UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Sep 16 – Sep 22 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Current Affairs Monthly Magazine (August 2023)
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UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from Sep 16 – Sep 22 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.
Post your scores in the comment section below!
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UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Sep 16 – Sep 22
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Category: AgricultureConsider the following statements with respect to millets:
- They are photo-insensitive & resilient to climate change.
- Anaemia, pellagra can be effectively tackled with millet consumption.
- The Government of India declared 2020 – the National Year of Millets.
- Millets can be cultivated in low-fertile land, rain-fed and mountainous areas.
How many of the given statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, Millets are Photo-insensitive (i.e. does not need specific photoperiod for flowering) and are resilient to climate change.
- Statement 2 is correct, The anaemia (iron deficiency), B-complex vitamin deficiency, pellagra (niacin deficiency) can be effectively tackled with the intake of millets.
- Statement 3 is not correct, Government of India approved 2018 as the National Year of Millets.
- Statement 4 is correct, Millets are hardy, resilient crops that have low carbon and water footprint, can withstand high temperatures and grow on poor soils with little or no external inputs.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, Millets are Photo-insensitive (i.e. does not need specific photoperiod for flowering) and are resilient to climate change.
- Statement 2 is correct, The anaemia (iron deficiency), B-complex vitamin deficiency, pellagra (niacin deficiency) can be effectively tackled with the intake of millets.
- Statement 3 is not correct, Government of India approved 2018 as the National Year of Millets.
- Statement 4 is correct, Millets are hardy, resilient crops that have low carbon and water footprint, can withstand high temperatures and grow on poor soils with little or no external inputs.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements with respect to Ethereum:
- Ethereum is a decentralised cryptocurrency.
- Ethereum is the world’s most valuable cryptocurrency.
- Ethereum recently finalised ‘the Merge’ to cut down on its carbon footprint.
How many of the given statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, Ethereum is a decentralized, open-source blockchain/cryptocurrency with smart contract functionality.
- Statement 2 is not correct, Ethereum is the world’s second most valuable cryptocurrency.
- Bitcoin is the world’s most valuable cryptocurrency.
- Statement 3 is correct, Ethereum recently finalised “the Merge” which will help reduce its energy consumption by nearly 99.95%.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, Ethereum is a decentralized, open-source blockchain/cryptocurrency with smart contract functionality.
- Statement 2 is not correct, Ethereum is the world’s second most valuable cryptocurrency.
- Bitcoin is the world’s most valuable cryptocurrency.
- Statement 3 is correct, Ethereum recently finalised “the Merge” which will help reduce its energy consumption by nearly 99.95%.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Category: GeographyWhich of the following countries border Kyrgyzstan?
- Kazakhstan
- Afghanistan
- Uzbekistan
- Tajikistan
- China
Options:
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements with respect to Red Sanders:
- It is endemic to the Eastern Ghats.
- It is used in aromatherapy to reduce stress, hypertension and heals wounds and treats skin blemishes.
- IUCN Red List classifies it as Endangered.
- It is listed under Appendix II of CITES and is banned from international trade.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, Red Sanders or Pterocarpus santalinus is endemic to the Eastern Ghats of India.
- Statement 2 is not correct, Aromatherapy is associated with Sandalwood (Santalum album).
- Aromatherapy has nothing to do with Red Sanders.
- Statement 3 is correct, Red Sanders is classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
- Statement 4 is correct, Red Sanders is listed under Appendix II of CITES and is banned from international trade.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, Red Sanders or Pterocarpus santalinus is endemic to the Eastern Ghats of India.
- Statement 2 is not correct, Aromatherapy is associated with Sandalwood (Santalum album).
- Aromatherapy has nothing to do with Red Sanders.
- Statement 3 is correct, Red Sanders is classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
- Statement 4 is correct, Red Sanders is listed under Appendix II of CITES and is banned from international trade.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Category: Geography“Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations? (PYQ 2022)
Correct
- Biorock technology is being used by the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) to restore damaged coral reefs.
Incorrect
- Biorock technology is being used by the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) to restore damaged coral reefs.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Category: GeographyConsider the following statements with regards to La Nina: (Level – Easy)
- In the Indian context, La Niña is associated with good rainfall during the monsoon season.
- In Australia and Indonesia, and generally in the tropical regions, La Niña is expected to bring more rainfall.
- La Niña’s cooling influence is temporarily slowing the rise in global temperatures but it will not halt or reverse the long-term warming trend.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, La Nina is associated with good rainfall during the monsoon season in the Indian context.
- Statement 2 is correct, Usually, La Nina causes more rainfall in Australia and Indonesia and the tropical regions.
- Statement 3 is correct, La Nina’s cooling influence temporarily slows down the rise in global temperatures but it will not cease or reverse the long-term warming trend.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, La Nina is associated with good rainfall during the monsoon season in the Indian context.
- Statement 2 is correct, Usually, La Nina causes more rainfall in Australia and Indonesia and the tropical regions.
- Statement 3 is correct, La Nina’s cooling influence temporarily slows down the rise in global temperatures but it will not cease or reverse the long-term warming trend.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with respect to India’s tribals: (Level – Medium)
- The final decision to include a tribe in the Scheduled Tribe list rests with the President’s office issuing a notification specifying the changes under powers vested in it from Article 341.
- The inclusion or exclusion of any community in the Scheduled Tribes list comes into effect only after the President assents to a Bill that amends the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950, after it is passed by both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
- A State government may choose to recommend certain communities for addition or subtraction from the list of SCs/STs based on its discretion.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, The final decision to include a tribe in the Scheduled Tribe list rests with the President’s office issuing a notification specifying the changes under powers vested in it from Article 342.
- Article 341 deals with that of Scheduled Castes.
- Statement 2 is correct, The inclusion or exclusion comes into effect only after the President assents to a Bill that amends the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950 and the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950, as is appropriate, after it is passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
- Statement 3 is correct, A state government may choose to recommend certain communities for addition or subtraction from the list of SCs/STs based on its discretion.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, The final decision to include a tribe in the Scheduled Tribe list rests with the President’s office issuing a notification specifying the changes under powers vested in it from Article 342.
- Article 341 deals with that of Scheduled Castes.
- Statement 2 is correct, The inclusion or exclusion comes into effect only after the President assents to a Bill that amends the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950 and the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950, as is appropriate, after it is passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
- Statement 3 is correct, A state government may choose to recommend certain communities for addition or subtraction from the list of SCs/STs based on its discretion.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Category: HealthConsider the following statements with regards to lumpy skin disease: (Level – Easy)
- There are no specific antiviral drugs available for the treatment of lumpy skin disease.
- Lumpy skin disease is primarily spread between animals by biting insects (vectors), such as mosquitoes and biting flies.
- The disease is zoonotic, meaning it can spread from animals to humans as well.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, There are no specific antiviral drugs available for the treatment of lumpy skin disease.
- There are only symptom-specific treatments available currently such as wound care sprays to treat skin lesions and the use of antibiotics to prevent secondary skin infections and pneumonia.
- Statement 2 is correct, Lumpy skin disease spreads mainly through blood-feeding insects like flies, mosquitoes and ticks.
- Statement 3 is not correct, Lumpy Skin Disease is not Zoonotic as the virus is highly host specific and does not cause disease in humans.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, There are no specific antiviral drugs available for the treatment of lumpy skin disease.
- There are only symptom-specific treatments available currently such as wound care sprays to treat skin lesions and the use of antibiotics to prevent secondary skin infections and pneumonia.
- Statement 2 is correct, Lumpy skin disease spreads mainly through blood-feeding insects like flies, mosquitoes and ticks.
- Statement 3 is not correct, Lumpy Skin Disease is not Zoonotic as the virus is highly host specific and does not cause disease in humans.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regards to Enforcement Directorate: (Level – Medium)
- The Prevention of Money Laundering Act allows the ED to take cognizance of any offence under its wide-ranging schedule across the country, with the consent of state governments.
- Following amendments in 2015 and 2018 in the PLMA, the ED was allowed to attach properties in India equivalent to properties acquired abroad through laundered money.
- Under PMLA, the provision for bail stipulates that a magistrate will not grant bail to an accused unless he is convinced that prima facie no case is made out.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, The Prevention of Money Laundering Act allows the ED to take cognizance of any offence under its wide-ranging schedule across the country, with or without the consent of state governments.
- Statement 2 is correct, After the amendments in 2015 and 2018, the ED has been allowed to attach properties in India equivalent to properties acquired abroad through laundered money.
- Statement 3 is correct, Under PMLA, the provision for bail stipulates that a magistrate will not grant bail to an accused unless he is convinced that prima facie no case is made out.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, The Prevention of Money Laundering Act allows the ED to take cognizance of any offence under its wide-ranging schedule across the country, with or without the consent of state governments.
- Statement 2 is correct, After the amendments in 2015 and 2018, the ED has been allowed to attach properties in India equivalent to properties acquired abroad through laundered money.
- Statement 3 is correct, Under PMLA, the provision for bail stipulates that a magistrate will not grant bail to an accused unless he is convinced that prima facie no case is made out.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyAs per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct? (Level – Difficult) PYQ (2019)
Correct
- The Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 provide exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
- According to the rules, the landfill site shall be 100 metres away from a river, 200 metres from a pond, 200 metres away from highways, habitations, public parks and water supply wells and 20 km away from airports/airbases.
- Further, the construction of landfills on hills shall be avoided. Land for the construction of sanitary landfills in hilly areas will be identified in the plain areas, within 25 kilometres. However, transfer stations and processing facilities shall be operational in the hilly areas.
Incorrect
- The Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 provide exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
- According to the rules, the landfill site shall be 100 metres away from a river, 200 metres from a pond, 200 metres away from highways, habitations, public parks and water supply wells and 20 km away from airports/airbases.
- Further, the construction of landfills on hills shall be avoided. Land for the construction of sanitary landfills in hilly areas will be identified in the plain areas, within 25 kilometres. However, transfer stations and processing facilities shall be operational in the hilly areas.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regards to the proceedings in the judiciary: (Level – Difficult)
- At present, no High Court in India provides live streaming of its proceedings.
- On the day of former Chief Justice of India (CJI) N V Ramana’s retirement, the Supreme Court streamed its proceedings live.
- USA Supreme Court has rejected pleas for broadcast of its proceedings, but it allows audio recording and transcripts of oral arguments.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 01 is incorrect, The Supreme Court of India in its judgement in September 2018, had declared live telecast of court proceedings part of the right to access justice under Article 21 of the Constitution.
- Currently, six high courts in the country, namely Gujarat, Orissa, Karnataka, Jharkhand, Patna, and Madhya Pradesh, live-stream their proceedings through their own channels on YouTube.
- Statement 02 is correct, On August 26, on the day of former Chief Justice of India (CJI) N V Ramana’s retirement, the Supreme Court streamed its proceedings live.
- Statement 03 is correct, While the US Supreme Court has rejected pleas for broadcast of its proceedings, it has since 1955 allowed audio recording and transcripts of oral arguments.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is incorrect, The Supreme Court of India in its judgement in September 2018, had declared live telecast of court proceedings part of the right to access justice under Article 21 of the Constitution.
- Currently, six high courts in the country, namely Gujarat, Orissa, Karnataka, Jharkhand, Patna, and Madhya Pradesh, live-stream their proceedings through their own channels on YouTube.
- Statement 02 is correct, On August 26, on the day of former Chief Justice of India (CJI) N V Ramana’s retirement, the Supreme Court streamed its proceedings live.
- Statement 03 is correct, While the US Supreme Court has rejected pleas for broadcast of its proceedings, it has since 1955 allowed audio recording and transcripts of oral arguments.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with respect to the death penalty in India: (Level – Difficult)
- The Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) requires a judge to hear the accused after conviction on the question of sentence, and then pass the sentence on him according to law.
- In 1980, the Supreme Court ruled in the ‘Bachan Singh v State of Punjab’ case that after the conviction, a separate sentencing hearing would be held, where a judge would be persuaded on why the death sentence need not be awarded.
- In ‘Dattaraya v State of Maharashtra’, the Supreme Court commuted the death sentence to life imprisonment on the grounds that an adequate sentencing hearing was not held.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, Section 235 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) requires a judge to hear the accused after conviction on the question of sentence, and then pass the sentence on him according to law.
- Statement 02 is correct, In 1980, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutionality of capital punishment in ‘Bachan Singh v State of Punjab’ on the condition that the punishment will be awarded in the “rarest of the rare” cases. Crucially, the ruling also stressed that a separate sentencing hearing would be held, where a judge would be persuaded on why the death sentence need not be awarded.
- Statement 03 is correct, In ‘Dattaraya v State of Maharashtra’, a three-judge Bench of the Supreme Court commuted the death sentence to life imprisonment on the grounds that an adequate sentencing hearing was not held.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, Section 235 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) requires a judge to hear the accused after conviction on the question of sentence, and then pass the sentence on him according to law.
- Statement 02 is correct, In 1980, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutionality of capital punishment in ‘Bachan Singh v State of Punjab’ on the condition that the punishment will be awarded in the “rarest of the rare” cases. Crucially, the ruling also stressed that a separate sentencing hearing would be held, where a judge would be persuaded on why the death sentence need not be awarded.
- Statement 03 is correct, In ‘Dattaraya v State of Maharashtra’, a three-judge Bench of the Supreme Court commuted the death sentence to life imprisonment on the grounds that an adequate sentencing hearing was not held.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Category: G K‘Operation Octopus’, ‘Operation Double Bull’ and ‘Operation Thunderstorm’ are related to which of the following? (Level – Medium)
Correct
The Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) launched Operation Octopus, Operation Double Bull, Operation Thunderstorm and Operation Chakarbandha in Bihar, Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh against left-wing extremism.
Incorrect
The Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) launched Operation Octopus, Operation Double Bull, Operation Thunderstorm and Operation Chakarbandha in Bihar, Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh against left-wing extremism.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Category: International RelationsConsider the following statements with regards to the UN charter: (Level – Difficult)
- Since the UN’s founding in 1945, the mission and work of the Organisation have been guided by the purposes and principles contained in its founding Charter, which has been amended three times in 1963, 1965, and 1973.
- The UN Charter codifies the major principles of international relations, from sovereign equality of States to the prohibition of the use of force in international relations.
- It was signed on 26 June 1945, in San Francisco, at the conclusion of the United Nations Conference on International Organisation, and came into force on 24 October 1945.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statements 01 and 03 are correct, The Charter of the United Nations is the founding document of the United Nations. It was signed on 26 June 1945, in San Francisco, at the conclusion of the United Nations Conference on International Organisation, and came into force on 24 October 1945.
- Since the UN’s founding in 1945, the mission and work of the Organisation have been guided by the purposes and principles contained in its founding Charter, which has been amended three times in 1963, 1965, and 1973.
- Statement 02 is correct, The UN Charter codifies the major principles of international relations, from sovereign equality of States to the prohibition of the use of force in international relations.
- The United Nations can take action on a wide variety of issues due to its unique international character and the powers vested in its Charter, which is considered an international treaty.
- As such, the UN Charter is an instrument of international law, and the UN Member States are bound by it.
Incorrect
- Statements 01 and 03 are correct, The Charter of the United Nations is the founding document of the United Nations. It was signed on 26 June 1945, in San Francisco, at the conclusion of the United Nations Conference on International Organisation, and came into force on 24 October 1945.
- Since the UN’s founding in 1945, the mission and work of the Organisation have been guided by the purposes and principles contained in its founding Charter, which has been amended three times in 1963, 1965, and 1973.
- Statement 02 is correct, The UN Charter codifies the major principles of international relations, from sovereign equality of States to the prohibition of the use of force in international relations.
- The United Nations can take action on a wide variety of issues due to its unique international character and the powers vested in its Charter, which is considered an international treaty.
- As such, the UN Charter is an instrument of international law, and the UN Member States are bound by it.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyIn the context of which one of the following are the terms 'pyrolysis and plasma gasification' mentioned? (Level – Medium) (CSE Prelims-2019)
Correct
- Pyrolysis is one of the technologies available to convert biomass to an intermediate liquid product that can be refined to drop-in hydrocarbon biofuels, oxygenated fuel additives and petrochemical replacements. Pyrolysis is the heating of an organic material, such as biomass, in the absence of oxygen.
- Plasma gasification is an extreme thermal process using plasma which converts organic matter into syngas (synthesis gas) which is primarily made up of hydrogen and carbon monoxide.
Incorrect
- Pyrolysis is one of the technologies available to convert biomass to an intermediate liquid product that can be refined to drop-in hydrocarbon biofuels, oxygenated fuel additives and petrochemical replacements. Pyrolysis is the heating of an organic material, such as biomass, in the absence of oxygen.
- Plasma gasification is an extreme thermal process using plasma which converts organic matter into syngas (synthesis gas) which is primarily made up of hydrogen and carbon monoxide.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regards to the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India: (Level – Medium)
- The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) was established by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997.
- The TRAI Act was amended in 2000 which established a Telecommunications Dispute Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT) to take over the adjudicatory and disputes functions from TRAI.
- The TRAI consists of a Chairperson, two whole-time members and two part-time members, all of whom are appointed by the Government of India.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) was established with effect from February 20, 1997, by an Act of Parliament, called the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997 to regulate telecom services, including fixation/revision of tariffs for telecom services which were earlier vested in the Central Government.
- Statement 02 is correct, The TRAI Act was amended by an ordinance, effective from 24 January 2000, establishing a Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT) to take over the adjudicatory and disputes functions from TRAI.
- Statement 03 is correct, TRAI consists of a chairman, at least two full-time members and not more than two-part members, all appointed by the Union Government.
- The members should have special knowledge of, or professional experience in telecom, industry, finance, accountancy, law, management and consumer affairs.
- Only those senior or retired Government officers can be appointed as members who have served for at least three years as secretary/additional secretary to the Union or State Governments.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) was established with effect from February 20, 1997, by an Act of Parliament, called the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997 to regulate telecom services, including fixation/revision of tariffs for telecom services which were earlier vested in the Central Government.
- Statement 02 is correct, The TRAI Act was amended by an ordinance, effective from 24 January 2000, establishing a Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT) to take over the adjudicatory and disputes functions from TRAI.
- Statement 03 is correct, TRAI consists of a chairman, at least two full-time members and not more than two-part members, all appointed by the Union Government.
- The members should have special knowledge of, or professional experience in telecom, industry, finance, accountancy, law, management and consumer affairs.
- Only those senior or retired Government officers can be appointed as members who have served for at least three years as secretary/additional secretary to the Union or State Governments.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Category: G KThe ‘1098 helpline number’ in India is related to which of the following? (Level – Easy)
Correct
- ‘1098 helpline number’ is a 24/7/365 free, emergency phone service for children in need of aid and assistance.
- A non-governmental organisation CHILDLINE India Foundation (CIF) is the nodal agency supported by the Union Ministry of Women and Child Development responsible for setting up, managing and monitoring the CHILDLINE 1098 service all over the country.
Incorrect
- ‘1098 helpline number’ is a 24/7/365 free, emergency phone service for children in need of aid and assistance.
- A non-governmental organisation CHILDLINE India Foundation (CIF) is the nodal agency supported by the Union Ministry of Women and Child Development responsible for setting up, managing and monitoring the CHILDLINE 1098 service all over the country.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Category: Social IssuesConsider the following statements with regards to Nikah Halala: (Level – Medium)
- In India, the Muslim Women’s Protection of Rights on Marriage, passed after the invalidation of triple talaq by the Supreme Court, is silent on nikah halala.
- The Koran allows a man to divorce his wife a maximum of two times.
- In Saudi Arabia, where divorces are on the rise, the number of halala cases is increasing drastically.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, Nikah halala is a Muslim personal law that requires a woman to marry and have physical relations with another man in order to return to her first husband. The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019 declares the instant divorce granted by the pronouncement of talaq three times as void and illegal. But the Act is silent on nikah halala which takes place as a consequence of triple talaq.
- Statement 02 is correct, The holy book of Islam, the Koran contains numerous verses dealing with the issues of marriage, child-rearing, divorces, marital obligations, reconciliation between estranged couples and inheritance. The Koran allows a man to divorce his wife a maximum of two times. On both occasions, separated by at least one menstrual cycle.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, In Saudi Arabia, where divorces are on the rise, no cases of halala have been reported. No case has been reported from the UAE, Kuwait and Yemen either.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, Nikah halala is a Muslim personal law that requires a woman to marry and have physical relations with another man in order to return to her first husband. The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019 declares the instant divorce granted by the pronouncement of talaq three times as void and illegal. But the Act is silent on nikah halala which takes place as a consequence of triple talaq.
- Statement 02 is correct, The holy book of Islam, the Koran contains numerous verses dealing with the issues of marriage, child-rearing, divorces, marital obligations, reconciliation between estranged couples and inheritance. The Koran allows a man to divorce his wife a maximum of two times. On both occasions, separated by at least one menstrual cycle.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, In Saudi Arabia, where divorces are on the rise, no cases of halala have been reported. No case has been reported from the UAE, Kuwait and Yemen either.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Category: PolityThe Vineet Narain case of 1997 led to which of the following? (Level – Easy)
Correct
- The 1997 judgement in the Vineet Narain vs Union of India case, popularly known as the Jain hawala case led to sweeping changes in the Central Bureau of Investigation.
- The Supreme Court gave directions to fix the tenure of the CBI Director for two years and statutory status to the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC).
Incorrect
- The 1997 judgement in the Vineet Narain vs Union of India case, popularly known as the Jain hawala case led to sweeping changes in the Central Bureau of Investigation.
- The Supreme Court gave directions to fix the tenure of the CBI Director for two years and statutory status to the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC).
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Category: International RelationsWhich of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as 'General Data Protection Regulation' in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018? (Level – Medium) (CSE Prelims-2019)
Correct
- The General Data Protection Regulation is a regulation in European Union law on data protection and privacy for the citizens of the EU and the European Economic Area (EEA).
- It also addresses the export of personal data outside the EU and EEA areas.
Incorrect
- The General Data Protection Regulation is a regulation in European Union law on data protection and privacy for the citizens of the EU and the European Economic Area (EEA).
- It also addresses the export of personal data outside the EU and EEA areas.
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements: (Level – Medium)
- At present only those who belong to Hinduism, Sikhism, Jainism & Buddhism faiths are considered Scheduled Castes.
- A person belonging to a Scheduled Caste (SC) in a state will be deemed to be SC in another state to which he/ she migrates for the purpose of employment or education.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, At present only those who belong to Hindu, Sikhism & Buddhism faiths are considered as Dalits (Scheduled Castes), according to the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order 1950.
- Individuals belonging to Jainism are not considered Scheduled Castes.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The Supreme Court has recently clarified that “a person belonging to a Scheduled Caste (SC) or Scheduled Tribe (ST) in a state will not be deemed to be SC or ST in another state to which he/ she migrates for the purpose of employment or education.”
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, At present only those who belong to Hindu, Sikhism & Buddhism faiths are considered as Dalits (Scheduled Castes), according to the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order 1950.
- Individuals belonging to Jainism are not considered Scheduled Castes.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The Supreme Court has recently clarified that “a person belonging to a Scheduled Caste (SC) or Scheduled Tribe (ST) in a state will not be deemed to be SC or ST in another state to which he/ she migrates for the purpose of employment or education.”
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Category: HistorySarda Act passed during the pre-independent period dealt with (Level – Easy)
Correct
- The Sharada Act (Sarda Act) which is also known as the Child Marriage Restraint Act is a legislative act passed in September 1929.
- The Act fixed the marriageable age for girls at 14 years and 18 years for boys.
- Read more about – Sharada Act.
Incorrect
- The Sharada Act (Sarda Act) which is also known as the Child Marriage Restraint Act is a legislative act passed in September 1929.
- The Act fixed the marriageable age for girls at 14 years and 18 years for boys.
- Read more about – Sharada Act.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Category: PolityWith respect to Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, which of the following statements is/are correct? (Level – Difficult)
- A “child” according to this act is a person who has not completed eighteen years of age.
- All child marriages under all circumstances are void according to the act.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, As per the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, “child” means a person who,
- If male, has not completed twenty-one years of age
- If female, has not completed eighteen years of age
- Statement 2 is not correct, Marriage of a minor child is considered to be void in certain circumstances, where a child, being a minor –
- Is taken or enticed out of the keeping of the lawful guardian.
- By force compelled, or by any deceitful means induced to go from any place.
- Is sold for the purpose of marriage.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, As per the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, “child” means a person who,
- If male, has not completed twenty-one years of age
- If female, has not completed eighteen years of age
- Statement 2 is not correct, Marriage of a minor child is considered to be void in certain circumstances, where a child, being a minor –
- Is taken or enticed out of the keeping of the lawful guardian.
- By force compelled, or by any deceitful means induced to go from any place.
- Is sold for the purpose of marriage.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyIndia's first avalanche-monitoring radar was installed in the state/UT of (Level – Easy)
Correct
- India’s first avalanche-monitoring radar has been installed in the state/UT of Sikkim.
- The avalanche-monitoring radar has been installed by the Indian Army and the Defence Geoinformatics and Research Establishment (DGRE) at an altitude of 15,000 feet in North Sikkim.
Incorrect
- India’s first avalanche-monitoring radar has been installed in the state/UT of Sikkim.
- The avalanche-monitoring radar has been installed by the Indian Army and the Defence Geoinformatics and Research Establishment (DGRE) at an altitude of 15,000 feet in North Sikkim.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Category: Art and CultureWhich of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Pattachitra? (Level – Medium)
- It is a picture painted on a piece of cloth.
- This form of art is closely related to the Manglagauri temple and its traditions in Bihar.
- The materials used in the paint are from vegetable, earth, and mineral sources.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, Pattachitra art is a form of cloth-based scroll painting.
- Statement 2 is not correct, Pattachitra art is usually associated with the eastern states of India.
- In Odisha, Pattachitra originated as a way to paint stories of God Jagannath.
- In West Bengal, Pattachitras were used to depict stories of Goddess Durga and other mythological stories.
- Statement 3 is correct, The materials used in the paint are from vegetable, earth, and mineral sources.
- Black is made out of lampblack
- Yellow from haritala stone
- Red from shingle stone
- White colour is prepared from crushed, boiled, and filtered shells
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, Pattachitra art is a form of cloth-based scroll painting.
- Statement 2 is not correct, Pattachitra art is usually associated with the eastern states of India.
- In Odisha, Pattachitra originated as a way to paint stories of God Jagannath.
- In West Bengal, Pattachitras were used to depict stories of Goddess Durga and other mythological stories.
- Statement 3 is correct, The materials used in the paint are from vegetable, earth, and mineral sources.
- Black is made out of lampblack
- Yellow from haritala stone
- Red from shingle stone
- White colour is prepared from crushed, boiled, and filtered shells
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Category: GeographyWith reference to India, consider the following statements: (Level – Difficult) PYQ (2022)
- Monazite is a source of rare earths.
- Monazite contains thorium.
- Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India.
- In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, Monazite is a source of rare earths such as cerium, lanthanum, and others.
- Statement 2 is correct, Uranium and thorium are found in monazite.
- Statement 3 is not correct, Monazite occurs naturally in the coastal sands of three districts of Tamil Nadu namely Tirunelveli, Thoothukudi and Kanyakumari.
- Statement 4 is correct, In India, only Indian Rare Earths Limited (IREL), a wholly owned Public Sector Undertaking of the Government of India (GOI) under the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) has been permitted to produce and process monazite, and handle it for domestic use as well as for export.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, Monazite is a source of rare earths such as cerium, lanthanum, and others.
- Statement 2 is correct, Uranium and thorium are found in monazite.
- Statement 3 is not correct, Monazite occurs naturally in the coastal sands of three districts of Tamil Nadu namely Tirunelveli, Thoothukudi and Kanyakumari.
- Statement 4 is correct, In India, only Indian Rare Earths Limited (IREL), a wholly owned Public Sector Undertaking of the Government of India (GOI) under the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) has been permitted to produce and process monazite, and handle it for domestic use as well as for export.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with respect to Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs): (Level-Medium)
- The Xaxa committee created Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs) as a separate category, who are less developed among the tribal groups.
- Odisha has the highest number of PVTGs in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 01 is incorrect, PVTGs are more vulnerable among the tribal groups. In 1973, the Dhebar Commission created Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs) as a separate category, which are less developed among the tribal groups. In 2006, the Government of India renamed the PTGs as PVTGs.
- Statement 02 is correct, Odisha has the highest number of PVTGs in India while no PVTGs are found in the states of Punjab and Haryana.
- 13 out of the 75 PVTGs are in Odisha.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is incorrect, PVTGs are more vulnerable among the tribal groups. In 1973, the Dhebar Commission created Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs) as a separate category, which are less developed among the tribal groups. In 2006, the Government of India renamed the PTGs as PVTGs.
- Statement 02 is correct, Odisha has the highest number of PVTGs in India while no PVTGs are found in the states of Punjab and Haryana.
- 13 out of the 75 PVTGs are in Odisha.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Category: International RelationsWhich amongst the following statements is the best description of Paris Club? (Level-Medium)
Correct
- The Paris Club is an informal group of creditor nations whose objective is to find workable solutions to payment problems faced by debtor nations.
- The Paris Club has 22 permanent members.
- The Paris Club stresses the informal nature of its existence. As an informal group, it has no official statutes and no formal inception date, although its first meeting with a debtor nation was in 1956, with Argentina.
- India is an observer state of the Paris Club from 2019.
Incorrect
- The Paris Club is an informal group of creditor nations whose objective is to find workable solutions to payment problems faced by debtor nations.
- The Paris Club has 22 permanent members.
- The Paris Club stresses the informal nature of its existence. As an informal group, it has no official statutes and no formal inception date, although its first meeting with a debtor nation was in 1956, with Argentina.
- India is an observer state of the Paris Club from 2019.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Category: EconomyWith respect to Masala Bonds, which of the following statements is/are correct? (Level-Difficult)
- They are rupee-denominated bonds. It is a debt instrument issued by an Indian entity in foreign markets to raise money
- The first Masala Bonds were issued by the World Bank in 2014 to fund an infrastructure project in India
- These bonds can only be issued to a resident of such a country which is a member of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF)
Options:
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, Masala Bonds are rupee-denominated bonds. It is a debt instrument issued by an Indian entity in foreign markets to raise money, in Indian currency, instead of dollars or local denomination.
- In 2019, Kerala became the first Indian state to issue Masala Bonds worth Rs. 2,150 crore on the London Stock Exchange. State-owned Kerala Infrastructure Investment Fund Board (KIIFB) had issued the bonds to raise funds in the overseas market.
- Statement 02 is correct, The first Masala Bonds were issued by World Bank in 2014 to fund an infrastructure project in India
- The International Finance Corporation (IFC), the investment branch of the World Bank issued a 10-year, 10 billion Indian rupee bonds in November 2014 to increase foreign investment in India and mobilise international capital markets to support infrastructure development in the country
- Statement 03 is correct, These bonds can only be issued to a resident of such a country which is a member of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF).
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, Masala Bonds are rupee-denominated bonds. It is a debt instrument issued by an Indian entity in foreign markets to raise money, in Indian currency, instead of dollars or local denomination.
- In 2019, Kerala became the first Indian state to issue Masala Bonds worth Rs. 2,150 crore on the London Stock Exchange. State-owned Kerala Infrastructure Investment Fund Board (KIIFB) had issued the bonds to raise funds in the overseas market.
- Statement 02 is correct, The first Masala Bonds were issued by World Bank in 2014 to fund an infrastructure project in India
- The International Finance Corporation (IFC), the investment branch of the World Bank issued a 10-year, 10 billion Indian rupee bonds in November 2014 to increase foreign investment in India and mobilise international capital markets to support infrastructure development in the country
- Statement 03 is correct, These bonds can only be issued to a resident of such a country which is a member of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF).
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyConsider the following Pairs: (Level-Difficult)
Mission Planet
- Cassini Saturn
- DAVINCI Venus
- Europa Clipper Jupiter
- InSight Mars
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
- Pair 01 is correctly matched, Cassini–Huygens is an unmanned spacecraft sent to the planet Saturn as a part of Cassini mission.
- Pair 02 is correctly matched, the DAVINCI mission is a flyby mission to Venus and explores its harsh atmosphere in 2029.
- It will be the first mission to study Venus by means of both flybys and descent.
- Pair 03 is correctly matched, Europa Clipper is a mission by NASA to conduct detailed reconnaissance of Jupiter’s moon Europa and investigate whether the icy moon could have conditions suitable for life.
- Pair 04 is correctly matched, The Interior Exploration using Seismic Investigations, Geodesy and Heat Transport (InSight) mission is a robotic lander designed to study the deep interior of the planet Mars. The InSight mission is part of NASA’s Discovery Program (1992).
Incorrect
- Pair 01 is correctly matched, Cassini–Huygens is an unmanned spacecraft sent to the planet Saturn as a part of Cassini mission.
- Pair 02 is correctly matched, the DAVINCI mission is a flyby mission to Venus and explores its harsh atmosphere in 2029.
- It will be the first mission to study Venus by means of both flybys and descent.
- Pair 03 is correctly matched, Europa Clipper is a mission by NASA to conduct detailed reconnaissance of Jupiter’s moon Europa and investigate whether the icy moon could have conditions suitable for life.
- Pair 04 is correctly matched, The Interior Exploration using Seismic Investigations, Geodesy and Heat Transport (InSight) mission is a robotic lander designed to study the deep interior of the planet Mars. The InSight mission is part of NASA’s Discovery Program (1992).
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