UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Nov 05 – Nov 11 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from Nov 05 – Nov 11 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.
Post your scores in the comment section below!
Quiz-summary
0 of 30 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
Information
UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Nov 05 – Nov 11
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 30 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Average score |
|
Your score |
|
Categories
- Agriculture 0%
- Current Affairs 0%
- Economy 0%
- Environment and Ecology 0%
- Geography 0%
- History 0%
- International Relations 0%
- Polity 0%
- Schemes 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Category: HistoryRegarding the taxation system of Krishna deva, the ruler of Vijaynagar, consider the following statement (UPSC-2016)
- The tax rate on land was fixed depending on the quality of the land
- Private owners of workshops paid an industries tax
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Land revenue was the chief source of income during the Vijaynagar kingdom period. Land was divided into four categories for purposes of assessment, wet land, dry land, orchards and woods. The rates varied according to the type of the crops, soil, method of irrigation etc.
- Besides land tax, many professional taxes were also imposed. They were on shopkeepers, farm servants, workmen etc. Private owners of workshops paid an industries tax. Commercial taxes consisted of levies, duties and customs on manufactured articles of trade were also levied.
Incorrect
- Land revenue was the chief source of income during the Vijaynagar kingdom period. Land was divided into four categories for purposes of assessment, wet land, dry land, orchards and woods. The rates varied according to the type of the crops, soil, method of irrigation etc.
- Besides land tax, many professional taxes were also imposed. They were on shopkeepers, farm servants, workmen etc. Private owners of workshops paid an industries tax. Commercial taxes consisted of levies, duties and customs on manufactured articles of trade were also levied.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements:
- Article 17 is an Absolute Right.
- Primary responsibility for the prevention of atrocities against SC/ST under Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, rests with the Central Government.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Absolute right is a right that has no exceptions in its applicability.
- Article 17 of the Indian Constitution abolishes the practice of untouchability. This is an absolute right and it has no exceptions or relaxations against it.
- Primary responsibility for the prevention of atrocities against SC/ST under Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, rests with the State Government.
Incorrect
- Absolute right is a right that has no exceptions in its applicability.
- Article 17 of the Indian Constitution abolishes the practice of untouchability. This is an absolute right and it has no exceptions or relaxations against it.
- Primary responsibility for the prevention of atrocities against SC/ST under Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, rests with the State Government.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Category: HistoryWith respect to Sir Syed Ahmad Khan, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- He is the founder of the Aligarh Muslim University (AMU).
- He was awarded the Kaisar-i-Hind for his contribution to Indian education.
- He was critical of the Indian National Congress ever since its formation.
Options:
Correct
- Sir Syed Ahmad Khan is the founder of the Aligarh Muslim University (AMU).
- AMU was originally established by Sir Syed Ahmad Khan as the Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College in 1875.
- In 1869, Sir Syed Ahmad Khan received the Order of the Star of India from the British government.
- He opposed the Indian National Congress since its formation as he believed that it was established to cater to the needs of the majority community (i.e, Hindus).
Incorrect
- Sir Syed Ahmad Khan is the founder of the Aligarh Muslim University (AMU).
- AMU was originally established by Sir Syed Ahmad Khan as the Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College in 1875.
- In 1869, Sir Syed Ahmad Khan received the Order of the Star of India from the British government.
- He opposed the Indian National Congress since its formation as he believed that it was established to cater to the needs of the majority community (i.e, Hindus).
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Category: EconomyWhich of the following statements is/are correct?
- Unorganised workers are essentially those who do not have the benefit of pension, provident fund, gratuity, maternity leave etc. and work mostly on daily/hourly wages.
- The unorganized workers do not receive sufficient attention from the trade unions.
Options:
Correct
- Unorganised workers are those who do not have the benefit of pension, provident fund, gratuity, maternity leave, etc. and work mostly on daily/hourly wages.
- The unorganized workers do not receive sufficient attention from the trade unions.
Incorrect
- Unorganised workers are those who do not have the benefit of pension, provident fund, gratuity, maternity leave, etc. and work mostly on daily/hourly wages.
- The unorganized workers do not receive sufficient attention from the trade unions.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Category: GeographyMarib, recently seen in the news, is in which country?
Correct
Marib is a city in Yemen. The Saudi-led military coalition supporting Yemen’s government has said that it has killed hundreds of Houthi rebels in strikes south of Marib.
Incorrect
Marib is a city in Yemen. The Saudi-led military coalition supporting Yemen’s government has said that it has killed hundreds of Houthi rebels in strikes south of Marib.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Category: EconomyConsider the following statements: [UPSC 2016]
- New Development Bank has been set up by APEC.
- The headquarters of New Development Bank is in Shanghai.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- The New Development Bank (NDB), formerly referred to as the BRICS Development Bank, is a multilateral development bank established by the BRICS states (Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa).
- The headquarters of New Development Bank is in Shanghai.
Incorrect
- The New Development Bank (NDB), formerly referred to as the BRICS Development Bank, is a multilateral development bank established by the BRICS states (Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa).
- The headquarters of New Development Bank is in Shanghai.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements with respect to the polar bear:
- It is a hypercarnivore animal.
- Its IUCN status is ‘Vulnerable’.
- Polar bears do not feed on penguins because they have a symbiotic relationship.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- A hypercarnivore is an animal whose nutritional requirements are found only in animal meat. Moreover, these organisms might be able to ingest plant matter but they do not have the physiological mechanisms that are required to effectively digest it.
- The polar bear is a hypercarnivore animal.
- Polar Bear (Urus maritimus) is classified as “Vulnerable” in the IUCN Red List.
- Polar bears do not eat penguins as penguins do not make up the ecosystem of the Arctic.
- Yet another reason as to why polar bears would not have preferred to prey on penguins is that birds such as this cannot provide sufficient protein for the bears to survive the frigid Arctic weather.
Incorrect
- A hypercarnivore is an animal whose nutritional requirements are found only in animal meat. Moreover, these organisms might be able to ingest plant matter but they do not have the physiological mechanisms that are required to effectively digest it.
- The polar bear is a hypercarnivore animal.
- Polar Bear (Urus maritimus) is classified as “Vulnerable” in the IUCN Red List.
- Polar bears do not eat penguins as penguins do not make up the ecosystem of the Arctic.
- Yet another reason as to why polar bears would not have preferred to prey on penguins is that birds such as this cannot provide sufficient protein for the bears to survive the frigid Arctic weather.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Category: PolityWith respect to the Governor of a State, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- The appointment of State Governors by the Centre is a feature borrowed from the Government of India Act of 1935.
- The appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more States was introduced under the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956.
Options:
Correct
- The appointment of State Governors by the Centre is a feature borrowed from the Canadian Constitution.
- The 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 promoted the appointment of the same person as a governor for two or more states.
Read more on Sources of Indian Constitution – Borrowed Features of Indian Constitution.
Incorrect
- The appointment of State Governors by the Centre is a feature borrowed from the Canadian Constitution.
- The 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 promoted the appointment of the same person as a governor for two or more states.
Read more on Sources of Indian Constitution – Borrowed Features of Indian Constitution.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Category: PolityWhich of the following statements is/are correct?
- Cabinet Committees find a mention in the Constitution under Article 77.
- Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) is composed of the Prime Minister of India and the Minister of Home Affairs.
Options:
Correct
- Cabinet Committees are extra-constitutional in emergence, which means, they are not mentioned in the Indian Constitution. But, the Rules of Business provide for their formation.
- Cabinet Committees are not mentioned in the Constitution but are still constituted by governments.
- They are established by the PM as per the exigencies of the time and needs of the situation. Hence, their number, nomenclature, and composition vary from time to time.
- Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) is composed of the Prime Minister of India and the Minister of Home Affairs.
Incorrect
- Cabinet Committees are extra-constitutional in emergence, which means, they are not mentioned in the Indian Constitution. But, the Rules of Business provide for their formation.
- Cabinet Committees are not mentioned in the Constitution but are still constituted by governments.
- They are established by the PM as per the exigencies of the time and needs of the situation. Hence, their number, nomenclature, and composition vary from time to time.
- Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) is composed of the Prime Minister of India and the Minister of Home Affairs.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Category: GeographyConsider the following statements:
- The retreating southwest monsoon season is marked by clear skies and a rise in temperature.
- The weather in the retreating monsoon is dry in north India but it is associated with rain in the eastern part of the Peninsula.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Retreating monsoon season commences with the beginning of the withdrawal of the southwest monsoon.
- The retreating southwest monsoon season is marked by clear skies and a rise in temperature.
- The weather in the retreating monsoon is dry in north India but it is associated with rain in the eastern part of the Peninsula.
Incorrect
- Retreating monsoon season commences with the beginning of the withdrawal of the southwest monsoon.
- The retreating southwest monsoon season is marked by clear skies and a rise in temperature.
- The weather in the retreating monsoon is dry in north India but it is associated with rain in the eastern part of the Peninsula.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Category: HistoryWhat was the main reason for the split in the Indian National Congress at Surat in 1907?
Correct
Extremists questioned the ability of moderates to negotiate with the British Government through their ways and means. They lacked faith in the capacity of the moderates to negotiate with the British Government. Hence there was a disagreement between the moderates and extremists leading to the Surat split of 1907.
Incorrect
Extremists questioned the ability of moderates to negotiate with the British Government through their ways and means. They lacked faith in the capacity of the moderates to negotiate with the British Government. Hence there was a disagreement between the moderates and extremists leading to the Surat split of 1907.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Category: AgricultureConsider the following GM crops and choose the ones which are not legally allowed to be cultivated in India.
- Rice
- Brinjal
- Cotton
- Mustard
Options:-
Correct
- GM Cotton is the only genetically modified crop legally allowed to be cultivated in India.
- GM Rice, GM Brinjal and GM Mustard do not have the legal approval to be cultivated in the country.
Incorrect
- GM Cotton is the only genetically modified crop legally allowed to be cultivated in India.
- GM Rice, GM Brinjal and GM Mustard do not have the legal approval to be cultivated in the country.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Category: AgricultureConsider the following statements with regards to di-ammonium phosphate:
- DAP is the most commonly used fertilizer in India.
- DAP (46% P, 18% N) is the preferred source of Phosphorus for farmers while urea is the preferred nitrogenous fertilizer.
- Farmers normally apply this fertilizer just before or at the beginning of sowing, as it is high in phosphorus (P) that stimulates root development.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- DAP – di-ammonium phosphate is the second most commonly used fertiliser in India after urea.
- DAP (46% P, 18% N) is the preferred source of Phosphorus for farmers while urea is the preferred nitrogenous fertilizer.
- Farmers normally apply DAP fertilizer just before or at the beginning of sowing, as it is high in phosphorus (P) that stimulates root development.
Incorrect
- DAP – di-ammonium phosphate is the second most commonly used fertiliser in India after urea.
- DAP (46% P, 18% N) is the preferred source of Phosphorus for farmers while urea is the preferred nitrogenous fertilizer.
- Farmers normally apply DAP fertilizer just before or at the beginning of sowing, as it is high in phosphorus (P) that stimulates root development.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Category: Current AffairsINSACOG, recently seen in the news, is
Correct
Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium (INSACOG) is a multi-lab agency set up by the Government of India for sequencing and analysing the genome data with respect to the SARS-CoV-2 virus.
Read more on the Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium.
Incorrect
Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium (INSACOG) is a multi-lab agency set up by the Government of India for sequencing and analysing the genome data with respect to the SARS-CoV-2 virus.
Read more on the Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Category: HistoryBhaskaravarman, the crowned ruler of Kamrupa kingdom, was the contemporary of
Correct
- Bhaskaravarman was the last of the Varman dynasty.
- He was perhaps the most illustrious of the kings of the medieval Kamarupa kingdom.
- He was a contemporary and political ally of northern Indian ruler Harshavardhana of Thaneswar.
Incorrect
- Bhaskaravarman was the last of the Varman dynasty.
- He was perhaps the most illustrious of the kings of the medieval Kamarupa kingdom.
- He was a contemporary and political ally of northern Indian ruler Harshavardhana of Thaneswar.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Category: PolityWith reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following? (UPSC 2019)
Correct
- The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
- Article 142(1) states that “The Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it, and any decree so passed or order so made shall be enforceable throughout the territory of India in such manner as may be prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament and, until provision in that behalf is so made, in such manner as the President may by order prescribe”.
- Article 142 “provide(s) a unique power to the Supreme Court, to do “complete justice” between the parties, i.e., where at times law or statute may not provide a remedy, the Court can extend itself to put a quietus to a dispute in a manner which would befit the facts of the case.
Incorrect
- The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
- Article 142(1) states that “The Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it, and any decree so passed or order so made shall be enforceable throughout the territory of India in such manner as may be prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament and, until provision in that behalf is so made, in such manner as the President may by order prescribe”.
- Article 142 “provide(s) a unique power to the Supreme Court, to do “complete justice” between the parties, i.e., where at times law or statute may not provide a remedy, the Court can extend itself to put a quietus to a dispute in a manner which would befit the facts of the case.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Category: HistoryKushinagar is a significant place in Buddhism since
Correct
Buddhist pilgrims consider Kushinagar a sacred site where, they believe, Gautama Buddha delivered his last sermon and attained ‘Mahaparinirvana’ or salvation. It is believed to be the final resting place of Gautama Buddha.
Incorrect
Buddhist pilgrims consider Kushinagar a sacred site where, they believe, Gautama Buddha delivered his last sermon and attained ‘Mahaparinirvana’ or salvation. It is believed to be the final resting place of Gautama Buddha.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Category: GeographyWhich of the following nations share a boundary with the Black Sea?
- Russia
- Romania
- Greece
- Turkey
- Bulgaria
Options:-
Correct
The Black Sea is bordered by Bulgaria, Russia, Georgia, Ukraine, Romania, and Turkey.
Incorrect
The Black Sea is bordered by Bulgaria, Russia, Georgia, Ukraine, Romania, and Turkey.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Category: EconomyUnder the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS), resident individuals are permitted to remit up to which of the following amounts in a financial year?
Correct
- Under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme, all resident individuals, including minors, are allowed to freely remit up to USD 2,50,000 per financial year (April – March) for any permissible current or capital account transaction or a combination of both.
- Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) is a measure to facilitate Resident Individuals (including minors) to remit funds outside India.
- There can be multiple remittances under LRS but the cumulative amount of all the transactions should be within the limit prescribed under LRS i.e. USD 250,000. Once a remittance is made for an amount up to USD 2,50,000 during the financial year, a resident individual would not be eligible to make any further remittances under this scheme, even if the proceeds of the investments have been brought back into the country.
Incorrect
- Under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme, all resident individuals, including minors, are allowed to freely remit up to USD 2,50,000 per financial year (April – March) for any permissible current or capital account transaction or a combination of both.
- Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) is a measure to facilitate Resident Individuals (including minors) to remit funds outside India.
- There can be multiple remittances under LRS but the cumulative amount of all the transactions should be within the limit prescribed under LRS i.e. USD 250,000. Once a remittance is made for an amount up to USD 2,50,000 during the financial year, a resident individual would not be eligible to make any further remittances under this scheme, even if the proceeds of the investments have been brought back into the country.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements with regards to the impact of increased temperatures.
- Rising temperatures shorten the time in which the plants reach maturity.
- Rising temperatures result into smaller yields.
- The WHO European region is the most affected when it comes to deaths due to heat exposure.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Exposure to excessive heat has wide-ranging impacts for all plants and humans, often amplifying existing conditions and resulting in premature death and disability.
- Rising temperatures shorten the time in which the plants reach maturity.
- Rising temperatures result into smaller yields.
- The WHO European region is the most affected when it comes to deaths due to heat exposure.
Incorrect
- Exposure to excessive heat has wide-ranging impacts for all plants and humans, often amplifying existing conditions and resulting in premature death and disability.
- Rising temperatures shorten the time in which the plants reach maturity.
- Rising temperatures result into smaller yields.
- The WHO European region is the most affected when it comes to deaths due to heat exposure.
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements: (UPSC 2019)
- Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
- Cattle release ammonia into environment.
- Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
Correct
- Agricultural soils represent a very large, and growing, global source of nitrous oxide.
- Cattle release ammonia into the environment.
- The poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into the environment.
Incorrect
- Agricultural soils represent a very large, and growing, global source of nitrous oxide.
- Cattle release ammonia into the environment.
- The poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into the environment.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Category: Polity‘Right to Protest’ is considered as an implicit part of which of the following fundamental rights?
Correct
- Article 19 offers the right to protest. Although the word protest is not explicitly mentioned in the fundamental rights of the Indian Constitution, it is implicitly derived from the in-depth reading of Article 19.
- The right to protest is protected under Article 19(1)(a), Article 19(1)(b) which gives citizens the right to freedom of expression and the right to meet peacefully without weapons. These two articles constitute the right of protest on the basis that a protester can exercise his right to hold a protest against any issue of national or social interest.
- The right to freedom of expression means that each person has the right to freely express his or her opinions through a means such as gesture or mouth, etc.
- The right to peaceful assembly without weapons is to hold public meetings or to close a procession.
Incorrect
- Article 19 offers the right to protest. Although the word protest is not explicitly mentioned in the fundamental rights of the Indian Constitution, it is implicitly derived from the in-depth reading of Article 19.
- The right to protest is protected under Article 19(1)(a), Article 19(1)(b) which gives citizens the right to freedom of expression and the right to meet peacefully without weapons. These two articles constitute the right of protest on the basis that a protester can exercise his right to hold a protest against any issue of national or social interest.
- The right to freedom of expression means that each person has the right to freely express his or her opinions through a means such as gesture or mouth, etc.
- The right to peaceful assembly without weapons is to hold public meetings or to close a procession.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regards to parole and furlough:
- Unlike parole, furlough is granted periodically irrespective of any reason, and merely to enable the prisoner to retain family and social ties, and to counter the ill-effects of prolonged time spent in prison.
- Parole is not a right, and is given to a prisoner for a specific reason, such as a death in the family or a wedding of a blood relative.
- Prison is a state subject and all states have their own rules for parole, furlough, remission and premature release based on the good conduct of the prisoners.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Furlough and parole envisage a short-term temporary release from custody.
- While parole is granted for the prisoner to meet a specific exigency, furlough may be granted after a stipulated number of years have been served without any reason.
- The grant of furlough is to break the monotony of imprisonment and to enable the convict to maintain continuity with family life and integration with society.
- Parole is given to a prisoner for a specific reason, such as a death in the family or a wedding of a blood relative.
- Parole is not a right and it is just a privilege for the prisoner who is deemed to be fit to re-interact with society. Although furlough can be claimed without a reason, the prisoner does not have an absolute legal right to claim furlough. The grant of furlough must be balanced against the public interest and can be refused to certain categories of prisoners.
- Prison is a state subject and all states have their own rules for parole, furlough, remission and premature release based on the good conduct of the prisoners.
Incorrect
- Furlough and parole envisage a short-term temporary release from custody.
- While parole is granted for the prisoner to meet a specific exigency, furlough may be granted after a stipulated number of years have been served without any reason.
- The grant of furlough is to break the monotony of imprisonment and to enable the convict to maintain continuity with family life and integration with society.
- Parole is given to a prisoner for a specific reason, such as a death in the family or a wedding of a blood relative.
- Parole is not a right and it is just a privilege for the prisoner who is deemed to be fit to re-interact with society. Although furlough can be claimed without a reason, the prisoner does not have an absolute legal right to claim furlough. The grant of furlough must be balanced against the public interest and can be refused to certain categories of prisoners.
- Prison is a state subject and all states have their own rules for parole, furlough, remission and premature release based on the good conduct of the prisoners.
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Category: International RelationsConsider the following statements with regards to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF):
- The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter-governmental body established in 1989 during the G20 summit in Paris.
- The objectives of the FATF include setting standards and promoting effective implementation of legal, regulatory and operational measures for combating money laundering, terrorist financing and other related threats to the integrity of the international financial system.
- Its Secretariat is located at the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) headquarters in Paris.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Correct
- The Financial Action Task Force on Money Laundering (FATF) was established by the G-7 Summit that was held in Paris in 1989.
- The objectives of the FATF include setting standards and promoting effective implementation of legal, regulatory and operational measures for combating money laundering, terrorist financing and other related threats to the integrity of the international financial system.
- FATF Secretariat is located at the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) headquarters in Paris.
Incorrect
- The Financial Action Task Force on Money Laundering (FATF) was established by the G-7 Summit that was held in Paris in 1989.
- The objectives of the FATF include setting standards and promoting effective implementation of legal, regulatory and operational measures for combating money laundering, terrorist financing and other related threats to the integrity of the international financial system.
- FATF Secretariat is located at the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) headquarters in Paris.
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Category: International RelationsConsider the following statements with regards to United Nations Development Programme (UNDP):
- The UNDP Executive Board is made up of representatives from 36 countries around the world who serve on a rotating basis.
- It is funded entirely by voluntary contributions from member nations.
- The nodal agency for all matters related to UNDP in India is the Department of Economic Affairs, Finance Ministry, GOI.
- The UNDP is governed by an administrator, who is the third-highest ranking UN official after the Secretary-General and Deputy Secretary-General.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Correct
- The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) is a United Nations organization tasked with helping countries eliminate poverty and achieve sustainable economic growth and human development. It is headquartered in New York City.
- UNDP helps to eradicate poverty, reduce inequalities and exclusion, and build resilience so countries can sustain progress. As the UN’s development agency, UNDP plays a critical role in helping countries achieve the Sustainable Development Goals.
- The UNDP Executive Board is made up of representatives from 36 countries around the world who serve on a rotating basis.
- The UNDP is funded entirely by voluntary contributions from UN member states.
- The UNDP is governed by an administrator, who is the third-highest ranking UN official after the Secretary-General and Deputy Secretary-General.
- The Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance is the designated nodal department that approves and signs the Country Programme Action Plan (CPAP) with UNDP.
Incorrect
- The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) is a United Nations organization tasked with helping countries eliminate poverty and achieve sustainable economic growth and human development. It is headquartered in New York City.
- UNDP helps to eradicate poverty, reduce inequalities and exclusion, and build resilience so countries can sustain progress. As the UN’s development agency, UNDP plays a critical role in helping countries achieve the Sustainable Development Goals.
- The UNDP Executive Board is made up of representatives from 36 countries around the world who serve on a rotating basis.
- The UNDP is funded entirely by voluntary contributions from UN member states.
- The UNDP is governed by an administrator, who is the third-highest ranking UN official after the Secretary-General and Deputy Secretary-General.
- The Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance is the designated nodal department that approves and signs the Country Programme Action Plan (CPAP) with UNDP.
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Category: GeographyWhy are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night? (UPSC-2019)
Correct
- Dewdrops are formed due to the condensation of water vapour in the air.
- When humid air comes into contact with some cold surface, water vapour present in it condenses on the cold surface in the form of droplets. These tiny drops of water are called dew drops.
- On a cloudy night, the clouds reflect back the heat emanating from the ground. Hence the ground never gets cold enough for the dew to be formed.
Incorrect
- Dewdrops are formed due to the condensation of water vapour in the air.
- When humid air comes into contact with some cold surface, water vapour present in it condenses on the cold surface in the form of droplets. These tiny drops of water are called dew drops.
- On a cloudy night, the clouds reflect back the heat emanating from the ground. Hence the ground never gets cold enough for the dew to be formed.
-
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements with regards to Amur Falcons:
- These species of birds come under the category of Least Concern under the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
- While migrating, the Amur Falcon covers a distance of 22,000 km, making it one of the longest distances covered by migratory birds.
- Manipur is known as the Falcon Capital of the world.
Which of these statements are correct?
Correct
- Amur Falcons are known to be one of the world’s longest-distance migratory birds as they travel more than a staggering 22,000 km a year.
- These species of birds come under the category of Least Concern under the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
- Nagaland is called the falcon capital of the world.
Incorrect
- Amur Falcons are known to be one of the world’s longest-distance migratory birds as they travel more than a staggering 22,000 km a year.
- These species of birds come under the category of Least Concern under the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
- Nagaland is called the falcon capital of the world.
-
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Category: EconomyWhich of the following come in the category of ‘beach sand minerals’?
- Monazite
- Zircon
- Radium
- Garnet
Options:-
Correct
- Mining of beach sand minerals by private parties is terminated as part of the efforts to curb unlawful mining.
- Two sectors are currently restricted – Beach sand minerals (only Department of Atomic Energy can do mining) and Offshore mining (currently only through PSUs).
- Monazite, Zircon and Garnet are classified as beach sand minerals. Radium does not fall under this category.
- Monazite is the mineral from which thorium is extracted. Thorium is a key ingredient of India’s three-stage nuclear programme that can be turned into nuclear fuel after being combined with a fissile material such as plutonium.
Incorrect
- Mining of beach sand minerals by private parties is terminated as part of the efforts to curb unlawful mining.
- Two sectors are currently restricted – Beach sand minerals (only Department of Atomic Energy can do mining) and Offshore mining (currently only through PSUs).
- Monazite, Zircon and Garnet are classified as beach sand minerals. Radium does not fall under this category.
- Monazite is the mineral from which thorium is extracted. Thorium is a key ingredient of India’s three-stage nuclear programme that can be turned into nuclear fuel after being combined with a fissile material such as plutonium.
-
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regards to allocation of cadre to an IAS officer:
- While assigning a cadre, the candidate’s home state and state of the allocated cadre are consulted by UPSC.
- The candidate doesn’t have the right to be allocated the cadre of his/her choice.
- If candidates from Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), or Other Backward Class (OBC) get selected in the general category without recourse to the benefit of reservation, they can use it for getting cadre or place of appointment of choice.
Which of these statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
- The procedure for allocation of cadre is a mechanical process and admits no exception except in terms of the rules. It said that consultation in respect of allocation of cadre is not required to be done with the state from which the candidate belongs or with the state to which the candidate is being allocated.
- The Supreme Court has held that successful civil services aspirants have no right to be allocated a cadre of their choice or their home state.
- If a candidate hailing from reserved Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), or Other Backward Class (OBC) category does not take benefit of quota and gets selected in the general category then later he or she cannot take recourse to reservation for getting cadre or place of appointment of choice.
Incorrect
- The procedure for allocation of cadre is a mechanical process and admits no exception except in terms of the rules. It said that consultation in respect of allocation of cadre is not required to be done with the state from which the candidate belongs or with the state to which the candidate is being allocated.
- The Supreme Court has held that successful civil services aspirants have no right to be allocated a cadre of their choice or their home state.
- If a candidate hailing from reserved Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), or Other Backward Class (OBC) category does not take benefit of quota and gets selected in the general category then later he or she cannot take recourse to reservation for getting cadre or place of appointment of choice.
-
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Category: Schemes‘e-MASIHA’ app, often seen in the news, is used for
Correct
E-Medical Assistance System for Indian Pilgrims Abroad or E-Masiha is an online system to create and maintain the complete health database of pilgrims along with doctors’ prescriptions as well as medicine disbursals to deal with any emergency in Makkah-Madinah.
Incorrect
E-Medical Assistance System for Indian Pilgrims Abroad or E-Masiha is an online system to create and maintain the complete health database of pilgrims along with doctors’ prescriptions as well as medicine disbursals to deal with any emergency in Makkah-Madinah.
21 of 30 questions answered