and Nicobar Islands from each other in the Bay of Bengal.
- Barren Island, a possession of India in the Andaman Sea, is the only historically active volcano along the N-S-trending volcanic arc extending between Sumatra and Burma.
- Hence Both Statements are correct.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Category: EconomyIn India, the central bank’s function as the ‘’lender of last resort’’ usually refers to which of the following?
- Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources
- Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis
- Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
- A lender of last resort (LoR) is an institution, usually a country’s central bank, that offers loans to banks or other eligible institutions that are experiencing financial difficulty or are considered highly risky or near collapse.
- Lender of last resort does not lend money to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
- In India, RBI is the lender of last resort. The Reserve Bank extends this facility to protect the interest of the depositors of the bank and to prevent possible failure of the bank which can have an adverse impact on the economy. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- RBI does lend to governments to finance budget deficits but it does not come under Lender of last resort. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
- A lender of last resort (LoR) is an institution, usually a country’s central bank, that offers loans to banks or other eligible institutions that are experiencing financial difficulty or are considered highly risky or near collapse.
- Lender of last resort does not lend money to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
- In India, RBI is the lender of last resort. The Reserve Bank extends this facility to protect the interest of the depositors of the bank and to prevent possible failure of the bank which can have an adverse impact on the economy. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- RBI does lend to governments to finance budget deficits but it does not come under Lender of last resort. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Category: PolityWhich of the given statements with respect to National Commission for Women (NCW) is/are correct?
- It is a constitutional body established to review the constitutional and legal safeguards for women.
- While investigating and examining the matters relating to the safeguards provided for women under the constitution, it enjoys the powers of a civil court.
- Its chairperson and member secretary are nominated by the Central Government and both must only be women.
Options:
Correct
- The National Commission for Women was set up as statutory body in January 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990 to :
- review the Constitutional and Legal safeguards for women ;
- recommend remedial legislative measures ;
- facilitate redressal of grievances and
- advise the Government on all policy matters affecting women.
- While investigating and examining the matters relating to the safeguards provided for women under the constitution, NCW enjoys the powers of a civil court.
- The Commission shall consist of :-
- A Chairperson, committed to the cause of women, to be nominated by the Central Government.
- five Members to be nominated by the Central Government from amongst persons of ability, integrity and standing who have had experience in law or legislation, trade unionism, management of an industry potential of women, women’s voluntary organisations ( including women activist ), administration, economic development, health, education or social welfare; Provided that at least one Member each shall be from amongst persons belonging to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes respectively;
- a Member-Secretary to be nominated by the Central Government who shall be :-
- an expert in the field of management, organisational structure or sociological movement, or
- an officer who is a member of a civil service of the Union or of an all-India service or holds a civil post under the Union with appropriate experience
- There is no exclusive provision mandating that the chairperson and member secretary be only women.
Incorrect
- The National Commission for Women was set up as statutory body in January 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990 to :
- review the Constitutional and Legal safeguards for women ;
- recommend remedial legislative measures ;
- facilitate redressal of grievances and
- advise the Government on all policy matters affecting women.
- While investigating and examining the matters relating to the safeguards provided for women under the constitution, NCW enjoys the powers of a civil court.
- The Commission shall consist of :-
- A Chairperson, committed to the cause of women, to be nominated by the Central Government.
- five Members to be nominated by the Central Government from amongst persons of ability, integrity and standing who have had experience in law or legislation, trade unionism, management of an industry potential of women, women’s voluntary organisations ( including women activist ), administration, economic development, health, education or social welfare; Provided that at least one Member each shall be from amongst persons belonging to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes respectively;
- a Member-Secretary to be nominated by the Central Government who shall be :-
- an expert in the field of management, organisational structure or sociological movement, or
- an officer who is a member of a civil service of the Union or of an all-India service or holds a civil post under the Union with appropriate experience
- There is no exclusive provision mandating that the chairperson and member secretary be only women.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Bird Sanctuary State
- Kulik Bird Sanctuary Odisha
- Kitam Bird Sanctuary West Bengal
- Ariyakulam Bird Sanctuary Tamil Nadu
- Ranganthittu Bird Sanctuary Karnataka
Options:
Correct
- Kulik Bird Sanctuary – West Bengal
- Kitam Bird Sanctuary – Sikkim
Incorrect
- Kulik Bird Sanctuary – West Bengal
- Kitam Bird Sanctuary – Sikkim
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Category: SchemesConsider the following statements with respect to Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY):
- The scheme is a revamped version of the “Scheme for Agro-Marine Processing and Development of Agro-Processing Clusters.”
- Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI) is the nodal ministry for implementation of the scheme.
- It aims to bring about Blue Revolution in India and is completely a Central Sector Scheme.
Which of the given statement/s is/are INCORRECT?
Correct
- The Department of Fisheries, Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying is implementing Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana. It is a scheme to bring about Blue Revolution through sustainable and responsible development of fisheries sector in India for holistic development of fisheries sector including welfare of fishers.
- The Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana. (PMMSY) is designed to address critical gaps in fish production and productivity, quality, technology, post-harvest infrastructure and management, modernisation and strengthening of value chain, traceability, establishing a robust fisheries management framework and fishers‟ welfare.
- PMMSY is being implemented in all the States and Union Territories for a period of 5 years from FY 2020-21 to FY 2024-25.
- The PMMSY is an umbrella scheme with two separate Components namely (a) Central Sector Scheme (CS) and (b) Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS).
- The ‘Pradhan Mantri Kisan SAMPADA Yojana’ is a revamped version of the SAMPADA (Scheme For Agro-Marine Processing And Development Of Agro-Processing Clusters) scheme.
Incorrect
- The Department of Fisheries, Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying is implementing Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana. It is a scheme to bring about Blue Revolution through sustainable and responsible development of fisheries sector in India for holistic development of fisheries sector including welfare of fishers.
- The Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana. (PMMSY) is designed to address critical gaps in fish production and productivity, quality, technology, post-harvest infrastructure and management, modernisation and strengthening of value chain, traceability, establishing a robust fisheries management framework and fishers‟ welfare.
- PMMSY is being implemented in all the States and Union Territories for a period of 5 years from FY 2020-21 to FY 2024-25.
- The PMMSY is an umbrella scheme with two separate Components namely (a) Central Sector Scheme (CS) and (b) Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS).
- The ‘Pradhan Mantri Kisan SAMPADA Yojana’ is a revamped version of the SAMPADA (Scheme For Agro-Marine Processing And Development Of Agro-Processing Clusters) scheme.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Category: Current AffairsSilverLine Project, often seen in News is:
Correct
- SilverLine is a semi-high-speed railway project that would run trains at 200 km/h between Kerala’s northern and southern ends of Kasargod and Thiruvananthapuram.
Incorrect
- SilverLine is a semi-high-speed railway project that would run trains at 200 km/h between Kerala’s northern and southern ends of Kasargod and Thiruvananthapuram.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Category: GeographyWith reference to the water on the planet Earth, consider the following statements:
- The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is more than the amount of groundwater.
- The amount of water in polar ice caps and glaciers is more than the amount of groundwater.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is less than the amount of groundwater.
- The amount of water in polar ice caps and glaciers is more than the amount of groundwater.
Incorrect
- The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is less than the amount of groundwater.
- The amount of water in polar ice caps and glaciers is more than the amount of groundwater.
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regards to the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights:
- It is a statutory body under the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005 under the administrative control of the Ministry of Women & Child Development, Government of India.
- The commission defines a child as a person between the ages of 0 and 18 years.
- The commission has a chairperson and six members of which at least two should be women.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights is an Indian statutory body established by an Act of Parliament, the Commission for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005. It was set up in March 2007.
- The Commission’s mandate is to ensure that all Laws, Policies, Programmes, and Administrative Mechanisms are in consonance with the Child Rights perspective as enshrined in the Constitution of India and also the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child. The Child is defined as a person in the 0 to 18 years age group.
- The Commission works under the aegis of the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
- The commission consists of the following members namely:
- A chairperson who, is a person of eminence and has done outstanding work for promoting the welfare of children; and
- Six members, out of which at least two are woman, are appointed by the Central Government from amongst persons of eminence, ability, integrity, standing and experience.
Incorrect
- The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights is an Indian statutory body established by an Act of Parliament, the Commission for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005. It was set up in March 2007.
- The Commission’s mandate is to ensure that all Laws, Policies, Programmes, and Administrative Mechanisms are in consonance with the Child Rights perspective as enshrined in the Constitution of India and also the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child. The Child is defined as a person in the 0 to 18 years age group.
- The Commission works under the aegis of the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
- The commission consists of the following members namely:
- A chairperson who, is a person of eminence and has done outstanding work for promoting the welfare of children; and
- Six members, out of which at least two are woman, are appointed by the Central Government from amongst persons of eminence, ability, integrity, standing and experience.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regards to the appointment of judges in the higher judiciary in India:
- Collegium is the system of appointment and transfer of judges that has evolved through judgments of the Supreme Court, and not by an Act of Parliament or by a provision of the Constitution.
- In the Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association Vs Union of India, 1993, a nine-judge Constitution Bench devised a specific procedure called ‘Collegium System’ for the appointment and transfer of judges in the higher judiciary.
- As per the third judges’ case, the sole opinion of the CJI does not constitute the consultation process.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- The Collegium system has evolved through judgments of the Supreme Court and is not backed by an Act of Parliament or by a provision of the Constitution.
- ‘Collegium System’ for the appointment and transfer of judges in the higher judiciary evolved from the Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association Vs Union of India, 1993 case judgment.
- As per the SC guidelines in the third judges’ case, the sole, individual opinion of the CJI does not constitute consultation. The CJI can only make a recommendation to appoint a judge of the Supreme Court and to transfer a Chief Justice or puisne judge of a High Court in consultation with the four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court.
Incorrect
- The Collegium system has evolved through judgments of the Supreme Court and is not backed by an Act of Parliament or by a provision of the Constitution.
- ‘Collegium System’ for the appointment and transfer of judges in the higher judiciary evolved from the Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association Vs Union of India, 1993 case judgment.
- As per the SC guidelines in the third judges’ case, the sole, individual opinion of the CJI does not constitute consultation. The CJI can only make a recommendation to appoint a judge of the Supreme Court and to transfer a Chief Justice or puisne judge of a High Court in consultation with the four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Category: International RelationsWhich of the following nations is not a signatory to the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)?
Correct
- The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons, commonly known as the Non-Proliferation Treaty or NPT, is an international treaty whose objective is to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons and weapons technology, to promote cooperation in the peaceful uses of nuclear energy, and to further the goal of achieving nuclear disarmament and general and complete disarmament.
- South Sudan is not a signatory of the NPT. Other non-signatory countries include India and Pakistan.
Incorrect
- The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons, commonly known as the Non-Proliferation Treaty or NPT, is an international treaty whose objective is to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons and weapons technology, to promote cooperation in the peaceful uses of nuclear energy, and to further the goal of achieving nuclear disarmament and general and complete disarmament.
- South Sudan is not a signatory of the NPT. Other non-signatory countries include India and Pakistan.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements with respect to the National Clean Air Programme:
- The NCAP has set a target of reducing key air pollutants PM10 and PM2.5 (ultra-fine particulate matter) by 20-30% by 2024, taking the pollution levels in 2019 as the base year.
- The NCAP has identified 132 cities as non-attainment cities as they did not meet the national ambient air quality standards for 2011-15 under the National Air Quality Monitoring Program.
- The NCAP was launched in 2019.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- The NCAP launched in 2019, has set a target of reducing key air pollutants PM10 and PM2.5 (ultra-fine particulate matter) by 20-30% by 2024, taking the pollution levels in 2017 as the base year.
Incorrect
- The NCAP launched in 2019, has set a target of reducing key air pollutants PM10 and PM2.5 (ultra-fine particulate matter) by 20-30% by 2024, taking the pollution levels in 2017 as the base year.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Category: PolityWith reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- They shall be enforceable by courts.
- They shall not be enforceable by any court.
- The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
- Part IV of the Constitution of India deals with Directive Principles of State Policy.
- ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ are the constitutional instructions or recommendations to the State in legislative, executive and administrative matters. The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935. They seek to establish economic and social democracy in the country.
- The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature, that is, they are not legally enforceable by the courts. Therefore, the government (Central, state and local) cannot be compelled to implement them. Nevertheless, the Constitution (Article 37) itself says that these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
Incorrect
- Part IV of the Constitution of India deals with Directive Principles of State Policy.
- ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ are the constitutional instructions or recommendations to the State in legislative, executive and administrative matters. The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935. They seek to establish economic and social democracy in the country.
- The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature, that is, they are not legally enforceable by the courts. Therefore, the government (Central, state and local) cannot be compelled to implement them. Nevertheless, the Constitution (Article 37) itself says that these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Category: PolityWhich of the following ministries is the nodal agency for observing ‘Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav’ celebrations?
Correct
- Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav is an initiative of the Government of India to celebrate and commemorate 75 years of progressive India and the glorious history of its people, culture and achievements.
- Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav is an embodiment of all that is progressive about India’s socio-cultural, political and economic identity.
- The Ministry of Culture is the nodal agency for “Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav”.
- Hence Option A is correct.
Incorrect
- Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav is an initiative of the Government of India to celebrate and commemorate 75 years of progressive India and the glorious history of its people, culture and achievements.
- Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav is an embodiment of all that is progressive about India’s socio-cultural, political and economic identity.
- The Ministry of Culture is the nodal agency for “Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav”.
- Hence Option A is correct.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Category: EconomyConsider the following statements with regards to Alternate Minimum Tax:
- It was introduced in 1988 for the first time to bring zero tax companies into the ambit of tax.
- Companies are taxed at 15% under this regime.
- It is not applicable to foreign companies operating in India.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Alternate Minimum Tax is a tax levied on ‘adjusted total income’ in an FY wherein tax on normal income is lower than AMT on Adjusted total income. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- Companies pay the tax at the rate of 15 per cent. To provide a level playing field between co-operative societies and companies, AMT is reduced to 15 percent. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- Alternate Minimum Tax is applicable to all companies, including foreign companies that have established their presence in India. Hence Statement 3 is not correct.
Incorrect
- Alternate Minimum Tax is a tax levied on ‘adjusted total income’ in an FY wherein tax on normal income is lower than AMT on Adjusted total income. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- Companies pay the tax at the rate of 15 per cent. To provide a level playing field between co-operative societies and companies, AMT is reduced to 15 percent. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- Alternate Minimum Tax is applicable to all companies, including foreign companies that have established their presence in India. Hence Statement 3 is not correct.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Category: EconomyConsider the following statements with regards to Cess & Surcharge:
- The Central Government levies both Cess and surcharge.
- Both are collected and taken into the Consolidated Fund of India.
- State Governments cannot share any of these.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Cess and surcharge constitute types of taxes a Union Government levies on its citizens to gain revenue for government functioning. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- Cess taxes and surcharges go to the Consolidated Fund of India. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- State Governments cannot share Cess & Surcharge. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
- Cess and surcharge constitute types of taxes a Union Government levies on its citizens to gain revenue for government functioning. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- Cess taxes and surcharges go to the Consolidated Fund of India. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- State Governments cannot share Cess & Surcharge. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Category: EconomyConsider the following statements with regards to International Financial Services Centre (IFSC):
- An IFSC caters to customers outside the jurisdiction of the domestic economy.
- The first IFSC in India has been set up at the Gujarat International Finance TecCity (GIFT City) in Gandhinagar.
- The SEZ Act 2005 allows setting up an IFSC in an SEZ or as an SEZ after approval from the central government.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- An IFSC caters to customers outside the jurisdiction of the domestic economy. Such centres deal with flows of finance, financial products and services across borders. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- Gujarat International Finance Tec-City Co. Ltd is being developed as the country’s first International Financial Services Centre (IFSC). Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- The SEZ Act 2005 allows setting up an IFSC in an SEZ or as an SEZ after approval from the central government. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
- An IFSC caters to customers outside the jurisdiction of the domestic economy. Such centres deal with flows of finance, financial products and services across borders. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- Gujarat International Finance Tec-City Co. Ltd is being developed as the country’s first International Financial Services Centre (IFSC). Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- The SEZ Act 2005 allows setting up an IFSC in an SEZ or as an SEZ after approval from the central government. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Category: PolityRajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in
Correct
- Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in the amendment of the constitutional bill.
- Unlike the money bill, the constitutional amendment bill has to be approved by both the Houses of Parliament with a special majority.
- There is no provision of a Joint Session in case of disagreement, so, Lok Sabha cannot override the decision of the Rajya Sabha. However, in the matters of formation and removal of the government, the Rajya Sabha has unequal status with respect to Lok Sabha.
- Similarly, Rajya Sabha has less power in matters of finance like making cut motions, passing money bills, etc. vis-a-vis Lok Sabha.
- The Rajya Sabha has been given some special powers which it enjoys exclusively. This includes the power to authorize the Parliament to create new All-India Services common to both the centre and states (Article 312) by passing a resolution.
- Hence Option B is correct.
Incorrect
- Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in the amendment of the constitutional bill.
- Unlike the money bill, the constitutional amendment bill has to be approved by both the Houses of Parliament with a special majority.
- There is no provision of a Joint Session in case of disagreement, so, Lok Sabha cannot override the decision of the Rajya Sabha. However, in the matters of formation and removal of the government, the Rajya Sabha has unequal status with respect to Lok Sabha.
- Similarly, Rajya Sabha has less power in matters of finance like making cut motions, passing money bills, etc. vis-a-vis Lok Sabha.
- The Rajya Sabha has been given some special powers which it enjoys exclusively. This includes the power to authorize the Parliament to create new All-India Services common to both the centre and states (Article 312) by passing a resolution.
- Hence Option B is correct.
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