UPSC 2024: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Mar 23 – Mar 29 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Current Affairs Monthly Magazine (Feb 2024)
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UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from Mar 23 – Mar 29 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.
Post your scores in the comment section below!
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UPSC 2024: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Mar 23 – Mar 29
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Category: International RelationsConsider the following pairs: (Level-Difficult)
Operations Led by
- Operation Barkhane France
- Operation Infinite Reach Germany
- Operation Turus UK
- Operation Urgent Fury USA
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
- Pair 01 is correctly matched, Operation Barkhane was an anti-insurgent operation from 2014 to November 2022 led by the French military against Islamist groups in Africa’s Sahel region.
- Pair 02 is incorrectly matched, Operation Infinite Reach was the codename for American cruise missile strikes on Al-Qaeda bases in Sudan and Afghanistan on August 20, 1998.
- Pair 03 is correctly matched, Operation Turus is the code name of the British military operation to assist Nigeria during the Boko Haram insurgency. It was launched in April 2014 in response to the Chibok schoolgirls kidnapping which saw over a hundred schoolgirls kidnapped by Boko Haram, a jihadist terrorist organisation in Nigeria.
- Pair 04 is correctly matched, The United States invasion of Grenada in October 1983 was codenamed Operation Urgent Fury. The United States and a coalition of six Caribbean nations invaded the island nation of Grenada, 100 miles (160 km) north of Venezuela.
Incorrect
- Pair 01 is correctly matched, Operation Barkhane was an anti-insurgent operation from 2014 to November 2022 led by the French military against Islamist groups in Africa’s Sahel region.
- Pair 02 is incorrectly matched, Operation Infinite Reach was the codename for American cruise missile strikes on Al-Qaeda bases in Sudan and Afghanistan on August 20, 1998.
- Pair 03 is correctly matched, Operation Turus is the code name of the British military operation to assist Nigeria during the Boko Haram insurgency. It was launched in April 2014 in response to the Chibok schoolgirls kidnapping which saw over a hundred schoolgirls kidnapped by Boko Haram, a jihadist terrorist organisation in Nigeria.
- Pair 04 is correctly matched, The United States invasion of Grenada in October 1983 was codenamed Operation Urgent Fury. The United States and a coalition of six Caribbean nations invaded the island nation of Grenada, 100 miles (160 km) north of Venezuela.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Category: HistoryWhich of the following is/are correctly matched? (Level-Difficult)
- Battle of Chausa – Humayun and Sher Shah Suri
- Battle of Haldighati – Maharana Pratap and the forces of Akbar
- Battle of Karnal – Nadir Shah and Muhammad Shah
Options:
Correct
- Pair 01 is correctly matched, The Battle of Chausa took place between Humayun and Sher Shah Suri. It was fought on 26 June 1539 at Chausa, near Buxar, Bihar.
- Pair 02 is correctly matched, The Battle of Haldighati was a battle fought on 18 June 1576 between the Mewar forces led by Maharana Pratap, and the Mughal forces of Akbar led by Man Singh I of Amber.
- Pair 03 is correctly matched, The Battle of Karnal (24 February 1739) was fought between Nadir Shah, the founder of the Afsharid dynasty of Iran, during his invasion of India and the army of Muhammad Shah near Karnal in Haryana.
Incorrect
- Pair 01 is correctly matched, The Battle of Chausa took place between Humayun and Sher Shah Suri. It was fought on 26 June 1539 at Chausa, near Buxar, Bihar.
- Pair 02 is correctly matched, The Battle of Haldighati was a battle fought on 18 June 1576 between the Mewar forces led by Maharana Pratap, and the Mughal forces of Akbar led by Man Singh I of Amber.
- Pair 03 is correctly matched, The Battle of Karnal (24 February 1739) was fought between Nadir Shah, the founder of the Afsharid dynasty of Iran, during his invasion of India and the army of Muhammad Shah near Karnal in Haryana.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Category: International Relations'Spring Revolution', often seen in news, is (Level-Medium)
Correct
Protests in Myanmar, known locally as the Spring Revolution began in early 2021 in opposition to the coup on 1 February, staged by the commander-in-chief of the country’s armed forces.
Incorrect
Protests in Myanmar, known locally as the Spring Revolution began in early 2021 in opposition to the coup on 1 February, staged by the commander-in-chief of the country’s armed forces.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements about probiotic food:(PYQ-CSE-2008)(Level-Easy)
- Probiotic food contains live bacteria which are considered beneficial to humans.
- Probiotic food helps in maintaining gut flora.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, Probiotics are a combination of live beneficial bacteria and/or yeasts that naturally live in your body. Probiotic food contains live bacteria which are considered beneficial to humans.
- Statement 02 is correct, Probiotic food is made up of good bacteria that help keep the body healthy and working well. They help in maintaining gut flora.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, Probiotics are a combination of live beneficial bacteria and/or yeasts that naturally live in your body. Probiotic food contains live bacteria which are considered beneficial to humans.
- Statement 02 is correct, Probiotic food is made up of good bacteria that help keep the body healthy and working well. They help in maintaining gut flora.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements: (Level-Difficult)
- Electoral Bond would be a bearer instrument in the nature of a Promissory Note and an interest free banking instrument.
- No limit exists on the number of electoral bonds that a person (including corporate entities) can purchase.
- The amount of bonds not encashed within the validity period of thirty days shall be deposited by the authorised bank to the Prime Minister Relief Fund (PMRF)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, Electoral Bond would be a bearer instrument in the nature of a Promissory Note and an interest-free banking instrument. A citizen of India or a body incorporated in India will be eligible to purchase the bond.
- Statement 02 is correct, Electoral bonds are purchased anonymously by donors and are valid for 15 days from the date of issue. No limit exists on the number of electoral bonds that a person (including corporate entities) can purchase.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, The amount of bonds not encashed within the validity period of fifteen days shall be deposited by the authorised bank to the Prime Minister Relief Fund (PMRF).
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, Electoral Bond would be a bearer instrument in the nature of a Promissory Note and an interest-free banking instrument. A citizen of India or a body incorporated in India will be eligible to purchase the bond.
- Statement 02 is correct, Electoral bonds are purchased anonymously by donors and are valid for 15 days from the date of issue. No limit exists on the number of electoral bonds that a person (including corporate entities) can purchase.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, The amount of bonds not encashed within the validity period of fifteen days shall be deposited by the authorised bank to the Prime Minister Relief Fund (PMRF).
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Category: PolityWhich of the following statements is/are correct? (Level-Difficult)
- Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act established a National Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI)
- The payments made for compensatory afforestation, net present value and others related to the project will be deposited in the fund. The State Funds will receive 90% of the payments while the National Fund will receive the remaining 10%.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 01 is incorrect, Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act established the National Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of India and State Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of each state.
- Statement 02 is correct, The payments made for compensatory afforestation, net present value and others related to the project will be deposited in the fund. As per the rules, 90% of the CAF money is to be given to the states while 10% is to be retained by the Centre.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is incorrect, Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act established the National Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of India and State Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of each state.
- Statement 02 is correct, The payments made for compensatory afforestation, net present value and others related to the project will be deposited in the fund. As per the rules, 90% of the CAF money is to be given to the states while 10% is to be retained by the Centre.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Category: PolityWith respect to POCSO Act, which of the following statements is/are correct? (Level-Difficult)
- The POCSO Act does not provide for any period of limitation for reporting child sexual offences.
- The act not only punishes the perpetrator of sexual abuse but also penalises those who have failed to report the offence.
- POCSO Act prohibits disclosure of the victim’s identity in any form of media.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, The POCSO Act does not provide for any period of limitation for reporting the child sexual offences.
- Statement 02 is correct, Mandatory reporting obligation imposed under Section 19 requires every person who suspects or has knowledge of a sexual offence being committed against a child to report it to the local police or the Special Juvenile Police Unit. The act not only punishes the perpetrator of sexual abuse, but also penalises those who have failed to report the offence with either imprisonment or a fine or both.
- Statement 03 is correct, Section 23 of the POCSO Act prohibits disclosure of the victim’s identity in any form of media, except when permitted by the special courts established under the act.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, The POCSO Act does not provide for any period of limitation for reporting the child sexual offences.
- Statement 02 is correct, Mandatory reporting obligation imposed under Section 19 requires every person who suspects or has knowledge of a sexual offence being committed against a child to report it to the local police or the Special Juvenile Police Unit. The act not only punishes the perpetrator of sexual abuse, but also penalises those who have failed to report the offence with either imprisonment or a fine or both.
- Statement 03 is correct, Section 23 of the POCSO Act prohibits disclosure of the victim’s identity in any form of media, except when permitted by the special courts established under the act.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Category: PolityWhich of the following statements is/are correct? (Level-Medium)
- The date of holding the election to the office of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the President.
- Sardar Hukam Singh served as the First Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 01 is incorrect, The election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix and the Secretary shall send to every member notice of the date fixed.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, M. A. Ayyangar served as the First Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is incorrect, The election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix and the Secretary shall send to every member notice of the date fixed.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, M. A. Ayyangar served as the First Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Category: Defence & SecurityIn the context of the Indian defence, what is ‘Dhruv’?(PYQ-CSE-2008)(Level-Medium)
Correct
The HAL Dhruv is a utility helicopter designed and developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) in November 1984. Dhruv entered service in 2002. It is designed to meet the requirement of both military and civil operators, with military variants of the helicopter being developed for the Indian Armed Forces, while a variant for civilian/commercial use has also been developed. Military versions in production include transport, utility, reconnaissance and medical evacuation variants.
Incorrect
The HAL Dhruv is a utility helicopter designed and developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) in November 1984. Dhruv entered service in 2002. It is designed to meet the requirement of both military and civil operators, with military variants of the helicopter being developed for the Indian Armed Forces, while a variant for civilian/commercial use has also been developed. Military versions in production include transport, utility, reconnaissance and medical evacuation variants.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyHow many of the statements is/are true? (Level – Difficult)
- India has the 4th highest renewable energy installed capacity in the world.
- India has committed to achieving zero carbon emissions by 2050.
- India updated its INDCs in 2022.
- The LIFE (Lifestyle for Environment) campaign was proposed by India during COP 26.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, India stands 4th globally in Renewable Energy Installed Capacity as per Renewables 2022 Global Status Report.
- Statement 2 is not correct, India during COP26 promised to cut its emissions to net zero by 2070.
- Statement 3 is correct, India had submitted its Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change in 2015 which India revised and updated in August 2022.
- Statement 4 is correct, The concept of ‘Lifestyle for the Environment (LiFE) was introduced by the Indian Prime Minister at COP26 in Glasgow.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, India stands 4th globally in Renewable Energy Installed Capacity as per Renewables 2022 Global Status Report.
- Statement 2 is not correct, India during COP26 promised to cut its emissions to net zero by 2070.
- Statement 3 is correct, India had submitted its Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change in 2015 which India revised and updated in August 2022.
- Statement 4 is correct, The concept of ‘Lifestyle for the Environment (LiFE) was introduced by the Indian Prime Minister at COP26 in Glasgow.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Category: GeographyWhich of the following countries surround the Black Sea? (Level – Difficult)
- Turkey
- Russia
- Armenia
- Georgia
Options:
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Category: EconomyThe term structural transformation, seen in economics, means? (Level – Moderate)
Correct
- Structural transformation is defined as the transition of an economy from low productivity and labour-intensive economic activities to higher productivity and skill intensive activities.
- The driving force behind structural transformation is the change of productivity.
Incorrect
- Structural transformation is defined as the transition of an economy from low productivity and labour-intensive economic activities to higher productivity and skill intensive activities.
- The driving force behind structural transformation is the change of productivity.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Category: EconomyWhich of the statements are true? (Level – Easy)
- The Term “Hindu Growth Rate” was coined by C. Rangarajan.
- It is used to describe the growth rates of India between 1950s-80s.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, The term “Hindu rate of growth” was coined by Professor Rajkrishna.
- Statement 2 is correct, The Hindu rate of growth is a term referring to the low annual growth rate of the economy of India before the economic reforms of 1991, which stagnated around 3.5% from 1950s to 1980s, while per capita income growth averaged around 1.3%.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, The term “Hindu rate of growth” was coined by Professor Rajkrishna.
- Statement 2 is correct, The Hindu rate of growth is a term referring to the low annual growth rate of the economy of India before the economic reforms of 1991, which stagnated around 3.5% from 1950s to 1980s, while per capita income growth averaged around 1.3%.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Category: HistoryWith reference to the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is/are correct? (Level – Moderate) PYQ 2017
- Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them.
- Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron.
- Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them.
- However, there is evidence of people of Indus Valley Civilization using axes, chisels, arrows, spears, knives, etc.
- Statement 2 is not correct, Rigvedic Aryans were aware of gold, silver and copper
- On the other hand, Indus Valley civilization people were not aware of iron but they knew about gold, copper, silver, and bronze.
- Statement 3 is correct, Generally, it has been accepted that the Indus Valley people were not aware of the horse. However, there have been studies recently which have indicated that they were aware of this animal.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them.
- However, there is evidence of people of Indus Valley Civilization using axes, chisels, arrows, spears, knives, etc.
- Statement 2 is not correct, Rigvedic Aryans were aware of gold, silver and copper
- On the other hand, Indus Valley civilization people were not aware of iron but they knew about gold, copper, silver, and bronze.
- Statement 3 is correct, Generally, it has been accepted that the Indus Valley people were not aware of the horse. However, there have been studies recently which have indicated that they were aware of this animal.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements regarding the International Big Cat Alliance: (Level – Difficult)
- South Africa has proposed to launch a mega global alliance under its leadership to protect big cats and assured support over five years with guaranteed funding of $100 million.
- Membership to the alliance will be open to 97 “range” countries, which contain the natural habitat of these big cats, as well as other interested nations, international organisations, etc.
- After the first five years, the IBCA is expected to sustain itself through membership fees, and contributions from bilateral and multilateral institutions and the private sector.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, Recently, India has proposed to launch a mega global alliance under its leadership to protect big cats and assured support over five years with guaranteed funding of $100 million (over Rs 800 crores).
- Statement 2 is correct, The proposed International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) will work towards the protection and conservation of the seven major big cats namely Lion, Tiger, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Puma, Jaguar and Cheetah.
- The membership to the IBCA will be open to 97 “range” countries, which contain the natural habitat of these big cats and also to other interested nations and organisations.
- Statement 3 is correct, After the first five years, which will be supported by India’s “total grant assistance” of $100 million, the IBCA is expected to sustain itself through membership fees, and contributions from bilateral and multilateral institutions and the private sector.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, Recently, India has proposed to launch a mega global alliance under its leadership to protect big cats and assured support over five years with guaranteed funding of $100 million (over Rs 800 crores).
- Statement 2 is correct, The proposed International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) will work towards the protection and conservation of the seven major big cats namely Lion, Tiger, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Puma, Jaguar and Cheetah.
- The membership to the IBCA will be open to 97 “range” countries, which contain the natural habitat of these big cats and also to other interested nations and organisations.
- Statement 3 is correct, After the first five years, which will be supported by India’s “total grant assistance” of $100 million, the IBCA is expected to sustain itself through membership fees, and contributions from bilateral and multilateral institutions and the private sector.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements with regard to the Great Indian Bustard: (Level – Moderate)
- The Great Indian Bustard is one of the heaviest flying birds in the world and has disappeared from 90% of its habitat except in parts of Rajasthan and Gujarat.
- The IUCN has categorised the species as ‘critically endangered’.
- The Supreme Court in April 2021 ordered that all overhead power transmission lines in core and potential GIB habitats in Rajasthan and Gujarat should be made underground.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, The Great Indian Bustard is one of the heaviest flying birds in the world and has disappeared from 90% of its habitat except in parts of Rajasthan and Gujarat.
- According to reports, less than 150 Great Indian Bustards survive currently in India.
- Statement 2 is correct, Great Indian Bustard is listed under the “critically endangered” category of the IUCN Red list.
- Statement 3 is correct, The Supreme Court in 2021 directed that all “low-voltage” power lines, in areas demarcated as “priority and potential habitats of the Great Indian Bustard” in the Thar and Kutch deserts, be pushed underground.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, The Great Indian Bustard is one of the heaviest flying birds in the world and has disappeared from 90% of its habitat except in parts of Rajasthan and Gujarat.
- According to reports, less than 150 Great Indian Bustards survive currently in India.
- Statement 2 is correct, Great Indian Bustard is listed under the “critically endangered” category of the IUCN Red list.
- Statement 3 is correct, The Supreme Court in 2021 directed that all “low-voltage” power lines, in areas demarcated as “priority and potential habitats of the Great Indian Bustard” in the Thar and Kutch deserts, be pushed underground.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Category: SchemesWhich of the following statements is not true about the SWAMIH fund? (Level – Easy)
Correct
- The Special Window for Affordable and Mid-Income Housing (SWAMIH) Investment Fund is sponsored by the Ministry of Finance, Government of India,
- The SWAMIH is managed by SBICAP Ventures Ltd., which is a company of the State Bank Group.
- SWAMIH is a Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) registered Category-II Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) which was announced by the Finance Minister in September 2019 and approved by the Cabinet in November 2019.
- The SWAMIH Investment Fund is a social impact fund specifically formed for completing stressed and stalled residential projects.
- As per the Finance Ministry, SWAMIH Fund has one of the largest domestic real estate private equity teams focused on funding and monitoring the completion of stressed housing projects.
Incorrect
- The Special Window for Affordable and Mid-Income Housing (SWAMIH) Investment Fund is sponsored by the Ministry of Finance, Government of India,
- The SWAMIH is managed by SBICAP Ventures Ltd., which is a company of the State Bank Group.
- SWAMIH is a Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) registered Category-II Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) which was announced by the Finance Minister in September 2019 and approved by the Cabinet in November 2019.
- The SWAMIH Investment Fund is a social impact fund specifically formed for completing stressed and stalled residential projects.
- As per the Finance Ministry, SWAMIH Fund has one of the largest domestic real estate private equity teams focused on funding and monitoring the completion of stressed housing projects.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regard to the Armed Forces tribunal: (Level – Moderate)
- It was established in 2008 under the Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007.
- Each Bench comprises a Judicial Member and an Administrative Member.
- Paramilitary forces including the Assam Rifles and Coast Guard are outside the tribunal’s purview.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, The Armed Forces Tribunal is a military tribunal of India and a statutory body established in August 2009 under the Armed Forces Tribunal Act 2007.
- Statement 2 is correct, Each Bench comprises a Judicial Member and an Administrative Member.
- The Judicial Members are retired High Court Judges.
- The Administrative Members are retired members of the Armed Forces who have held the rank of Major General/equivalent or above for a period of three years or more.
- Further, Judge Advocate General (JAG), who has held the appointment for at least one year is also entitled to be appointed as the Administrative Member.
- Statement 3 is correct, Paramilitary forces including the Assam Rifles and Coast Guard are outside the tribunal’s purview.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, The Armed Forces Tribunal is a military tribunal of India and a statutory body established in August 2009 under the Armed Forces Tribunal Act 2007.
- Statement 2 is correct, Each Bench comprises a Judicial Member and an Administrative Member.
- The Judicial Members are retired High Court Judges.
- The Administrative Members are retired members of the Armed Forces who have held the rank of Major General/equivalent or above for a period of three years or more.
- Further, Judge Advocate General (JAG), who has held the appointment for at least one year is also entitled to be appointed as the Administrative Member.
- Statement 3 is correct, Paramilitary forces including the Assam Rifles and Coast Guard are outside the tribunal’s purview.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Category: Defence & SecurityWhat is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news? (Level – Easy) (PYQ 2018)
Correct
- Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD) is an anti-ballistic missile system of the US army.
- THAAD is a transportable system that intercepts ballistic missiles during their final, or terminal, phase of flight.
- THAAD incorporates an X-band radar, the AN/TPY-2, and a single-stage, hit-to-kill interceptor to defeat ballistic missiles inside or outside of the atmosphere.
Incorrect
- Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD) is an anti-ballistic missile system of the US army.
- THAAD is a transportable system that intercepts ballistic missiles during their final, or terminal, phase of flight.
- THAAD incorporates an X-band radar, the AN/TPY-2, and a single-stage, hit-to-kill interceptor to defeat ballistic missiles inside or outside of the atmosphere.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Category: G KThe prestigious ‘Pritzker prize’ is conferred in the field of (Level – Moderate)
Correct
- Pritzker Prize is awarded annually “to honour a living architect or architects whose work demonstrates a combination of those qualities of talent, vision and commitment, which has produced consistent and significant contributions to humanity and the built environment through the art of architecture.”
- Founded in 1979 by Jay A. Pritzker and his wife Cindy, the award is funded by the Pritzker family and sponsored by the Hyatt Foundation.
- It is often referred to as the Nobel Prize of architecture.
- The prize is said to be awarded “irrespective of nationality, race, creed, or ideology.”
Incorrect
- Pritzker Prize is awarded annually “to honour a living architect or architects whose work demonstrates a combination of those qualities of talent, vision and commitment, which has produced consistent and significant contributions to humanity and the built environment through the art of architecture.”
- Founded in 1979 by Jay A. Pritzker and his wife Cindy, the award is funded by the Pritzker family and sponsored by the Hyatt Foundation.
- It is often referred to as the Nobel Prize of architecture.
- The prize is said to be awarded “irrespective of nationality, race, creed, or ideology.”
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements with regard to India’s carbon sink: (Level – Difficult)
- India is committed to increase its carbon sink by 2.5-3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent by 2030, but it has not formally submitted to the UNFCCC the clarification that the baseline year for this would be 2005.
- India has committed to increase its carbon sink by 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of carbon dioxide equivalent by 2030 through the creation of additional forest and tree cover.
- As per the Forest Survey of India, India’s forests and tree cover had a carbon sink of 29.38 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent in 2015.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, India is committed to increasing its carbon sink by 2.5-3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent by 2030, but it has not formally submitted to the UNFCCC the clarification that the baseline year for this would be 2005.
- Statement 2 is correct, India has committed to creating an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent through additional forest and tree cover by 2030.
- Statement 3 is correct, As per the Forest Survey of India (FSI), the country’s forests and tree cover had a carbon sink of 29.38 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent in 2015.
- Further, this was projected to increase in a business-as-usual scenario i.e. without the intervention of any fresh effort to 31.87 billion tonnes in 2030.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, India is committed to increasing its carbon sink by 2.5-3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent by 2030, but it has not formally submitted to the UNFCCC the clarification that the baseline year for this would be 2005.
- Statement 2 is correct, India has committed to creating an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent through additional forest and tree cover by 2030.
- Statement 3 is correct, As per the Forest Survey of India (FSI), the country’s forests and tree cover had a carbon sink of 29.38 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent in 2015.
- Further, this was projected to increase in a business-as-usual scenario i.e. without the intervention of any fresh effort to 31.87 billion tonnes in 2030.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regard to the National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) Assessing System: (Level – Moderate)
- NAAC is an autonomous body under the University Grants Commission (UGC), that assesses and certifies Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) with gradings as part of accreditation.
- The ratings of institutions range from A++ to C. If an institution is graded D, it means it is not accredited.
- Only higher education institutions that are at least ten years old, or from where at least three batches of students have graduated, can apply.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, The National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) was established in 1994 as an autonomous institution of the University Grants Commission (UGC) which conducts assessment and accreditation of Higher Educational Institutions (HEI).
- Statement 2 is correct, The grades issued by NAAC range from A++ to C. If an institution is graded D, it means it is not accredited.
- Statement 3 is not correct, Higher Education Institutions (HEIs), with a record of at least two batches of students who graduated, or have been in existence for six years, whichever is earlier, are eligible to apply for the process of Assessment and Accreditation (A&A) of NAAC.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, The National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) was established in 1994 as an autonomous institution of the University Grants Commission (UGC) which conducts assessment and accreditation of Higher Educational Institutions (HEI).
- Statement 2 is correct, The grades issued by NAAC range from A++ to C. If an institution is graded D, it means it is not accredited.
- Statement 3 is not correct, Higher Education Institutions (HEIs), with a record of at least two batches of students who graduated, or have been in existence for six years, whichever is earlier, are eligible to apply for the process of Assessment and Accreditation (A&A) of NAAC.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Category: International RelationsConsider the following statements with regard to the Chabahar Port: (Level – Easy)
- The port of Chabahar is located in southeastern Iran in the Gulf of Oman.
- It is the only Iranian port with direct access to the ocean.
- It will make way for India to bypass Pakistan in transporting goods to Afghanistan using a sea-land route.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, Chabahar Port is located in Sistan and Baluchestan province in the Southeastern part of Iran, on the Gulf of Oman.
- Statement 2 is correct, Chabahar Port is the only Iranian port with direct access to the ocean.
- Statement 3 is correct, Chabahar Port provides India with better connectivity to Afghanistan bypassing Pakistan using a sea-land route.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, Chabahar Port is located in Sistan and Baluchestan province in the Southeastern part of Iran, on the Gulf of Oman.
- Statement 2 is correct, Chabahar Port is the only Iranian port with direct access to the ocean.
- Statement 3 is correct, Chabahar Port provides India with better connectivity to Afghanistan bypassing Pakistan using a sea-land route.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyBisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics? (Level – Difficult) [PYQ (2021)]
Correct
- Bisphenol A (BPA) is a chemical produced in large quantities for use primarily in the production of polycarbonate plastics.
- Bisphenol A (BPA) is found in various products such as shatterproof windows, eyewear, water bottles, and water supply pipes.
- Exposure to BPA is a concern because of the possible health effects on the brain and prostate gland of foetuses, infants and children.
- The primary source of exposure to BPA for most people is through diet while air, dust, and water are other possible sources of exposure.
Incorrect
- Bisphenol A (BPA) is a chemical produced in large quantities for use primarily in the production of polycarbonate plastics.
- Bisphenol A (BPA) is found in various products such as shatterproof windows, eyewear, water bottles, and water supply pipes.
- Exposure to BPA is a concern because of the possible health effects on the brain and prostate gland of foetuses, infants and children.
- The primary source of exposure to BPA for most people is through diet while air, dust, and water are other possible sources of exposure.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Category: HistoryWho among the following resigned from Imperial Legislative Council after the Rowlatt Act was passed? (Level – Moderate)
- Bhai Parmanand
- Madan Mohan Malviya
- Mazhar ul Haq
- Muhammad Ali Jinnah
- Syed Nabiullah
Options:
Correct
- Three of the legislative council members resigned in protest to the passage of the Rowlatt Act. They were Madan Mohan Malviya, Muhammad Ali Jinnah and Mazhar ul Haq.
Incorrect
- Three of the legislative council members resigned in protest to the passage of the Rowlatt Act. They were Madan Mohan Malviya, Muhammad Ali Jinnah and Mazhar ul Haq.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Category: Current AffairsConsider the following statements with respect to the National Platform for Disaster Risk Reduction (NPDRR): (Level – Difficult)
- NPDRR is a multi-stakeholder platform constituted by the Government of India to facilitate dialogue, sharing experiences, views, ideas, action-oriented research & explore opportunities in the area of Disaster Risk Reduction.
- NPDRR is chaired by the Minister of State in charge of Disaster Management, Secretary is the Vice Chairperson of NPDRR.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, NPDRR is a multi-stakeholder platform constituted by the Government of India to facilitate dialogue, sharing experiences, views, ideas, action-oriented research & explore opportunities in the area of Disaster Risk Reduction.
- Statement 2 is not correct, NPDRR is chaired by the Union Home Minister.
- The Minister of State in charge of Disaster Management in the Ministry of Home Affairs and Vice-Chairman of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) are the Vice Chairpersons of NPDRR.
- The other members of NPDRR include 15 Cabinet Ministers, Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog, Disaster Management Ministers of each State Government/UT, representatives of Local Self-Governments and Parliament, Heads of institutions of national importance, persons representing industry, media representatives, civil society organizations and international representatives.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, NPDRR is a multi-stakeholder platform constituted by the Government of India to facilitate dialogue, sharing experiences, views, ideas, action-oriented research & explore opportunities in the area of Disaster Risk Reduction.
- Statement 2 is not correct, NPDRR is chaired by the Union Home Minister.
- The Minister of State in charge of Disaster Management in the Ministry of Home Affairs and Vice-Chairman of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) are the Vice Chairpersons of NPDRR.
- The other members of NPDRR include 15 Cabinet Ministers, Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog, Disaster Management Ministers of each State Government/UT, representatives of Local Self-Governments and Parliament, Heads of institutions of national importance, persons representing industry, media representatives, civil society organizations and international representatives.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Category: SchemesWith respect to the Sagarmala programme, which of the following statements is/are correct? (Level – Moderate)
- The core vision of the Sagarmala programme is to reduce the logistics cost for EXIM and domestic trade with minimal infrastructure investment.
- It is the flagship programme of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
- To implement the Sagarmala project, state governments would set up state-level Sagarmala committees that would be headed by the chief minister.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, The main vision of the Sagarmala Programme is to reduce logistics costs for EXIM and domestic trade with minimal infrastructure investment.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The Sagarmala programme is the flagship programme of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways to promote port-led development in the country by harnessing India’s 7,500 km long coastline, 14,500 km of potentially navigable waterways and strategic location on key international maritime trade routes.
- Statement 3 is correct, To have effective mechanisms at the state level for coordinating and facilitating Sagarmala-related projects, the State Governments are suggested to set up a State Sagarmala Committee to be headed by the Chief Minister.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, The main vision of the Sagarmala Programme is to reduce logistics costs for EXIM and domestic trade with minimal infrastructure investment.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The Sagarmala programme is the flagship programme of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways to promote port-led development in the country by harnessing India’s 7,500 km long coastline, 14,500 km of potentially navigable waterways and strategic location on key international maritime trade routes.
- Statement 3 is correct, To have effective mechanisms at the state level for coordinating and facilitating Sagarmala-related projects, the State Governments are suggested to set up a State Sagarmala Committee to be headed by the Chief Minister.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Category: PolityWith respect to the Vice-President of India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (Level – Difficult)
- The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament, in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and the voting in such election is by open ballot.
- The oath of office to the Vice-President is administered by the Chief Justice of India.
- If the office of the Vice-President falls vacant by resignation, removal, death or otherwise, then an election to fill the vacancy should be held within six months from the date of the occurrence of such a vacancy.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament, in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and the voting in such election is by secret ballot.
- Statement 2 is not correct, the oath of office to the Vice President is administered by the President of India or some person appointed on his behalf.
- Statement 3 is not correct, The election to fill a vacancy in the office of Vice President occurring by reason of his death, resignation or removal, or otherwise shall be held as soon as possible after the occurrence of the vacancy.
- The person so elected is entitled to hold office for a full term of 5 years from the date he/she enters office.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament, in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and the voting in such election is by secret ballot.
- Statement 2 is not correct, the oath of office to the Vice President is administered by the President of India or some person appointed on his behalf.
- Statement 3 is not correct, The election to fill a vacancy in the office of Vice President occurring by reason of his death, resignation or removal, or otherwise shall be held as soon as possible after the occurrence of the vacancy.
- The person so elected is entitled to hold office for a full term of 5 years from the date he/she enters office.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Category: Defence & SecurityConsider the following statements: (Level – Easy) PYQ (2008)
- The Nuclear Suppliers Group has 24 countries as its members.
- India is a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, There are a total of 48 countries that are members of the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).
- Statement 2 is not correct, India is not a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) as China has constantly opposed India’s NSG membership mainly on the grounds that India is not a signatory to the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT).
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, There are a total of 48 countries that are members of the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).
- Statement 2 is not correct, India is not a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) as China has constantly opposed India’s NSG membership mainly on the grounds that India is not a signatory to the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT).
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Category: SchemesConsider the following statements with respect to Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN): (Level-Difficult)
- It is a 12-digit alpha-numeric number.
- The identification number is based on the latitude and longitude of the specific parcel of land and is relied on cadastral maps and surveys.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN) is a 14-digit – Alpha–numeric unique ID for each land parcel based on geo-coordinates of vertices of the parcel conceptualized in 2020-21.
- The identification will be based on the longitude and latitude coordinates of the land parcel, and is dependent on detailed surveys and geo-referenced cadastral maps.
- This is of international standard and complies with Electronic Commerce Code Management Association (ECCMA) standard and Open Geospatial Consortium (OGC) standard.
Incorrect
- Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN) is a 14-digit – Alpha–numeric unique ID for each land parcel based on geo-coordinates of vertices of the parcel conceptualized in 2020-21.
- The identification will be based on the longitude and latitude coordinates of the land parcel, and is dependent on detailed surveys and geo-referenced cadastral maps.
- This is of international standard and complies with Electronic Commerce Code Management Association (ECCMA) standard and Open Geospatial Consortium (OGC) standard.
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