UPSC 2022: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz May 07 – May 13 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from May 07 – May 13 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.
Post your scores in the comment section below!
UPSC 2022: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz May 07 - May 13
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UPSC 2022: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz May 07 – May 13
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Category: SchemesWhich of the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY) is/are correct?
- PMGKAY is a part of Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package (PMGKP) to help the poor fight the battle against Covid-19.
- The scheme is aimed at providing each household covered under the National Food Security Act with an additional 5 kg grains (wheat or rice) for free, in addition to the 5 kg of subsidised food grain already provided through the Public Distribution System (PDS).
- The central Govt. and the state Govts will share the burden of expenditure on account of intrastate transportation in the ratio of 90:10.
Select the correct option from below:
Correct
- Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY) is a part of Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package (PMGKP) to help the poor fight the battle against Covid-19.
- PMGKAY provides 5 kg of rice or wheat (according to regional dietary preferences) per person.
- The foodgrains will be allocated free-of-cost at 5 Kg per person per month to the beneficiaries covered under the National Food Security Act, 2013 (NFSA) over and above NFSA foodgrains.
- It is being operated by the Department of Food and Public Distribution under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
- The Government of India is bearing 100% financial burden.
Incorrect
- Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY) is a part of Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package (PMGKP) to help the poor fight the battle against Covid-19.
- PMGKAY provides 5 kg of rice or wheat (according to regional dietary preferences) per person.
- The foodgrains will be allocated free-of-cost at 5 Kg per person per month to the beneficiaries covered under the National Food Security Act, 2013 (NFSA) over and above NFSA foodgrains.
- It is being operated by the Department of Food and Public Distribution under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
- The Government of India is bearing 100% financial burden.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Category: Art and CultureConsider the following statements regarding Tanjore paintings:
- They are painted mostly on cloth and vellum.
- They depict a liberal use of golden leaf.
- Lord Krishna and his life is a major theme of these paintings.
Select the correct answer using the options given below:
Correct
- Tanjore painting is popularly known as ‘palagaipadam’ which means picture on a wooden plank as most of these pictures are etched on solid wood boards.
- They depict a liberal use of golden leaf.
- Lord Krishna and his life is a major theme of these paintings.
Incorrect
- Tanjore painting is popularly known as ‘palagaipadam’ which means picture on a wooden plank as most of these pictures are etched on solid wood boards.
- They depict a liberal use of golden leaf.
- Lord Krishna and his life is a major theme of these paintings.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Category: PolityWhich of the following is part of the ‘Charter of Duties’ of the Indian Coast Guard?
- Safety and Protection of Artificial Islands and Offshore Terminals
- Protection of Fishermen
- Assistance to Fishermen in Distress at Sea
- Preservation and Protection of Marine Environment
- Prevention and Control of Marine Pollution
Select the correct option from below:
Correct
‘Charter of Duties’ of the Indian Coast Guard includes:
- Safety and Protection of Artificial Islands and Offshore Terminals
- Protection of Fishermen
- Assistance to Fishermen in Distress at Sea
- Preservation and Protection of Marine Environment
- Prevention and Control of Marine Pollution
- Assisting the Customs and other authorities in anti-smuggling operations
- Enforcement of Maritime Laws in Force
- Safety of Life and Property at Sea
- Collection of Scientific Data
Incorrect
‘Charter of Duties’ of the Indian Coast Guard includes:
- Safety and Protection of Artificial Islands and Offshore Terminals
- Protection of Fishermen
- Assistance to Fishermen in Distress at Sea
- Preservation and Protection of Marine Environment
- Prevention and Control of Marine Pollution
- Assisting the Customs and other authorities in anti-smuggling operations
- Enforcement of Maritime Laws in Force
- Safety of Life and Property at Sea
- Collection of Scientific Data
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Category: SchemesConsider the following statements:
- Jal Jeevan Mission is being implemented in partnership with States/UTs to provide safe tap water to every rural home by 2034.
- Puducherry has become India’s first ‘Har Ghar Jal’ UT by ensuring that every rural home in the Union Territory gets a household tap connection.
- For Jal Jeevan Mission there is assured fund available under the 15th Finance Commission tied-grant to RLB/PRIs for water & sanitation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Jal Jeevan Mission is being implemented in partnership with States/UTs to provide safe tap water to every rural home by 2024.
- JJM is implemented to enable every rural home in the villages to have Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) by 2024.
- Andaman and Nicobar became India’s first ‘Har Ghar Jal’ UT by ensuring that every rural home in the Union Territory gets a household tap connection.
- Puducherry is the fourth state/UT after Goa, Telangana, Adaman and Nicobar Inslands to provide assured tap water supply to every rural home under the Union Government’s Jal Jeevan Mission.
- For Jal Jeevan Mission there is assured fund available under the 15th Finance Commission tied-grant to Rural Local bodies /Panchayati Raj Institutions for water & sanitation.
Incorrect
- Jal Jeevan Mission is being implemented in partnership with States/UTs to provide safe tap water to every rural home by 2024.
- JJM is implemented to enable every rural home in the villages to have Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) by 2024.
- Andaman and Nicobar became India’s first ‘Har Ghar Jal’ UT by ensuring that every rural home in the Union Territory gets a household tap connection.
- Puducherry is the fourth state/UT after Goa, Telangana, Adaman and Nicobar Inslands to provide assured tap water supply to every rural home under the Union Government’s Jal Jeevan Mission.
- For Jal Jeevan Mission there is assured fund available under the 15th Finance Commission tied-grant to Rural Local bodies /Panchayati Raj Institutions for water & sanitation.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyWhat is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems?(UPSC 2012)
- It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms in water.
- It removes all the undesirable odours from the water.
- It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Ultraviolet water purification is the most effective method for disinfecting bacteria from the water. Ultraviolet (UV) rays penetrate harmful pathogens in the water and destroy illness-causing microorganisms by attacking their genetic core (DNA).
- It does not remove undesirable odour from the water.
- It does not play any role in the sedimentation of solid particles and does not remove turbidity.
Incorrect
- Ultraviolet water purification is the most effective method for disinfecting bacteria from the water. Ultraviolet (UV) rays penetrate harmful pathogens in the water and destroy illness-causing microorganisms by attacking their genetic core (DNA).
- It does not remove undesirable odour from the water.
- It does not play any role in the sedimentation of solid particles and does not remove turbidity.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements: (UPSC 2018)
- In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
- In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969.
- In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of Opposition.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Communist Party of India.
- In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969.
- The leader of the largest Opposition party having not less than one-tenth seats of the total strength of the House is recognized as the leader of the Opposition in that House. In case of Lok Sabha, it is one tenth of 545 seats.
Incorrect
- In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Communist Party of India.
- In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969.
- The leader of the largest Opposition party having not less than one-tenth seats of the total strength of the House is recognized as the leader of the Opposition in that House. In case of Lok Sabha, it is one tenth of 545 seats.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Category: Current AffairsWhat are S&P, Moody’s and Fitch, which are often seen in the news and referred to as the ‘Big Three’?
Correct
- S&P, Moody’s and Fitch are referred to as the ‘Big three Credit rating agencies’.
- A credit rating agency assigns credit ratings that rate a debtor’s ability to pay back debt by making timely principal and interest payments as well as the likelihood of default.
- An agency may rate the creditworthiness of issuers of debt obligations, of debt instruments, and in some cases, of the servicers of the underlying debt, but not of individual consumers.
Incorrect
- S&P, Moody’s and Fitch are referred to as the ‘Big three Credit rating agencies’.
- A credit rating agency assigns credit ratings that rate a debtor’s ability to pay back debt by making timely principal and interest payments as well as the likelihood of default.
- An agency may rate the creditworthiness of issuers of debt obligations, of debt instruments, and in some cases, of the servicers of the underlying debt, but not of individual consumers.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Category: GeographyWhich of the following statements is/are correct?
- Cyclonic activity is comparatively less intense in the Arabian Sea, as compared to the Bay of Bengal.
- Arabian Sea cyclones are also relatively weak compared to those emerging in the Bay of Bengal.
- But the number of cyclones that form in the Arabian Sea in a year is roughly the same as the number of cyclones that form in the Bay of Bengal.
Options:-
Correct
- While cyclonic activity is comparatively less intense in the Arabian Sea, high-intensity severe cyclones originate frequently in the Bay of Bengal.
- Arabian Sea cyclones are also relatively weak compared to those emerging in the Bay of Bengal.
- Bay of Bengal witnesses more cyclones in a given year as compared to the Arabian Sea. This is because:
- The Bay of Bengal is warmer than the Arabian Sea, it is able to provide the heat energy needed to sustain the low-pressure system.
- The Bay of Bengal receives higher rainfall and a constant inflow of fresh water from the Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers. This means that the Bay’s surface water keeps getting refreshed, making it impossible for the warm water to mix with the cooler water below, making it ideal for depression.
- The absence of a large landmass between the Pacific and the Bay, allows cyclonic winds to easily move into the Bay of Bengal.
- Low-pressure system originating from the Pacific Ocean also travel towards the left to the Bay of Bengal.
Incorrect
- While cyclonic activity is comparatively less intense in the Arabian Sea, high-intensity severe cyclones originate frequently in the Bay of Bengal.
- Arabian Sea cyclones are also relatively weak compared to those emerging in the Bay of Bengal.
- Bay of Bengal witnesses more cyclones in a given year as compared to the Arabian Sea. This is because:
- The Bay of Bengal is warmer than the Arabian Sea, it is able to provide the heat energy needed to sustain the low-pressure system.
- The Bay of Bengal receives higher rainfall and a constant inflow of fresh water from the Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers. This means that the Bay’s surface water keeps getting refreshed, making it impossible for the warm water to mix with the cooler water below, making it ideal for depression.
- The absence of a large landmass between the Pacific and the Bay, allows cyclonic winds to easily move into the Bay of Bengal.
- Low-pressure system originating from the Pacific Ocean also travel towards the left to the Bay of Bengal.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Category: G KWhich of the following statements is/are correct?
- Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) is an autonomous and statutory body mandated to monitor and regulate in-country and inter-country adoptions.
- CARA is responsible for granting a ‘no objection’ certificate for all inter-country adoptions, pursuant to India becoming a signatory to the 1993 Hague Convention on Protection of Children and Cooperation in Respect of Inter-country Adoptions.
- India is also a signatory to the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.
Options:-
Correct
All the statements are correct.
- Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) is an autonomous and statutory body mandated to monitor and regulate in-country and inter-country adoptions.
- It is responsible for granting a ‘no objection’ certificate for all inter-country adoptions, pursuant to India becoming a signatory to the 1993 Hague Convention on Protection of Children and Cooperation in Respect of Inter-country Adoptions.
- India is a signatory to the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.
Incorrect
All the statements are correct.
- Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) is an autonomous and statutory body mandated to monitor and regulate in-country and inter-country adoptions.
- It is responsible for granting a ‘no objection’ certificate for all inter-country adoptions, pursuant to India becoming a signatory to the 1993 Hague Convention on Protection of Children and Cooperation in Respect of Inter-country Adoptions.
- India is a signatory to the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Category: GeographyWhich of the following are located to the west and east of the Strait of Hormuz respectively?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Category: International RelationsWhich of the following countries are members of the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC)?
- Saudi Arabia
- Pakistan
- India
- Turkey
Options:-
Correct
The Organisation of Islamic Cooperation founded in 1969 has 57 members, with 42 countries being Muslim majority countries. India is not a member of OIC.
Incorrect
The Organisation of Islamic Cooperation founded in 1969 has 57 members, with 42 countries being Muslim majority countries. India is not a member of OIC.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Category: International RelationsConsider the following statements: (UPSC 2016)
The India-Africa Summit
- held in 2015 was the third such Summit.
- was actually initiated by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1951.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- India-Africa summits started in 2008 with New Delhi as its first venue. It is the key diplomatic initiative of India to reach out to the African countries, especially the members of the African Union.
- Since then, it was decided to hold these summits every three years, alternately in India and Africa.
- The second summit was held in Addis Ababa in 2011.
- The third summit, scheduled to be held in 2014, was postponed because of the Ebola outbreak and took place in October 2015.
Incorrect
- India-Africa summits started in 2008 with New Delhi as its first venue. It is the key diplomatic initiative of India to reach out to the African countries, especially the members of the African Union.
- Since then, it was decided to hold these summits every three years, alternately in India and Africa.
- The second summit was held in Addis Ababa in 2011.
- The third summit, scheduled to be held in 2014, was postponed because of the Ebola outbreak and took place in October 2015.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Category: HistoryThe Bolshevik Party and its revolution was concerned with which country?
Correct
In 1917, leftist revolutionaries led by Bolshevik Party leader Vladimir Lenin launched a nearly bloodless coup against the Duma’s provisional government and seized power. This is referred to as the October Revolution of Russia or the Bolshevik Revolution.
Incorrect
In 1917, leftist revolutionaries led by Bolshevik Party leader Vladimir Lenin launched a nearly bloodless coup against the Duma’s provisional government and seized power. This is referred to as the October Revolution of Russia or the Bolshevik Revolution.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Category: Current AffairsWhich states/UTs are involved in the Cauvery river dispute?
- Karnataka
- Tamil Nadu
- Kerala
- Puducherry
- Andhra Pradesh
Options:
Correct
The Cauvery river basin is spread across Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Puducherry.
Incorrect
The Cauvery river basin is spread across Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Puducherry.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Category: Current AffairsWhat is Iron Dome of Israel?
Correct
- Iron Dome is a mobile all-weather air defense system developed by Rafael Advanced Defense Systems and Israel Aerospace Industries. The system is designed to intercept and destroy short-range rockets and artillery shells.
Incorrect
- Iron Dome is a mobile all-weather air defense system developed by Rafael Advanced Defense Systems and Israel Aerospace Industries. The system is designed to intercept and destroy short-range rockets and artillery shells.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Category: EconomyWhich of the following statement/s is/are correct?
- The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is compiled and published monthly by the National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
- Index of Industrial Production (IIP) represents the status of production in the industrial sector for a given period of time as compared to a reference period of time.
Correct
- The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is a composite indicator that measures the short-term changes in the volume of production of a basket of industrial products during a given period with respect to that in a chosen base period. It shows the growth rates in different industry groups of the economy in a stipulated period of time.
- The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is compiled and published monthly by the National Statistical Office (NSO) (formerly known as Central Statistical Organization) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
Incorrect
- The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is a composite indicator that measures the short-term changes in the volume of production of a basket of industrial products during a given period with respect to that in a chosen base period. It shows the growth rates in different industry groups of the economy in a stipulated period of time.
- The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is compiled and published monthly by the National Statistical Office (NSO) (formerly known as Central Statistical Organization) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyThe terms ‘Event Horizon’, ‘Singularity’, ‘String Theory’ and ‘Standard Model’ are sometimes seen in the news in the context of –
Correct
- Event horizon, boundary marking the limits of a black hole. At the event horizon, the escape velocity is equal to the speed of light. Since general relativity states that nothing can travel faster than the speed of light, nothing inside the event horizon can ever cross the boundary and escape beyond it, including light. Thus, nothing that enters a black hole can get out or can be observed from outside the event horizon.
- A gravitational singularity, spacetime singularity or simply singularity is a location in spacetime where the density and gravitational field of a celestial body is predicted to become infinite by general relativity.
- In physics, string theory is a theoretical framework in which the point-like particles of particle physics are replaced by one-dimensional objects called strings. String theory describes how these strings propagate through space and interact with each other.
Incorrect
- Event horizon, boundary marking the limits of a black hole. At the event horizon, the escape velocity is equal to the speed of light. Since general relativity states that nothing can travel faster than the speed of light, nothing inside the event horizon can ever cross the boundary and escape beyond it, including light. Thus, nothing that enters a black hole can get out or can be observed from outside the event horizon.
- A gravitational singularity, spacetime singularity or simply singularity is a location in spacetime where the density and gravitational field of a celestial body is predicted to become infinite by general relativity.
- In physics, string theory is a theoretical framework in which the point-like particles of particle physics are replaced by one-dimensional objects called strings. String theory describes how these strings propagate through space and interact with each other.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Category: SchemesWhich of the following statements is/are correct?
- The National Health Mission (NHM) is an exclusive healthcare programme for rural areas.
- States have no role in its implementation, it is entirely executed by the Centre.
Options:
Correct
- The National Health Mission (NHM) launched in 2013 encompasses its two Sub-Missions, the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) and the National Urban Health Mission (NUHM).
- It is the flagship healthcare programme for both the rural as well as urban areas.
- Both the Centre and states play a key role in the implementation of the scheme.
- The funding for NHM is in the sharing pattern of 60:40 between Centre and State for most of the states and 90:10 is some special cases.
Incorrect
- The National Health Mission (NHM) launched in 2013 encompasses its two Sub-Missions, the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) and the National Urban Health Mission (NUHM).
- It is the flagship healthcare programme for both the rural as well as urban areas.
- Both the Centre and states play a key role in the implementation of the scheme.
- The funding for NHM is in the sharing pattern of 60:40 between Centre and State for most of the states and 90:10 is some special cases.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Category: HealthWhich of the following statements is/are correct?
- Mucormycosis is a fungal infection caused by a group of moulds called mucormycetes.
- Poor immunity, uncontrolled diabetes, steroid treatment are considered to be risk factors.
- It is commonly referred to as Black Fungus and has been reported in patients recovering from COVID-19.
Options:
Correct
All the statements are correct.
- Mucormycosis is a fungal infection caused by a group of moulds called mucormycetes.
- Major risk factors are poor immunity, uncontrolled diabetes, steroid treatment.
- Mucormycosis is commonly referred to as Black Fungus and has been reported in patients recovering from COVID-19.
Read more on Mucormycosis.
Incorrect
All the statements are correct.
- Mucormycosis is a fungal infection caused by a group of moulds called mucormycetes.
- Major risk factors are poor immunity, uncontrolled diabetes, steroid treatment.
- Mucormycosis is commonly referred to as Black Fungus and has been reported in patients recovering from COVID-19.
Read more on Mucormycosis.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Category: HistoryWho was referred to as ‘Deenabandhu’ for his contributions to the Indian independence movement?
Correct
- Charles Freer Andrews was an Anglican priest and Christian missionary, educator and social reformer, and activist for Indian independence.
- He became a close friend of Rabindranath Tagore and Mahatma Gandhi.
- He was instrumental in convincing Gandhi to return to India from South Africa.
- CF Andrews is known for his work in uplifting the poor and hence was given the name “Deenabandhu” by Mahatma Gandhi.
Incorrect
- Charles Freer Andrews was an Anglican priest and Christian missionary, educator and social reformer, and activist for Indian independence.
- He became a close friend of Rabindranath Tagore and Mahatma Gandhi.
- He was instrumental in convincing Gandhi to return to India from South Africa.
- CF Andrews is known for his work in uplifting the poor and hence was given the name “Deenabandhu” by Mahatma Gandhi.
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Category: PolityWhat is the purpose of the National Register of Citizens (NRC)?
Correct
- The main purpose of the National Register of Citizens is the identification of illegal immigrants.
- The objective of the introduction and updating of the NRC in Assam was the identification of the illegal immigrants in Assam who had migrated to Assam from Bangladesh during the 1971 war with Pakistan.
Incorrect
- The main purpose of the National Register of Citizens is the identification of illegal immigrants.
- The objective of the introduction and updating of the NRC in Assam was the identification of the illegal immigrants in Assam who had migrated to Assam from Bangladesh during the 1971 war with Pakistan.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Category: EconomyConsider the following statements: (UPSC 2019)
- Most of India’s external debt is owed by governmental entities.
- All of India’s external debt is denominated in US dollars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- According to the data by the Ministry of Finance, External Commercial Borrowings by private entities is far higher than governmental debt. Hence, most of India’s external debt is not owed by governmental entities.
- India’s external debt is denominated in US Dollars, Euro, Special Drawing Rights of the International Monetary Fund, etc.
Incorrect
- According to the data by the Ministry of Finance, External Commercial Borrowings by private entities is far higher than governmental debt. Hence, most of India’s external debt is not owed by governmental entities.
- India’s external debt is denominated in US Dollars, Euro, Special Drawing Rights of the International Monetary Fund, etc.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Category: SchemesWhich of the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) Yojana is/are correct?
- It is a 100 per cent centrally funded scheme under which Rs 6,000 is transferred in three equal installments to eligible farmer families in a year.
- The responsibility of identifying the landholder farmer family eligible for benefit under the Scheme and uploading the data of the eligible beneficiaries on the PM-KISAN Portal is that of the States/UT Administrations.
- Under the Scheme, the States/UTs are required to set up Grievance Redressal Committees for looking into the grievances related to the implementation of the scheme.
- Data of grievances received/disposed of by the states is maintained centrally.
Options:
Correct
- Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) is a 100 per cent centrally funded scheme under which Rs 6,000 is transferred in three equal installments to eligible farmer families in a year.
- The responsibility of identifying the landholder farmer family eligible for benefit under the Scheme and uploading the data of the eligible beneficiaries on the PM-KISAN Portal is that of the States/UT Administrations.
- Under the Scheme, the States/UTs are required to set up Grievance Redressal Committees for looking into the grievances related to the implementation of the scheme. No data of grievances received/disposed of by them is, however, maintained centrally. It is maintained at the state level.
Incorrect
- Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) is a 100 per cent centrally funded scheme under which Rs 6,000 is transferred in three equal installments to eligible farmer families in a year.
- The responsibility of identifying the landholder farmer family eligible for benefit under the Scheme and uploading the data of the eligible beneficiaries on the PM-KISAN Portal is that of the States/UT Administrations.
- Under the Scheme, the States/UTs are required to set up Grievance Redressal Committees for looking into the grievances related to the implementation of the scheme. No data of grievances received/disposed of by them is, however, maintained centrally. It is maintained at the state level.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following can be considered competitive advantages of the red-eared slider over the native turtle species?
- lower age at maturity
- higher fecundity
- larger adult body size
Select the correct option from below:
Correct
- The red-eared slider is included in the list of the world’s 100 most invasive species published by the International Union for the Conservation of Nature.
- They have become an invasive species in many areas where they outcompete native species.
- They mature at an early age as compared to other native turtle species.
- They have higher fecundity i.e ability to reproduce abundantly.
- They have a large adult body size thereby competing with the native turtle species for food and resources.
Incorrect
- The red-eared slider is included in the list of the world’s 100 most invasive species published by the International Union for the Conservation of Nature.
- They have become an invasive species in many areas where they outcompete native species.
- They mature at an early age as compared to other native turtle species.
- They have higher fecundity i.e ability to reproduce abundantly.
- They have a large adult body size thereby competing with the native turtle species for food and resources.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements:
- The red-eared slider is traded illegally in India.
- Continuous releasing of exotic pet turtles in natural ecosystems increases the risk of parasite transmission to native species.
- Because of their omnivorous diet and ability to adapt to various habitats, the red-eared slider has a great potential for impacting indigenous habitats.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- The trading of the red-eared slider is legal in India. They are popular as pets.
- Continuous releasing of exotic pet turtles in natural ecosystems increases the risk of parasite transmission to native species.
- The red-eared sliders found in the natural water bodies grow fast, virtually leaving nothing for the native species to eat.
- Because of their omnivorous diet and ability to adapt to various habitats, the red-eared slider has a great potential for impacting indigenous habitats.
Incorrect
- The trading of the red-eared slider is legal in India. They are popular as pets.
- Continuous releasing of exotic pet turtles in natural ecosystems increases the risk of parasite transmission to native species.
- The red-eared sliders found in the natural water bodies grow fast, virtually leaving nothing for the native species to eat.
- Because of their omnivorous diet and ability to adapt to various habitats, the red-eared slider has a great potential for impacting indigenous habitats.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following:
- African Forest Elephant
- African Savanna Elephant
- Asian Elephant
Which of the above has/have been categorised as critically endangered by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)?
Correct
- African Forest Elephant is categorised as critically endangered by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
- African Savanna Elephant and Asian Elephant have been categorised as endangered by the IUCN.
Incorrect
- African Forest Elephant is categorised as critically endangered by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
- African Savanna Elephant and Asian Elephant have been categorised as endangered by the IUCN.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Category: PolityIn India, if a religious sect/community is given “the status of a national minority”, what special advantages it is entitled to? (UPSC 2011)
- It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.
- The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha.
- It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
In India, if a religious sect/community is given “the status of a national minority’’:
- Under Article 30, it can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.
- It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme, a program launched by the government for the welfare of minority community in 2006.
- There is no communal electoral system in India that allows the President of India to automatically nominate a representative of the community to Lok Sabha based on religion, sect or community.
Incorrect
In India, if a religious sect/community is given “the status of a national minority’’:
- Under Article 30, it can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.
- It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme, a program launched by the government for the welfare of minority community in 2006.
- There is no communal electoral system in India that allows the President of India to automatically nominate a representative of the community to Lok Sabha based on religion, sect or community.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statements regarding Zeolites is/are correct?
- Zeolites do not occur naturally but are produced industrially on a large scale.
- Zeolites are used as molecular sieves to create purified oxygen from air using its ability to trap impurities.
- Zeolites are reusable
Options:
Correct
- Zeolites are crystalline solids structures made of silicon, aluminum and oxygen that form a framework with cavities and channels inside them. Zeolites are basically microporous, aluminosilicate minerals commonly used as commercial adsorbents and catalysts.
- They are often also referred to as molecular sieves.
- Zeolites occur naturally and are also produced industrially on a large scale. Conventional open-pit mining techniques are used to mine natural zeolites.
- The oxygen concentrator compresses air and passes it over zeolite, causing the zeolite to adsorb the nitrogen from the air. It then collects the remaining gas, which is mostly oxygen, and the nitrogen desorbs from the zeolite under the reduced pressure to be vented. Hence it is reusable.
Incorrect
- Zeolites are crystalline solids structures made of silicon, aluminum and oxygen that form a framework with cavities and channels inside them. Zeolites are basically microporous, aluminosilicate minerals commonly used as commercial adsorbents and catalysts.
- They are often also referred to as molecular sieves.
- Zeolites occur naturally and are also produced industrially on a large scale. Conventional open-pit mining techniques are used to mine natural zeolites.
- The oxygen concentrator compresses air and passes it over zeolite, causing the zeolite to adsorb the nitrogen from the air. It then collects the remaining gas, which is mostly oxygen, and the nitrogen desorbs from the zeolite under the reduced pressure to be vented. Hence it is reusable.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyZeolites are used in the following:
- Water softeners
- Water filters
- Odor control
- Pet litter
Select the correct option from below:
Correct
- Oxygen concentrators use zeolites in conjunction with pressure swing adsorption to remove nitrogen from compressed air to supply oxygen for aircrews at high altitudes, as well as home and portable oxygen supplies.
- Zeolites are widely used as ion-exchange beds in domestic and commercial water purification, softening, and other applications.
- Zeolites are used to adsorb a variety of materials. This includes applications in drying, purification, and separation.
- Zeolite controls odors by absorbing moisture from waste and adsorbing the ammonia produced by microbial activity on the liquids
- Zeolites also absorb up to 50 percent of their weight in liquids without expansion, and individual wet grains bind into clumps. Because of these characteristics, zeolite is added to many bentonite and non-bentonite litters to provide additional odor and moisture control.
Incorrect
- Oxygen concentrators use zeolites in conjunction with pressure swing adsorption to remove nitrogen from compressed air to supply oxygen for aircrews at high altitudes, as well as home and portable oxygen supplies.
- Zeolites are widely used as ion-exchange beds in domestic and commercial water purification, softening, and other applications.
- Zeolites are used to adsorb a variety of materials. This includes applications in drying, purification, and separation.
- Zeolite controls odors by absorbing moisture from waste and adsorbing the ammonia produced by microbial activity on the liquids
- Zeolites also absorb up to 50 percent of their weight in liquids without expansion, and individual wet grains bind into clumps. Because of these characteristics, zeolite is added to many bentonite and non-bentonite litters to provide additional odor and moisture control.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements:
- China is the fifth country to perform a successful soft landing successfully on Mars.
- China’s Tianhe Rover landed on the Moon in its first attempt.
- India’s Mangalyaan, launched in 2013, landed on the surface of Mars in its first attempt.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
- China landed a spacecraft on Mars carrying its first Mars rover.
- China has previously launched its first Mars mission, called Tianwen-1, carrying a lander and rover. Tianwen-1 had been in orbit and recently a lander descended successfully onto the surface of the red planet carrying a rover named Zhurong.
- This makes China the third country to achieve this feat. Only the Soviet Union and the U.S. had previously carried out a successful landing on Mars.
- China had previously tried to launch a Mars orbiter along with Russia in 2011, but that failed to enter orbit.
- China’s first space station called the Tianhe is set to be functional by the end of next year and only the second space station after the International Space Station.
- India’s 2013, Mangalyaan mission involved only an orbiter and did not involve a rover.
Incorrect
- China landed a spacecraft on Mars carrying its first Mars rover.
- China has previously launched its first Mars mission, called Tianwen-1, carrying a lander and rover. Tianwen-1 had been in orbit and recently a lander descended successfully onto the surface of the red planet carrying a rover named Zhurong.
- This makes China the third country to achieve this feat. Only the Soviet Union and the U.S. had previously carried out a successful landing on Mars.
- China had previously tried to launch a Mars orbiter along with Russia in 2011, but that failed to enter orbit.
- China’s first space station called the Tianhe is set to be functional by the end of next year and only the second space station after the International Space Station.
- India’s 2013, Mangalyaan mission involved only an orbiter and did not involve a rover.
Results
20 of 27 questions answered correctly
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Results
20 of 30 questions answered correctly
Your time: 00:05:44