UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Jul 02 - Jul 08

UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Jul 02 – Jul 08 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.

UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from Jul 02 – Jul 08 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.

Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.

Post your scores in the comment section below!

Q1. The jet aircrafts fly very easily and smoothly in the lower stratosphere. What could 
be the appropriate explanation? (2011)
  1. There are no clouds or water vapour in the lower stratosphere.
  2. There are no vertical winds in the lower stratosphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation:

  • Jet aircraft mostly fly in the lower stratosphere to avoid turbulence.
  • The stratosphere is dry. There is very little water vapour because of which there are no clouds.
  • Vertical winds are almost absent in the stratosphere. The air tends not to overturn in the region as there is an increase in temperature with height in the stratosphere. Therefore, the vertical winds are almost absent.
Q2. With reference to Attorney General (AG) of India, which of the following statements is/are
 correct?
  1. The term of AG is not fixed by the Constitution.
  2. AG is barred from private legal practice.

Options:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both
  4. None
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: a

Explanation:

  • The Attorney-General of India is the first law officer of the Government of India.
  • The tenure of the AG of India is not fixed by the Constitution.
  • The Attorney-General is appointed by the President and he holds office during the pleasure of the President.
  • The Attorney General represents the government but is allowed to take up private practice provided the other party is not the state.
Q3. Which of the following statements about Exercise Sea Breeze is/are correct?
  1. It brings South China Sea nations and US Allies together to train and operate in the pursuit of building increased capability.
  2. It will be an annual exercise beginning from 2021 as it marks the centenary celebration of the Communist Party of China.

Options:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both
  4. None
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: d

Explanation:

  • Exercise Sea Breeze has been held since 1997.
  • It involves NATO states and their allies in the Black Sea region.
  • The drill is aimed at improving naval and land operations and improving cooperation among participating countries.
Q4. Consider the following statements:
  1. Baihetan Dam is the world’s second-biggest hydroelectric dam on the Jinsha River, a tributary of the Yangtze.
  2. Yangtze is the longest river in Asia, the third-longest in the world and the longest in the world to flow entirely within one country, and drains into the South China Sea.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both
  4. None
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: a

Explanation:

  • Baihetan Dam is the world’s second-biggest hydroelectric dam on the Jinsha River, a tributary of the Yangtze
  • Yangtze is the longest river in Asia and the third-longest in the world.
  • It is the longest in the world to flow entirely within one country and drains into the East China Sea.
Q5. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
  1. Persons with Disabilities (PwD) have the right to reservation in promotions.
  2. Reservation to promotion can be given to a PwD even if the person was not originally appointed in the PwD quota.

Options:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both
  4. None
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation:

  • The Supreme Court has said that a disabled person can avail the benefit of reservation for promotion even if he/she was recruited in the regular category or developed the disability after gaining employment.
  • The important thing is the employee should be a ‘person with disability’ (PwD) at the time of the promotion to avail of the disabled quota.
  • The Persons with Disabilities Act of 1995 does not make a distinction between a person who may have entered service on account of disability and a person who may have acquired a disability after having entered the service.
  • The Supreme Court has said that the mode of entry in service cannot be a ground to make out a case of discriminatory promotion.
Q6. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2013)
  1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds.
  2. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
  3. Dharwars are famous for petroleum.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3
  4. None
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

  • Coal deposits are found in Gondwana beds.
  • Kodarma mines in Jharkhand are one of the important mica producing areas. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
  • Dharwar, a district in Karnataka is not famous for petroleum.
Q7. Consider the following statements:
  1. The One Nation One Ration Card (ONORC) scheme is aimed at enabling migrant workers and their family members to buy subsidised ration from any fair price shop anywhere in the country under the National Food Security Act, 2013.
  2. Implementation of ONORC is a precondition for additional borrowing by states.
  3. Non-NFSA ration cardholders are also covered under the ONORC.

Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?

  1. 1 & 2 only
  2. 2 & 3 only
  3. Only 3
  4. All of the above
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation:

  • One Nation One Ration Card (ONORC) scheme allows all beneficiaries under the National Food Security Act, 2013, particularly migrant beneficiaries, to claim either full or part foodgrains from any Fair Price Shop (FPS) in the country through an existing ration card. The system also allows their family members back home, if any, to claim the balance foodgrains on the same ration card.
  • In 2020, during the COVID-19 pandemic, the Centre set the implementation of ONORC as a precondition for additional borrowing by states.
  • Non-NFSA ration card holders are not covered under the ONORC.
Q8. Consider the following statements regarding the distribution of subsidised ration:
  1. Annavitaran portal maintains a record of inter-state transactions.
  2. Integrated Management of Public Distribution System (IM-PDS) portal records the intra-state transactions.

Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both
  4. None
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation:

  • One Nation One Ration Card scheme is based on technology that involves details of the beneficiary’s ration card, Aadhaar number, and electronic Points of Sale (ePoS).
  • The system identifies a beneficiary through biometric authentication on ePoS devices at fair price shops.
  • The system runs with the support of two portals —Integrated Management of Public Distribution System (IM-PDS) and Annavitaran, which host all the relevant data.
  • Annavitaran Portal – maintains a record of intra-state transactions — inter-district and intra-district.
  • Integrated Management of Public Distribution System (IM-PDS) – records the inter-state transactions.
Q9. Consider the following statements:
  1. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of Parliament in a year.
  2. It is mandatory to convene the Parliament at least twice every year.
  3. Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs has no role in convening the sessions of the Indian Parliament.

Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?

  1. 1 & 2 only
  2. 1 & 3 only
  3. 2 & 3 only
  4. All of the above
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

  • As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory to convene at least two sessions per year.
  • In practice, the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs, comprising senior ministers, decides on the dates for Parliament’s sitting and it is then conveyed to the President.
  • President from time to time summons each House of Parliament to meet.
  • The Constitution of India does not provide for three sessions of Parliament in a year. However, by convention, the Indian Parliament conducts three sessions each year.
  • The Budget session: February to May, the Monsoon session: July to September and the Winter session: November to December.
Q10. Consider the following statements:
  1. India is yet to ratify the 1987 UN Convention against Torture and Other Cruel, Inhuman or Degrading Treatment or Punishment (UNCAT).
  2. The Méndez Principles aim to provide a cohesive blueprint of practical measures to replace torture and coercive interrogation.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both
  4. None
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation:

  • UN Convention against Torture and Other Cruel, Inhuman or Degrading Treatment or Punishment (UNCAT) is an international human rights treaty, under the review of the United Nations, that aims to prevent torture and other acts of cruel, inhuman, or degrading treatment or punishment.
  • India is one of only five countries that have yet to ratify the 1987 UNCAT. The others include Sudan, Brunei, Palau and Haiti.
  • Recognizing the widespread use of torture during investigations, Juan E. Méndez, submitted a report in 2016 to the United Nations General Assembly as outgoing Special Rapporteur on Torture.
    • It called for the development of a universal set of standards for non-coercive interviewing and associated procedural safeguards during investigations to ensure that no person — including suspects, witnesses, victims, and other persons being interviewed is subjected to torture, ill-treatment, or coercion while being questioned.
  • The Méndez Principles aim to provide a cohesive blueprint of practical measures to replace torture and coercive interrogation.
Q11. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is (2012)
  1. to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance
  2. to let opposition members collect information from the ministers
  3. to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
  4. to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: a

Explanation:

  • Adjournment motion is the procedure for adjournment of the business of the House to draw the attention of Lok Sabha to a recent matter of urgent public importance having serious consequences and in regard to which a motion or a resolution with proper notice will be too late.
  • The purpose of the Adjournment Motion is to allow discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance.
  • It is followed only in the Lok Sabha.
Q12. Consider the following statements:
  1. The ‘Nodal Ministry’ in the central government for the management of natural disasters is the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
  2. Disaster Management Act, 2005 calls for the establishment of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) with the Home Minister as chairperson.

Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both
  4. None
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

  • The ‘Nodal Ministry’ in the central government for the management of natural disasters is the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
  • Disaster Management Act, 2005 calls for the establishment of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) with the Prime Minister as chairperson.

Read more on the Disaster Management Act.

Q13. With reference to Kalbeliya dance, which of the following statements is/are correct?
  1. It is a folk dance of Madhya Pradesh.
  2. This dance performance is accredited by UNESCO as an Intangible Heritage.
  3. The Kalbelia is almost exclusively performed by females.

Options:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

  • Kalbeliya dance is a folk dance of Rajasthan.
  • This dance performance is accredited by UNESCO as an Intangible Heritage.
  • The Kalbelia is almost exclusively performed by females.
  • The traditional occupation of the Kalbelia tribes is catching snakes and trading snake venom. Hence, the dance movements and the costumes of their community bear a resemblance to serpents.
Q14. Which of the following has/have been accorded 'Geographical Indication' status?
  1. Jardalu mango
  2. Hapus mango
  3. Laxmanbhog mango
  4. Banaganapalle mango
  5. Appemidi mango

Options:

  1. 1 and 4 only
  2. 2, 3 and 5 only
  3. 1, 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: d

Explanation:

All the mangoes mentioned above have been accorded the Geographical Indication tag.

            Mango             State

  1. Jardalu mango – Bihar
  2. Hapus mango – Maharashtra
  3. Laxmanbhog mango – West Bengal
  4. Banaganapalle mango – Andhra Pradesh
  5. Appemidi mango – Karnataka
Q15. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
  1. Current account deficit may cause depreciation.
  2. Current account deficit may be a sign the economy is uncompetitive.

Options:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both
  4. None
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation:

  • A current account deficit indicates that a country is importing more than it is exporting.
  • Current account deficit may cause depreciation as there is greater demand for imports and foreign currency.
    • When the current account deficit increases, it leads to an increased supply of a nation’s currency in the foreign exchange markets. Therefore, in the currency market, there will be an outward shift of supply. This might lead to the external value of the currency falling causing depreciation.
  • Current account deficit is an indication of an uncompetitive economy. It may imply the economy is becoming uncompetitive and the exchange rate relatively overvalued.
Q16. Consider the following Bhakti Saints: (2013)
  1. Dadu Dayal
  2. Guru Nanak
  3. Tyagaraja

Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over?

  1. 1 and 3
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3
  4. 1 and 2
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

The Bhakti saint who witnessed the fall of the Lodi dynasty was Guru Nanak (1469 – 1539).

Q17. Which of the following is/are treated as cruelty under Prevention of Cruelty to Animals 
Act?
  1. The dehorning of cattle, or the castration or branding or nose-roping of any animal, in the prescribed manner.
  2. If any person without reasonable cause, abandons any animal in circumstances which render it likely that it will suffer pain by reason of starvation or thirst.
  3. If any person promotes or takes part in any shooting match or competition wherein animals are released from captivity for the purpose of such shooting.
  4. The destruction of stray dogs in lethal chambers.

Options:

  1. 1, 3 and 4 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

  • The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act was enacted in 1960 and was authored by acclaimed dancer and animal lover, Rukmini Devi Arundale.
  • It was enacted to prevent the infliction of unnecessary pain and suffering on animals.
  • As per the provisions of the law, the Government of India formed the Animal Welfare Board of India in 1962.
  • The Animal Welfare Board of India was started under the stewardship of Rukmini Devi Arundale.
  • It falls under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying.

Intentional infliction of pain and suffering to animals is termed cruelty under the act. Under the law, cruelty is:

  • If any person without reasonable cause, abandons any animal in circumstances which render it likely that it will suffer pain by reason of starvation or thirst.
  • If any person promotes or takes part in any shooting match or competition wherein animals are released from captivity for the purpose of such shooting.
Q18. Which of the following is/are the right bank tributaries of Krishna?
  1. Musi
  2. Koyna
  3. Ghataprabha
  4. Tungabhadra
  5. Munneru

Options:

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 2, 3 and 4 only
  3. 3, 4 and 5 only
  4. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

  • River Krishna originates in Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra.
  • It flows through Sangli and drains the sea in the Bay of Bengal.
  • The river flows through the states of Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.
  • Tungabhadra River is the main tributary which itself is formed by the Tunga and Bhadra rivers that originate in the Western Ghats.
  • Its Right bank tributaries are: Koyna, Doodhganga, Ghataprabha, Malaprabha and Tungabhadra.
  • Its Left bank tributaries are: Bheema, Peddavagu, Musi, Paleru, Munneru.
Q19. Consider the following statements with respect to Public Interest Litigation (PIL):
  1. The concept of PIL originated and developed in the USA.
  2. Locus standi is not a necessity for PIL.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both
  4. None
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation:

  • Public Interest Litigation (PIL) implies litigation for the protection of public interests.
  • Any matter where the interest of the public at large is affected can be redressed by filing a Public Interest Litigation in a court of law such as Pollution, Terrorism, Road safety, Constructional hazards, etc.
  • The expression ‘Public Interest Litigation’ has been borrowed from American jurisprudence, where it was designed to provide legal representation to previously unrepresented groups like the poor, the racial minorities, unorganized consumers, citizens who were passionate about the environmental issues, etc.
  • Locus standi implies that only the person/party whose rights have been infringed upon can file petitions.
  • Locus standi is not a necessity for PIL.
Q20. Which of the following methods can be employed to reduce the ill-effects of Non-Performing
 Assets (NPA)?
  1. Sell the NPAs
  2. Compromise Settlement
  3. Pumping money into the banking system

Options:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: a

Explanation:

  • A nonperforming asset (NPA) refers to a classification for loans or advances that are in default.
  • Selling the NPAs to Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC) or the bad banks is a method of removal of NPAs from the bank’s balance sheet.
  • Compromise settlement is executed by the banks in order to recover non-performing assets (NPAs). Eg: A one-time settlement or OTS is a type of compromise settlement. Under this method, the borrower (the one who has defaulted) proposes to settle all the dues at once, and banks agree to accept an amount lesser than what was originally due.
Q21. How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood options of rural
 poor? (2012)
  1. By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and agribusiness centres in rural areas
  2. By strengthening ‘self-help groups’ and providing skill development
  3. By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets and micro-irrigation equipment free of cost to farmers

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) is a poverty alleviation project implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India. This scheme is focused on promoting self-employment and organization of rural poor by strengthening ‘self-help groups’ and providing skill development.

Q22. Which of the following are the literary works of Kalidasa? 
  1. Abhijnanashakuntala
  2. Mudrarakṣhasa
  3. Kumarasambhava
  4. Mrichchhakatika
  5. Meghaduta

Options:

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
  3. 1, 3 and 5 only
  4. 2, 3 and 4 only
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation:

  • Kalidasa is widely regarded as the greatest poet and dramatist in the Sanskrit language in India. His literary works are as follows:
  • Plays: Malavikagnimitram, Abhijnanasakuntalam, Vikramorvasiyam.
  • Epic Poems (Maha kayvas): Raghuvamsa, Kumarasambhava.
  • Minor Poems (Khanda kavyas): Meghaduta, Ritusamhara.
  • His works were likely authored within the 4th–5th century CE.

Note:

  • Vishakhadatta wrote Mudrarakshasa.
  • Mricchakatika is a Sanskrit play written by Shudraka.
Q23. With reference to Solicitor General, which of the following statements is/are correct?
  1. Solicitor General’s office and duties are governed by Law Officers (Conditions of Service) Rules, 1987 and by Constitution.
  2. He has the right to participate in the proceedings of Parliament but ‘not to vote’.

Options:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both
  4. None
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: d

Explanation:

  • Solicitor General is the second highest-ranking law officer of the government after the Attorney General. It is a statutory post.
    • “Law Officer” includes the Attorney-General for India, the Solicitor-General for India, and Additional Solicitor-General for India.
  • The Solicitor General is subordinate to the Attorney General.
  • Solicitor General’s office and duties are governed by Law Officers (Conditions of Service) Rules, 1987 and not by the Constitution.
  • Solicitor General does not have the right to participate in the proceedings of Parliament.
Q24. Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS) sometimes seen in the news refers to
  1. Simplifying and harmonizing international customs procedures globally
  2. Anti-Dumping Measures
  3. Tax planning techniques employed by companies to exploit gaps in international and domestic tax laws
  4. Criminals using cryptocurrency for illegal activities
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation:

  • Base erosion and profit shifting (BEPS) refers to corporate tax planning strategies used by multinationals to shift profits from higher-tax jurisdictions to lower-tax jurisdictions.
  • This practice erodes the tax-base of the higher-tax jurisdictions.
Q25. Consider the following pairs:

            Lake                                                            State

  1. Vembanad Lake                                              Kerala
  2. Indira Sagar Lake                                        Rajasthan
  3. Pulicat Lake                                             Andhra Pradesh

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation:

           Lake                                            State

Vembanad Lake                                       Kerala

Indira Sagar Lake                              Madhya Pradesh

Pulicat Lake                                        Andhra Pradesh

Q26. With reference to 'IFC Masala Bonds', sometimes seen in the news, which of the statements 
given below is/are correct?
  1. The International Finance Corporation, which offers these bonds, is an arm of the World Bank.
  2. They are rupee-denominated bonds and are a source of debt financing for the public and private sector.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation:

  • Masala bonds are bonds issued outside India but denominated in Indian Rupees, rather than the local currency.
  • It is a debt instrument issued by an Indian entity in foreign markets to raise money, in Indian currency, instead of dollars or local denomination.
  • They are a source of debt financing for the public and private sector.
  • Masala is an Indian word and it means spices. The term was used by the International Finance Corporation to evoke the culture and cuisine of India.
  • The International Finance Corporation, which offers these bonds, is an arm of the World Bank.
Q27. Consider the following statement with respect to Asian Elephant Specialist Group (AsESG):
  1. AsESG is a part of the Species Survival Commission (SSC) of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
  2. It acts as the Red List Authority for the Asian Elephant.
  3. It operates and manages Elephant Trade Information System.

Options:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 2 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: a

Explanation:

  • The Asian Elephant Specialist Group (AsESG) is a part of the Species Survival Commission (SSC) of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). It acts as the Red List Authority for the Asian Elephant.
  • Elephant Trade Information System (ETIS) is managed and coordinated by TRAFFIC in consultation with the MIKE and ETIS Technical Advisory Group (TAG) and in collaboration with the CITES Secretariat.
Q28. Consumer Price Index can be used for which of the following?
  1. Identifying periods of inflation or deflation
  2. Inspecting price stability
  3. Tool for inflation targeting
  4. Understanding the real value of salaries, wages, and pensions

Options:

  1. 1 only
  2. 3 and 4 only
  3. 1, 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: d

Explanation:

  • The Consumer Price Index (CPI) is a measure that examines the weighted average of prices of a basket of consumer goods and services, such as transportation, food, and medical care. It is calculated by taking price changes for each item in the predetermined basket of goods and averaging them.
  • It can be useful for the following purposes:
    • Identifying periods of inflation or deflation
    • Inspecting price stability
    • Tool for inflation targeting (Indian uses CPI as a benchmark for inflation targeting)
    • Understanding the real value of salaries, wages, and pensions
Q29. Which of the given statements with respect to Supernova is/are correct?
  1. Massive stars, towards the end of their lifetimes form supernovas.
  2. Supernova can happen in systems where two stars orbit one another and at least one of those stars is an Earth-sized white dwarf.
  3. Study of supernova can help measure distances in space.

Options:

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: d

Explanation:

  • A supernova is a powerful and luminous stellar explosion. This transient astronomical event occurs during the last evolutionary stages of a massive star or when a white dwarf is triggered into runaway nuclear fusion.
  • Supernova can happen in systems where two stars orbit one another and at least one of those stars is an Earth-sized white dwarf.
  • The study of supernova is beneficial in better understanding of our universe as they can help measure distances in space.
Q30. Which of the given statements with respect to Jagannath Temple in Puri is/are INCORRECT?
  1. The temple famous for its annual Rath Yatra is dedicated to Lord Vishnu.
  2. Located in coastal Odisha, it is also called the Black Pagoda.
  3. It is one of the Char Dham.

Options:

  1. 2 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 3 only
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: a

Explanation:

  • The Jagannath temple in Puri is famous for its annual Rath Yatra, dedicated to Jagannath, a form of Lord Vishnu.
  • It is the Sun Temple at Konark, Odisha which is referred to as the Black Pagoda.
  • Puri Jagannath Mandir is one four great ‘Char Dham’ pilgrimage sites.

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