UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Sep 17 – Sep 23 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from Sep 17 – Sep 23 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.
Post your scores in the comment section below!
UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Sep 17 - Sep 23
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UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Sep 17 – Sep 23
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to the IUCN “Red List of Threatened Species”:
- It is a comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of animal, fungus and plant species.
- It defines the extinction risk of species assessed classified into seven categories.
- Critically Endangered (CR), Endangered (EN) and Vulnerable (VU) species are considered to be threatened with global extinction.
Which of the given statements is/are INCORRECT?
Correct
- IUCN “Red List of Threatened Species” is a comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of animal, fungus and plant species.
- It defines the extinction risk of species assessed classified into nine categories.
- Critically Endangered (CR), Endangered (EN) and Vulnerable (VU) species are considered to be threatened with global extinction.
Read more on: IUCN Red List
Incorrect
- IUCN “Red List of Threatened Species” is a comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of animal, fungus and plant species.
- It defines the extinction risk of species assessed classified into nine categories.
- Critically Endangered (CR), Endangered (EN) and Vulnerable (VU) species are considered to be threatened with global extinction.
Read more on: IUCN Red List
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Which of the following is/are the likely impacts of an increase in atmospheric aerosols?
- Destruction of stratospheric ozone
- Affect the rainfall patterns
- Reduce solar energy generation from photovoltaic and rooftop solar installations
Options:
Correct
- Aerosols are minute particles suspended in the atmosphere.
- Aerosols also can act as sites for chemical reactions to take place. These reactions can lead to the destruction of stratospheric ozone.
- Aerosols serve as cloud condensation nuclei (CCN) and thus have a substantial effect on cloud properties and the initiation of precipitation. Large concentrations of human-made aerosols have been reported to impact rainfall as a result of their radiative and CCN activities.
- Aerosols reduce the speed of winds near the earth’s surface, thus leading to a reduction in rainfall. The more is the aerosol pollution, the greater the reduction in rainfall.
- Recently, a team of Indian and international researchers have found that aerosols, dust, and clouds reduce solar energy generation from photovoltaic and rooftop solar installations resulting in substantial economic impact through financial losses.
Incorrect
- Aerosols are minute particles suspended in the atmosphere.
- Aerosols also can act as sites for chemical reactions to take place. These reactions can lead to the destruction of stratospheric ozone.
- Aerosols serve as cloud condensation nuclei (CCN) and thus have a substantial effect on cloud properties and the initiation of precipitation. Large concentrations of human-made aerosols have been reported to impact rainfall as a result of their radiative and CCN activities.
- Aerosols reduce the speed of winds near the earth’s surface, thus leading to a reduction in rainfall. The more is the aerosol pollution, the greater the reduction in rainfall.
- Recently, a team of Indian and international researchers have found that aerosols, dust, and clouds reduce solar energy generation from photovoltaic and rooftop solar installations resulting in substantial economic impact through financial losses.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Which of the following statements with respect to the SAMARTH Scheme is/are correct?
- It intends to provide skill development and placement-oriented training across the entire textiles value chain including spinning and weaving in the organised sector.
- The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship.
Options:
Correct
- It intends to provide skill development and placement-oriented training across the entire textiles value chain excluding spinning and weaving in the organised sector.
- The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Textiles.
Samarth Scheme – Scheme For Capacity Building In Textile Sector (SCBTS)
Incorrect
- It intends to provide skill development and placement-oriented training across the entire textiles value chain excluding spinning and weaving in the organised sector.
- The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Textiles.
Samarth Scheme – Scheme For Capacity Building In Textile Sector (SCBTS)
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Which of the given statements with respect to the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) is/are correct?
- It is a statutory body set up for maintaining financial stability, enhancing inter-regulatory coordination and promoting financial sector development.
- The Council is chaired by NITI Aayog Chairman.
- RBI Governor and Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) Chairman are among its members.
Options:
Correct
- It is an apex-level body that was constituted through an executive order in 2010 and works under the Ministry of Finance.
- It is not a statutory body.
- It was set up for maintaining financial stability, enhancing inter-regulatory coordination and promoting financial sector development.
- The Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister.
- Its members are the Governor of Reserve Bank of India; Finance Secretary and/or Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs; Secretary, Department of Financial Services; Chief Economic Adviser, Ministry of Finance; Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India; Chairman, Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority and Chairman, Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority. It also includes the chairman of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board (IBBI).
Incorrect
- It is an apex-level body that was constituted through an executive order in 2010 and works under the Ministry of Finance.
- It is not a statutory body.
- It was set up for maintaining financial stability, enhancing inter-regulatory coordination and promoting financial sector development.
- The Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister.
- Its members are the Governor of Reserve Bank of India; Finance Secretary and/or Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs; Secretary, Department of Financial Services; Chief Economic Adviser, Ministry of Finance; Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India; Chairman, Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority and Chairman, Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority. It also includes the chairman of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board (IBBI).
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, what is the implication? [UPSC 2020]
Correct
- The Indian Parliament enacted the Wildlife (Protection) Act in 1972, which provides for the safeguard and protection of the wildlife (flora and fauna) in the country.
- Schedule VI of WPA 1972 contains the plants which are prohibited from cultivation and planting. Cultivation of specified plants without a licence is prohibited.
Incorrect
- The Indian Parliament enacted the Wildlife (Protection) Act in 1972, which provides for the safeguard and protection of the wildlife (flora and fauna) in the country.
- Schedule VI of WPA 1972 contains the plants which are prohibited from cultivation and planting. Cultivation of specified plants without a licence is prohibited.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
With reference to Bye-elections, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It should be held within a period of six months from the date of the occurrence of the vacancy
- Elections need not be conducted if the remainder of the term of a member in relation to a vacancy is less than one year
Options:
Correct
- A bye-election is an election used to fill an office that has become vacant between general elections.
- A vacancy may arise as a result of an incumbent dying or resigning, or when the incumbent becomes ineligible to continue in office or when an election is invalidated by voting irregularities.
- In the Indian context, bye-election should be held within a period of six months from the date of the occurrence of the vacancy of a MLA/MP.
- Elections need not be conducted if the remainder of the term of a member in relation to a vacancy is less than one year.
Incorrect
- A bye-election is an election used to fill an office that has become vacant between general elections.
- A vacancy may arise as a result of an incumbent dying or resigning, or when the incumbent becomes ineligible to continue in office or when an election is invalidated by voting irregularities.
- In the Indian context, bye-election should be held within a period of six months from the date of the occurrence of the vacancy of a MLA/MP.
- Elections need not be conducted if the remainder of the term of a member in relation to a vacancy is less than one year.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Which one among the following statements best describes the Hycean planet?
Correct
- A study published in The Astrophysical Journal identifies a new class of exoplanets termed Hycean worlds.
- Exoplanets are planets that orbit other stars. These exoplanets are a prime target for the search for life beyond Earth.
- The Hycean worlds have planet-wide oceans and have temperatures as high as 200 degrees Celsius. These planets have a hydrogen-rich atmosphere.
- These exoplanets could support microbial underwater life.
Incorrect
- A study published in The Astrophysical Journal identifies a new class of exoplanets termed Hycean worlds.
- Exoplanets are planets that orbit other stars. These exoplanets are a prime target for the search for life beyond Earth.
- The Hycean worlds have planet-wide oceans and have temperatures as high as 200 degrees Celsius. These planets have a hydrogen-rich atmosphere.
- These exoplanets could support microbial underwater life.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Which of the following is/are correctly matched?
- Mutualism- Both species benefit
- Amensalism- One species benefits, the other is unaffected
- Commensalism- One species is harmed, the other is unaffected
Options:
Correct
- Amensalism- One species is harmed, the other is unaffected
- Commensalism- One species benefits, the other is unaffected
Incorrect
- Amensalism- One species is harmed, the other is unaffected
- Commensalism- One species benefits, the other is unaffected
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to Komodo dragon:
- It is the largest living lizard species in the world
- It is endemic to the Amazon forest
- Komodo National Park was classified as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1991
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
- The Komodo dragon is a member of the monitor lizard family Varanidae that is endemic to some Indonesian islands.
- Found only in the World Heritage-listed Komodo National Park and neighbouring Flores they are listed as “endangered” under IUCN classification.
- Komodo National Park was classified as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1991
- It is the largest extant species of lizard.
Incorrect
- The Komodo dragon is a member of the monitor lizard family Varanidae that is endemic to some Indonesian islands.
- Found only in the World Heritage-listed Komodo National Park and neighbouring Flores they are listed as “endangered” under IUCN classification.
- Komodo National Park was classified as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1991
- It is the largest extant species of lizard.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
The national motto of India, ‘Satyameva Jayate’ inscribed below the Emblem of India is taken from
Correct
- Satyameva Jayate is taken from the Mundaka Upanishad.
- Following the independence of India, it was adopted as the national motto of India. It is inscribed in the Devanagari script at the base of the Lion Capital of Ashoka and forms an integral part of the Indian national emblem.
Incorrect
- Satyameva Jayate is taken from the Mundaka Upanishad.
- Following the independence of India, it was adopted as the national motto of India. It is inscribed in the Devanagari script at the base of the Lion Capital of Ashoka and forms an integral part of the Indian national emblem.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Consider the following statements:
- The Khilafat movement was launched under the leadership of the Ali Brothers.
- The Treaty of Versailles was a treaty signed between the Allies of World War I and the Ottoman Empire.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Khilafat movement was initiated under the leadership of the two Ali brothers namely Mohammed Ali and Shaukat Ali, Maulana Azad, Hakim Ajmal Khan and Hasrat Mohani. The movement was started to support the Sultan of Turkey whom the Muslim population in India considered their religious head.
- The Treaty of Versailles, signed in June 1919 at the Palace of Versailles in Paris at the end of World War I, codified peace terms between the victorious Allies and Germany.
Incorrect
- Khilafat movement was initiated under the leadership of the two Ali brothers namely Mohammed Ali and Shaukat Ali, Maulana Azad, Hakim Ajmal Khan and Hasrat Mohani. The movement was started to support the Sultan of Turkey whom the Muslim population in India considered their religious head.
- The Treaty of Versailles, signed in June 1919 at the Palace of Versailles in Paris at the end of World War I, codified peace terms between the victorious Allies and Germany.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Which of the following is/are the applications of Doppler radar?
- Radiology and healthcare
- Weather Forecasting
- Submarines
- Aviation
Options:
Correct
- Doppler weather radars are remote sensing instruments and are capable of detecting particle type (rain, snow, hail, insects, etc), intensity, and motion. Radar data can be used to determine the structure of storms and to help with predicting the severity of storms.
- Doppler radars also find usage in the radiology and healthcare sector as well as the aviation sector.
- Submarines use Sonar radars (based on sound waves).
Incorrect
- Doppler weather radars are remote sensing instruments and are capable of detecting particle type (rain, snow, hail, insects, etc), intensity, and motion. Radar data can be used to determine the structure of storms and to help with predicting the severity of storms.
- Doppler radars also find usage in the radiology and healthcare sector as well as the aviation sector.
- Submarines use Sonar radars (based on sound waves).
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Consider the following statements:
- He founded the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company (SSNC) in 1906 to compete against the monopoly of the British India Steam Navigation Company.
- He was a great believer in the Swadeshi movement.
- He is sometimes called ‘Kappalottiya Tamilan’.
The above statements best describe:
Correct
- Valliyappan Ulaganathan Chidambaram Pillai, popularly known by his initials, V.O. Chidambaram Pillai (also known as Kappalottiya Tamizhan or “The Tamil Helmsman”), was an Indian freedom fighter and leader of the Indian National Congress.
- He was a great believer in the Swadeshi movement.
- He founded the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company in 1906 to compete against the monopoly of the British India Steam Navigation Company. He launched the first indigenous Indian shipping service between Tuticorin and Colombo with the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company (SSNC), competing against British ships.
Incorrect
- Valliyappan Ulaganathan Chidambaram Pillai, popularly known by his initials, V.O. Chidambaram Pillai (also known as Kappalottiya Tamizhan or “The Tamil Helmsman”), was an Indian freedom fighter and leader of the Indian National Congress.
- He was a great believer in the Swadeshi movement.
- He founded the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company in 1906 to compete against the monopoly of the British India Steam Navigation Company. He launched the first indigenous Indian shipping service between Tuticorin and Colombo with the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company (SSNC), competing against British ships.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
- The University Education Commission was set up in 1948 under the Chairmanship of Dr. S Radhakrishnan.
- It recommended the establishment of the University Grants Commission along similar lines to the University Grants Committee of the United Kingdom.
Options:
Correct
- The Government of India appointed a University Education Commission under the chairmanship of Dr. S Radhakrishnan in November 1948. The Commission made a number of significant recommendations on various aspects of higher education and submitted its report in August 1949.
- It recommended the establishment of the University Grants Commission along similar lines to the University Grants Committee of the United Kingdom.
Incorrect
- The Government of India appointed a University Education Commission under the chairmanship of Dr. S Radhakrishnan in November 1948. The Commission made a number of significant recommendations on various aspects of higher education and submitted its report in August 1949.
- It recommended the establishment of the University Grants Commission along similar lines to the University Grants Committee of the United Kingdom.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?
- Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
- Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
- Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
- The Cabinet Secretariat functions directly under the Prime Minister. The administrative head of the Secretariat is the Cabinet Secretary who is also the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
- The business allocated to Cabinet Secretariat under Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 includes Secretarial assistance to the Cabinet and Cabinet Committees.
- The Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for the administration of the Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961 and Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 facilitating smooth transaction of business in Ministries/Departments.
- The Secretariat assists in decision-making in Government by ensuring Inter-Ministerial coordination, ironing out differences amongst Ministries/Departments and evolving consensus through the instrumentality of the standing/ad hoc Committees of Secretaries.
- Management of major crisis situations in the country and coordinating activities of various ministries in such a situation is also one of the functions of the Cabinet Secretariat.
- Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries is not a function of the Cabinet Secretariat.
Incorrect
- The Cabinet Secretariat functions directly under the Prime Minister. The administrative head of the Secretariat is the Cabinet Secretary who is also the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
- The business allocated to Cabinet Secretariat under Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 includes Secretarial assistance to the Cabinet and Cabinet Committees.
- The Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for the administration of the Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961 and Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 facilitating smooth transaction of business in Ministries/Departments.
- The Secretariat assists in decision-making in Government by ensuring Inter-Ministerial coordination, ironing out differences amongst Ministries/Departments and evolving consensus through the instrumentality of the standing/ad hoc Committees of Secretaries.
- Management of major crisis situations in the country and coordinating activities of various ministries in such a situation is also one of the functions of the Cabinet Secretariat.
- Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries is not a function of the Cabinet Secretariat.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Which is the best description of NAMASYA Mobile App?
Correct
- National Aluminium Company Ltd (NALCO) is a Navratna CPSE under the Ministry of Mines.
- It has been playing a key role in empowering the Micro and Small Enterprises (MSEs) by providing a modern & innovative platform ‘NALCO Micro and Small enterprise Yogayog Application’ (NAMASYA).
- It is a bi-lingual App developed exclusively for the benefit of the Company’s MSE Vendors.
- The NAMASYA App provides a platform to highlight the Company’s efforts towards the development of MSEs.
- The App empowers MSEs with required information about the vendor registration process, items that can be supplied by them with technical specifications, vendor development and training programmes of NALCO.
Incorrect
- National Aluminium Company Ltd (NALCO) is a Navratna CPSE under the Ministry of Mines.
- It has been playing a key role in empowering the Micro and Small Enterprises (MSEs) by providing a modern & innovative platform ‘NALCO Micro and Small enterprise Yogayog Application’ (NAMASYA).
- It is a bi-lingual App developed exclusively for the benefit of the Company’s MSE Vendors.
- The NAMASYA App provides a platform to highlight the Company’s efforts towards the development of MSEs.
- The App empowers MSEs with required information about the vendor registration process, items that can be supplied by them with technical specifications, vendor development and training programmes of NALCO.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Consider the following pairs:
Operation Objective
- Samudra Setu – national effort to repatriate Indian citizens from overseas during the COVID-19 pandemic
- Pawan – military operation undertaken by the IPKF to take control of the Jaffna Peninsula
- Maitri – rescue and relief mission in quake-hit Nepal
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Operation Samudra Setu:
Operation Pawan:
Operation Maitri:
- It is the name of the rescue and relief operation in Nepal that was undertaken by the Government of India and Indian Armed Forces in the aftershock of the 2015 Nepal earthquake.
Incorrect
Operation Samudra Setu:
Operation Pawan:
Operation Maitri:
- It is the name of the rescue and relief operation in Nepal that was undertaken by the Government of India and Indian Armed Forces in the aftershock of the 2015 Nepal earthquake.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
With reference to Manda buffalo, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- They are found in the Western Ghats.
- The Manda are resistant to parasitic infections and are less prone to diseases.
Options:
Correct
- The National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources (NBAGR), an Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) institute, has recognised the Manda buffalo, as one of the unique breeds of buffaloes found in India.
- It is found in the Eastern Ghats and plateau of the Koraput region of Odisha.
Incorrect
- The National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources (NBAGR), an Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) institute, has recognised the Manda buffalo, as one of the unique breeds of buffaloes found in India.
- It is found in the Eastern Ghats and plateau of the Koraput region of Odisha.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Consider the following statements:
- It is a landlocked country.
- It is bordered by Russia to the east and northeast, and by Ukraine to the south.
- It is not a member of the European Union.
The above statements describe:
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Consider the following pairs:
Region Well-known for the production of
- Kinnaur: Areca nut
- Mewat: Mango
- Coromandel: Soya bean
Which of the above pairs is/ are correctly matched? (UPSC 2014)
Correct
- Kinnaur is known for Apples. It is in Himachal Pradesh.
- Mewat in Haryana is not known for Mangoes.
- Coromandel in Tamil Nadu is known for many agricultural crops but not Soya Bean.
- The production of soybean in India is dominated by Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh.
Incorrect
- Kinnaur is known for Apples. It is in Himachal Pradesh.
- Mewat in Haryana is not known for Mangoes.
- Coromandel in Tamil Nadu is known for many agricultural crops but not Soya Bean.
- The production of soybean in India is dominated by Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Which of the following are the applications of Turmeric?
- Food colouring agent
- Flavouring agent
- Dyeing agent
- Traditional medicine
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Correct
- Turmeric has a warm, bitter taste and is frequently used to flavour or colour curry powders, mustards, butters, and cheeses.
- Turmeric provides a natural dye to colour cloth, leather, silk, palm fibre, wool and cotton.
- Because curcumin and other chemicals in turmeric might decrease swelling, it is often used to treat conditions that involve pain and inflammation. Turmeric is used as a herbal medicine for rheumatoid arthritis, chronic anterior uveitis, conjunctivitis, skin cancer, small pox, chicken pox, wound healing, urinary tract infections, and liver ailments.
Incorrect
- Turmeric has a warm, bitter taste and is frequently used to flavour or colour curry powders, mustards, butters, and cheeses.
- Turmeric provides a natural dye to colour cloth, leather, silk, palm fibre, wool and cotton.
- Because curcumin and other chemicals in turmeric might decrease swelling, it is often used to treat conditions that involve pain and inflammation. Turmeric is used as a herbal medicine for rheumatoid arthritis, chronic anterior uveitis, conjunctivitis, skin cancer, small pox, chicken pox, wound healing, urinary tract infections, and liver ailments.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Which of the following statements are incorrect?
- The United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) is a UN agency mandated to aid and protect refugees, forcibly displaced communities, and stateless people.
- It was created in 1950 to address the refugee crisis that resulted from World War II.
- The 1951 Refugee Convention established the scope and legal framework of the agency’s work, which initially focused on Europeans uprooted by the war.
- India is not a party to the 1951 Refugee Convention.
Options:
Correct
- Established in 1950 after the end of WWII, the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees is a UN agency mandated to help and protect refugees, internally displaced and stateless people, and to assist in their voluntary repatriation, local integration or resettlement to a third country.
- It was created in 1950 to address the refugee crisis that resulted from World War II.
- The 1951 Refugee Convention and its 1967 Protocol are the key legal documents that form the basis of UNHCR work. With 149 State parties to either or both, they define the term ‘refugee’ and outlines the rights of refugees, as well as the legal obligations of States to protect them.
- India is not a party to the 1951 Refugee Convention or its 1967 Protocol and does not have a national refugee protection framework. However, it continues to grant asylum to a large number of refugees from neighbouring States and respects UNHCR’s mandate for other nationals, mainly from Afghanistan and Myanmar.
Incorrect
- Established in 1950 after the end of WWII, the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees is a UN agency mandated to help and protect refugees, internally displaced and stateless people, and to assist in their voluntary repatriation, local integration or resettlement to a third country.
- It was created in 1950 to address the refugee crisis that resulted from World War II.
- The 1951 Refugee Convention and its 1967 Protocol are the key legal documents that form the basis of UNHCR work. With 149 State parties to either or both, they define the term ‘refugee’ and outlines the rights of refugees, as well as the legal obligations of States to protect them.
- India is not a party to the 1951 Refugee Convention or its 1967 Protocol and does not have a national refugee protection framework. However, it continues to grant asylum to a large number of refugees from neighbouring States and respects UNHCR’s mandate for other nationals, mainly from Afghanistan and Myanmar.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Which constitutional provision provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats?
Correct
- Article 243D of the Indian Constitution deals with the reservation of seats in Panchayats.
- It lays down provisions for reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes and women.
Incorrect
- Article 243D of the Indian Constitution deals with the reservation of seats in Panchayats.
- It lays down provisions for reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes and women.
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
What does the ‘Vidyanjali 2.0 portal’ provide for?
Correct
- The recently launched Vidyanjali 2.0 portal will help facilitate private donors, corporate social responsibility contributions and volunteering activities towards school education in India. Thus the portal would help coordinate private contributions for school development.
- The increased private sector participation will help increase the quality of education in government schools.
Incorrect
- The recently launched Vidyanjali 2.0 portal will help facilitate private donors, corporate social responsibility contributions and volunteering activities towards school education in India. Thus the portal would help coordinate private contributions for school development.
- The increased private sector participation will help increase the quality of education in government schools.
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
The term ‘Base Erosion and Profit Shifting’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of (UPSC-2016)
Correct
- Base erosion and profit shifting (BEPS) refers to tax planning strategies used by multinational enterprises that exploit gaps and mismatches in tax rules to avoid paying tax.
Incorrect
- Base erosion and profit shifting (BEPS) refers to tax planning strategies used by multinational enterprises that exploit gaps and mismatches in tax rules to avoid paying tax.
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
With reference to Minimum Support Price (MSP), which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Minimum Support Price was introduced by the Centre for the first time in the year 1991 to reduce the impact on farming because of LPG reforms.
- The government announces the MSP at the start of each cropping season.
- MSP doesn’t have any legal stature.
Options:
Correct
- MSP for the first time was introduced in the 1960s to incentivise the farmers and boost production.
- The minimum support prices are announced by the Government of India at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
- There is no statutory backing for these prices or any law mandating their implementation.
Incorrect
- MSP for the first time was introduced in the 1960s to incentivise the farmers and boost production.
- The minimum support prices are announced by the Government of India at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
- There is no statutory backing for these prices or any law mandating their implementation.
-
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Therukoothu, a street theatre form, is practised in the State of
Correct
- It is a street theatre form practised in the State of Tamil Nadu.
- The stories are derived from the Puranas, the Mahabharata, and the Ramayana.
Incorrect
- It is a street theatre form practised in the State of Tamil Nadu.
- The stories are derived from the Puranas, the Mahabharata, and the Ramayana.
-
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Which of the following pollutants is/are emitted from cement industries?
- Particulate Matter
- Carbon Monoxide
- Sulphur Dioxide
- Nitrogen Dioxide
Options:
Correct
- The cement industry has been categorized as a highly polluting industry by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB).
- The main pollutants emitted from cement industries include Particulate Matter, Carbon Monoxide, Sulphur Dioxide (SO2) and Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2).
Incorrect
- The cement industry has been categorized as a highly polluting industry by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB).
- The main pollutants emitted from cement industries include Particulate Matter, Carbon Monoxide, Sulphur Dioxide (SO2) and Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2).
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to PMGDISHA Scheme:
- It is applicable only to rural areas of the country.
- The implementation of the Scheme would be carried out under the overall supervision of the Ministry of Rural Development.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
With reference to the cultural history of India, the term ‘Panchayatan’ refers to (2014)
Correct
- The main shrine is built on a rectangular plinth with four subsidiary shrines that are smaller and at the 4 corners.
- There are a total of five shrines and hence the name, Panchayatana.
Incorrect
- The main shrine is built on a rectangular plinth with four subsidiary shrines that are smaller and at the 4 corners.
- There are a total of five shrines and hence the name, Panchayatana.
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