UPSC 2024: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Dec 23 – Dec 29 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Current Affairs Monthly Magazine (Nov 2023)
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UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from Dec 23 – Dec 29 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.
Post your scores in the comment section below!
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UPSC 2024: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Dec 23 – Dec 29
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyWhich amongst the following plants is/are categorised as critically endangered in the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species?
- Meizotropis pellita
- Fritilloria cirrhosa
- Dactylorhiza hatagirea
Options:
Correct
- Three medicinal plant species found in the Himalayas have made it to the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
- Meizotropis pellita: Critically endangered
- Fritilloria cirrhosa: Vulnerable
- Dactylorhiza hatagirea: Endangered
Incorrect
- Three medicinal plant species found in the Himalayas have made it to the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
- Meizotropis pellita: Critically endangered
- Fritilloria cirrhosa: Vulnerable
- Dactylorhiza hatagirea: Endangered
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Category: EconomyWhich amongst the following statements is the best description of Supplementary Grant?
Correct
- The Supplementary grant refers to the grant required to meet the required expenditure of the government.
- The Supplementary grant is granted when the amount authorised by the Parliament through the appropriation act for a particular service for the current financial year is found to be insufficient for that year.
Incorrect
- The Supplementary grant refers to the grant required to meet the required expenditure of the government.
- The Supplementary grant is granted when the amount authorised by the Parliament through the appropriation act for a particular service for the current financial year is found to be insufficient for that year.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements:
- The Concept of Single Citizenship is borrowed from the British Constitution.
- The citizenship of India can be acquired in four ways.
- Citizenship ends if the citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for seven years continuously.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, In India, the concept of single citizenship is adopted from the British Constitution that is from the United Kingdom.
- Statement 2 is not correct, There are five ways in which Indian citizenship can be acquired namely:
- By Birth
- By Acquisition or Incorporation of Territory
- By Descent
- By Registration
- By Naturalization
- Statement 3 is correct, The Union Government may, by order, deprive any such citizen of Indian citizenship if the citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for a continuous period of seven years, and during that period has neither:
-
- been at any time a student of any educational institution in a country outside India, nor
- In the service of a Government in India, nor
- In the service of an international organisation of which India is a member, nor
- Registered annually in the prescribed manner at an Indian consulate
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, In India, the concept of single citizenship is adopted from the British Constitution that is from the United Kingdom.
- Statement 2 is not correct, There are five ways in which Indian citizenship can be acquired namely:
- By Birth
- By Acquisition or Incorporation of Territory
- By Descent
- By Registration
- By Naturalization
- Statement 3 is correct, The Union Government may, by order, deprive any such citizen of Indian citizenship if the citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for a continuous period of seven years, and during that period has neither:
-
- been at any time a student of any educational institution in a country outside India, nor
- In the service of a Government in India, nor
- In the service of an international organisation of which India is a member, nor
- Registered annually in the prescribed manner at an Indian consulate
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Category: Art and CultureThe world’s second tallest statue in sitting pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently. Which one of the following statements correctly represents the teachings of Ramanuja? PYQ (2022)
Correct
- Ramanuja was influenced by the Alvars and he firmly believed that intense devotion to Vishnu was the best means to attain salvation.
Incorrect
- Ramanuja was influenced by the Alvars and he firmly believed that intense devotion to Vishnu was the best means to attain salvation.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Category: Art and CultureConsider the following statements with respect to Indian Classical Music: (Level-Difficult)
- Veena and Mandolin are musical instruments that complement Hindustani Music.
- Both Hindustani and Carnatic music use a Tanpura to signify the pitch.
- The history of Indian music can be derived from Natya Shastra, written by Bharatha Muni.
How many of the given statements is/are INCORRECT?
Correct
- Statement 01 is incorrect, The main instruments used in carnatic music are Mridangam, Veena, and Mandolin.
- Statement 02 is correct, The tanpura is a drone instrument of Indian music prevalent in both the Hindustani and the Carnatic systems. It plays an important role in a concert of classical music by providing the base note (adharaswara) and by creating an aesthetic ambience on the stage.
- Statement 03 is correct, Natyashastra is the earliest literature on music and drama – written somewhere around 500 BC by Bharata Muni. Comprising 6000 couplets in Sanskrit and spread over thirty-six chapters, Natyashastra’s focus was on dance and drama, with music as an aid.
Read more on Difference between Hindustani and Carnatic Music.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is incorrect, The main instruments used in carnatic music are Mridangam, Veena, and Mandolin.
- Statement 02 is correct, The tanpura is a drone instrument of Indian music prevalent in both the Hindustani and the Carnatic systems. It plays an important role in a concert of classical music by providing the base note (adharaswara) and by creating an aesthetic ambience on the stage.
- Statement 03 is correct, Natyashastra is the earliest literature on music and drama – written somewhere around 500 BC by Bharata Muni. Comprising 6000 couplets in Sanskrit and spread over thirty-six chapters, Natyashastra’s focus was on dance and drama, with music as an aid.
Read more on Difference between Hindustani and Carnatic Music.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyGreat Indian Hornbill is the state bird of how many of the following state/s? (Level-Medium)
- Kerala
- Arunachal Pradesh
- Nagaland
- Sikkim
- Tamil Nadu
Options:
Correct
Hornbill is the state bird of both Arunachal Pradesh and Kerala.
Read more on State Birds Of India
Incorrect
Hornbill is the state bird of both Arunachal Pradesh and Kerala.
Read more on State Birds Of India
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Category: GeographyMalampandaram tribe, recently in news belong to the state of: (Level-Difficult)
Correct
- Malampandaram tribe is a small, nomadic community living in the remote forest in Kerala.
- Fishing and collecting fruits and other edibles from the forest are the main occupations of this community that depends on the forest for all their needs.
Incorrect
- Malampandaram tribe is a small, nomadic community living in the remote forest in Kerala.
- Fishing and collecting fruits and other edibles from the forest are the main occupations of this community that depends on the forest for all their needs.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Category: AgricultureHow many of the given statements is/are INCORRECT? (Level-Medium)
- India is among the largest producers of millets in the world and accounts for over 50% of global millet production.
- Pearl Millet accounts for the largest share of millet crop cultivated in India.
- Millets are resilient to climate change and are photo-insensitive.
- Conditions like anaemia, pellagra can be effectively tackled with millet consumption.
Options:
Correct
Statement 01 is incorrect, India is one of the leading producers of millets in the world with an estimated share of around 41 percent in the global production.
Statement 02 is correct, Major Millets crops grown in India and their percentage share of production are Pearl Millet (Bajra) – 61%, Jowar (Sorghum) – 27%, and Finger Millet (Mandua/Ragi) – 10%.
Statement 03 is correct, Millets are photo-insensitive and resilient to climate change. They are hardy, resilient crops that have low carbon and water footprint.
Statement 04 is correct, Pellagra (niacin deficiency), Anaemia (iron deficiency), B-complex vitamin deficiency can be effectively tackled with intake of less expensive but nutritionally rich food grains like millets.Incorrect
Statement 01 is incorrect, India is one of the leading producers of millets in the world with an estimated share of around 41 percent in the global production.
Statement 02 is correct, Major Millets crops grown in India and their percentage share of production are Pearl Millet (Bajra) – 61%, Jowar (Sorghum) – 27%, and Finger Millet (Mandua/Ragi) – 10%.
Statement 03 is correct, Millets are photo-insensitive and resilient to climate change. They are hardy, resilient crops that have low carbon and water footprint.
Statement 04 is correct, Pellagra (niacin deficiency), Anaemia (iron deficiency), B-complex vitamin deficiency can be effectively tackled with intake of less expensive but nutritionally rich food grains like millets. -
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Category: Art and CultureWith reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (PYQ-CSE-2017) (Level-Medium)
- It is a song and dance performance.
- Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance.
- It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, Manipuri Sankirtana is a form of performing art involving ritual singing, drumming and dancing performed in the temples and domestic spaces in Manipur State of India. It is practised primarily by the Vaishnava community in Manipur.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, Cymbals are not the only musical instruments as Drums are also used in the performance.
- Statement 03 is correct, Through the performances which exhibit unparalleled religious devotion and energy, the performers narrate the many stories of Krishna.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, Manipuri Sankirtana is a form of performing art involving ritual singing, drumming and dancing performed in the temples and domestic spaces in Manipur State of India. It is practised primarily by the Vaishnava community in Manipur.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, Cymbals are not the only musical instruments as Drums are also used in the performance.
- Statement 03 is correct, Through the performances which exhibit unparalleled religious devotion and energy, the performers narrate the many stories of Krishna.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Category: SchemesWhich of the following statements best describes ‘Tele-MANAS’? (Level-Medium)
Correct
- The Tele Mental Health Assistance and Networking Across States (Tele-MANAS) initiative of the Union Ministry of Health and Family Affairs was launched in October 2022.
- Tele-MANAS aims to provide free tele-mental health services all over the country round the clock, particularly catering to people in remote or under-served areas.
- The programme includes a network of 23 tele-mental health centres of excellence, with NIMHANS being the nodal centre and International Institute of Information Technology-Bangalore (IIITB) providing technology support.
- Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Bengaluru and National Health Systems Resource Centre (NHRSC) will provide the technical support.
Incorrect
- The Tele Mental Health Assistance and Networking Across States (Tele-MANAS) initiative of the Union Ministry of Health and Family Affairs was launched in October 2022.
- Tele-MANAS aims to provide free tele-mental health services all over the country round the clock, particularly catering to people in remote or under-served areas.
- The programme includes a network of 23 tele-mental health centres of excellence, with NIMHANS being the nodal centre and International Institute of Information Technology-Bangalore (IIITB) providing technology support.
- Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Bengaluru and National Health Systems Resource Centre (NHRSC) will provide the technical support.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Category: EconomyConsider the following pairs: (Level-Difficult)
Nuclear power plant Location
- Kakrapar Atomic Power Station Maharashtra
- Kalpakkam Atomic Power Station Tamil Nadu
- Narora Atomic Power Station Uttar Pradesh
- Tarapur Atomic Power Station Gujarat
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
- Pair 01 is incorrectly matched, Kakrapar Atomic Power Station is a nuclear power station in Gujarat which lies in the proximity of the Mandvi and Tapi rivers.
- Pair 02 is correctly matched, Kalpakkam/Madras Atomic Power Station is situated in the northern part of Tamil Nadu on the east coast about 70 km south of Chennai.
- Pair 03 is correctly matched, Narora Atomic Power Station (NAPS) is a nuclear power plant located in Narora in Uttar Pradesh.
- Pair 04 is incorrectly matched, Tarapur Atomic Power Station is located in Tarapur, Maharashtra. It was the first commercial nuclear power station built in India.
Read more on the List of Nuclear Power Plants in India.
Incorrect
- Pair 01 is incorrectly matched, Kakrapar Atomic Power Station is a nuclear power station in Gujarat which lies in the proximity of the Mandvi and Tapi rivers.
- Pair 02 is correctly matched, Kalpakkam/Madras Atomic Power Station is situated in the northern part of Tamil Nadu on the east coast about 70 km south of Chennai.
- Pair 03 is correctly matched, Narora Atomic Power Station (NAPS) is a nuclear power plant located in Narora in Uttar Pradesh.
- Pair 04 is incorrectly matched, Tarapur Atomic Power Station is located in Tarapur, Maharashtra. It was the first commercial nuclear power station built in India.
Read more on the List of Nuclear Power Plants in India.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Category: PolityWhich of the following statements with respect to Zero Hour is/are correct? (Level-Medium)
- The zero hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure.
- The zero hour starts immediately after the question hour and lasts until the agenda for the day.
- It is an Indian innovation in the field of parliamentary procedures and has been in existence since 1950.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, Zero Hour is the time when Members of Parliament (MPs) can raise Issues of Urgent Public Importance. It is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure.
- Statement 02 is correct, The zero hour starts immediately after the question hour and lasts until the agenda for the day is taken up.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, Zero Hour is an Indian innovation in the field of parliamentary procedures and has been in existence since 1962.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, Zero Hour is the time when Members of Parliament (MPs) can raise Issues of Urgent Public Importance. It is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure.
- Statement 02 is correct, The zero hour starts immediately after the question hour and lasts until the agenda for the day is taken up.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, Zero Hour is an Indian innovation in the field of parliamentary procedures and has been in existence since 1962.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements: (Level-Difficult)
- An aneurysm is an abnormal bulge or ballooning in the wall of a blood vessel.
- Aneurysms are more commonly seen in arteries than in veins.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
Correct
An aneurysm is a bulging, weakened area in the wall of a blood vessel resulting in an abnormal widening or ballooning greater than 50% of the vessel’s normal diameter (width). An aneurysm may occur in any blood vessel, but is most often seen in an artery rather than a vein.
Incorrect
An aneurysm is a bulging, weakened area in the wall of a blood vessel resulting in an abnormal widening or ballooning greater than 50% of the vessel’s normal diameter (width). An aneurysm may occur in any blood vessel, but is most often seen in an artery rather than a vein.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Category: Current AffairsConsider the following statements: (CSE-PYQ-2022) (Level-Difficult)
- Gujarat has the largest solar park in India.
- Kerala has a fully solar-powered international airport.
- Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 01 is incorrect, Bhadla Solar Park in Rajasthan, with a capacity of 2245 MW, is the world’s largest solar park.
- Statement 02 is correct, Cochin International Airport, Kerala is the first airport in the world that operates completely on solar power. It is India’s first airport built under a public-private partnership (PPP) model. This plant is also the first Megawatt scale installation of a Solar PV system in the State of Kerala.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, Andhra Pradesh has India’s largest floating solar power plant. State-run National Thermal Power Corporation Limited (NTPC) started operations at India’s largest floating solar PV project at its Simhadri thermal station in Visakhapatnam.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is incorrect, Bhadla Solar Park in Rajasthan, with a capacity of 2245 MW, is the world’s largest solar park.
- Statement 02 is correct, Cochin International Airport, Kerala is the first airport in the world that operates completely on solar power. It is India’s first airport built under a public-private partnership (PPP) model. This plant is also the first Megawatt scale installation of a Solar PV system in the State of Kerala.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, Andhra Pradesh has India’s largest floating solar power plant. State-run National Thermal Power Corporation Limited (NTPC) started operations at India’s largest floating solar PV project at its Simhadri thermal station in Visakhapatnam.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyQ1. Consider the following statements: (Level-Medium)
- Each person’s DNA, except for identical twins, is unique.
- DNA can be extracted from clothes, linen and combs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, Every person’s DNA, except for identical twins, is unique. By analyzing selected DNA sequences (called loci), a crime laboratory can develop a profile to be used in identifying a suspect.
- Statement 02 is correct, DNA can be extracted from many sources, such as hair, bone, teeth, saliva, and blood.
- Because there is DNA in most cells in the human body, even a minuscule amount of bodily fluid or tissue can yield useful information. Samples may even be extracted from used clothes, linen, combs, or other frequently used items.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, Every person’s DNA, except for identical twins, is unique. By analyzing selected DNA sequences (called loci), a crime laboratory can develop a profile to be used in identifying a suspect.
- Statement 02 is correct, DNA can be extracted from many sources, such as hair, bone, teeth, saliva, and blood.
- Because there is DNA in most cells in the human body, even a minuscule amount of bodily fluid or tissue can yield useful information. Samples may even be extracted from used clothes, linen, combs, or other frequently used items.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Category: International RelationsWhich among the following statements is the best description of the EAGLE Act? (Level-Difficult)
Correct
The (Equal Access to Green Card for Legal Employment) EAGLE Act of 2022 will allow US employers to focus on recruiting immigrants based on ‘merit’ over ‘birthplace’ by eliminating the “per country” limitation on employment-based immigrant visas (green cards).
- A green card, issued to immigrants, allows them to live and work in the United States on a permanent basis. The card serves as evidence that the holder has been accorded the privilege of residing permanently.
Incorrect
The (Equal Access to Green Card for Legal Employment) EAGLE Act of 2022 will allow US employers to focus on recruiting immigrants based on ‘merit’ over ‘birthplace’ by eliminating the “per country” limitation on employment-based immigrant visas (green cards).
- A green card, issued to immigrants, allows them to live and work in the United States on a permanent basis. The card serves as evidence that the holder has been accorded the privilege of residing permanently.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Category: PolityWith respect to Court vacations, which of the following statements is/are correct? (Level-Difficult)
- High Courts have the power to structure their calendars according to the service rules.
- A Vacation Bench of the Supreme Court is a special bench constituted by the Chief Justice of India.
- Justice Malimath Committee, set up to recommend reforms in the criminal justice system suggested that the period of vacation should be reduced.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, High Courts have the power to structure their calendars according to the service rules. The Supreme Court has 193 working days a year for its judicial functioning, while the High Courts function for approximately 210 days, and trial courts for 245 days.
- Statement 02 is correct, Vacation Benches are Special Benches designated by the Chief Justice of India during summer and winter holidays to hear ‘urgent matters’, which include pleas concerning bail, habeas corpus and other fundamental rights issues.
- Statement 03 is correct. In 2000, the Justice Malimath Committee suggested that the period of vacation should be reduced by 21 days, keeping in mind the long pendency of cases.
- It suggested that the Supreme Court work for 206 days, and High Courts for 231 days every year.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, High Courts have the power to structure their calendars according to the service rules. The Supreme Court has 193 working days a year for its judicial functioning, while the High Courts function for approximately 210 days, and trial courts for 245 days.
- Statement 02 is correct, Vacation Benches are Special Benches designated by the Chief Justice of India during summer and winter holidays to hear ‘urgent matters’, which include pleas concerning bail, habeas corpus and other fundamental rights issues.
- Statement 03 is correct. In 2000, the Justice Malimath Committee suggested that the period of vacation should be reduced by 21 days, keeping in mind the long pendency of cases.
- It suggested that the Supreme Court work for 206 days, and High Courts for 231 days every year.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Category: Art and CultureConsider the following Pairs: (Level-Difficult)
GI Product State
- Gamosa Assam
- Alibag White Onion Maharashtra
- Tandur Red gram Telangana
- Kodungallur Pottuvellari Kerala
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
- Nine new items, including gamocha of Assam, Tandur red gram of Telangana, Raktsey Karpo apricot of Ladakh, Alibag white onion of Maharashtra and Kodungalloor Pottuvellari (snap melon) from Kerala have been given the GI tag recently.
Incorrect
- Nine new items, including gamocha of Assam, Tandur red gram of Telangana, Raktsey Karpo apricot of Ladakh, Alibag white onion of Maharashtra and Kodungalloor Pottuvellari (snap melon) from Kerala have been given the GI tag recently.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Category: PolityIf a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (CSE-PYQ-2022) (Level-Medium)
Correct
5th Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration and control of certain areas called Scheduled and Tribal Areas in all Indian states except Mizoram, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Assam.
- Under this, the Governor can make regulations for the peace and good government of a scheduled area after consulting the tribes advisory council. Such regulations may prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by tribal to non-tribal members or among members of the scheduled tribes, and regulate the allotment of land to members of the scheduled tribes.
Read more on the 5th and 6th Schedules.
Incorrect
5th Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration and control of certain areas called Scheduled and Tribal Areas in all Indian states except Mizoram, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Assam.
- Under this, the Governor can make regulations for the peace and good government of a scheduled area after consulting the tribes advisory council. Such regulations may prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by tribal to non-tribal members or among members of the scheduled tribes, and regulate the allotment of land to members of the scheduled tribes.
Read more on the 5th and 6th Schedules.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Category: Current AffairsConsider the following statements with respect to Business Responsibility and Sustainability Reporting: (Level-Difficult)
- It was launched by the Securities and Exchange Board of India to ensure an organisation’s commitment to sustainability and its reporting at par with financial reporting.
- It is applicable to the top 1000 listed entities by market capitalization and was made mandatory since its introduction in 2021.
- It is a part of the larger – Business Responsibility Report (BRR) introduced for non-financial reporting.
How many of the given statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, Sustainable Reporting is the disclosure and communication of environmental, social, and governance(ESG) goals. It also includes the company’s progress towards ESG goals. It was launched by the Securities and Exchange Board of India to ensure an organisation’s commitment to sustainability and its reporting at par with financial reporting.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, SEBI has mandated that the BRSR will be applicable to the top 1,000 listed entities by market capitalisation for reporting on a voluntary basis for FY 2021–22 and on a mandatory basis from FY 2022–23.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, the Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR) will replace the existing Business Responsibility Report (BRR).
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, Sustainable Reporting is the disclosure and communication of environmental, social, and governance(ESG) goals. It also includes the company’s progress towards ESG goals. It was launched by the Securities and Exchange Board of India to ensure an organisation’s commitment to sustainability and its reporting at par with financial reporting.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, SEBI has mandated that the BRSR will be applicable to the top 1,000 listed entities by market capitalisation for reporting on a voluntary basis for FY 2021–22 and on a mandatory basis from FY 2022–23.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, the Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR) will replace the existing Business Responsibility Report (BRR).
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Which of the following is the application of ‘Glyphosate’ recently seen in news: (Level-Medium)
Correct
The Union Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare has restricted the use of glyphosate, a widely used herbicide, citing health hazards for humans and animals.
- Herbicide is an agent, usually chemical, for killing or inhibiting the growth of unwanted plants, such as residential or agricultural weeds and invasive species
Incorrect
The Union Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare has restricted the use of glyphosate, a widely used herbicide, citing health hazards for humans and animals.
- Herbicide is an agent, usually chemical, for killing or inhibiting the growth of unwanted plants, such as residential or agricultural weeds and invasive species
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following pairs with respect to the protection status of Olive Ridley Turtles: (Level-Difficult)
- Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Scheduled 1
- IUCN Red List: Critically Endangered
- CITES: Appendix I
How many of the given pairs is/are correctly matched?
Correct
- Protection Status of Olive Ridley Turtles
- Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Scheduled 1
- IUCN Red List: Vulnerable
- CITES: Appendix I
Incorrect
- Protection Status of Olive Ridley Turtles
- Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Scheduled 1
- IUCN Red List: Vulnerable
- CITES: Appendix I
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Category: GeographyHow many of these countries border Peru? (Level-Medium)
- Bolivia
- Brazil
- Chile
- Colombia
- Ecuador
Options:
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Category: Art and CultureConsider the following pairs: (CSE-PYQ=2017) (Level-Difficult )
Traditions Communities
- Chaliha Sahib Festival Sindhis
- Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra Gonds
- Wari-Warkari Santhals
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
- Pair 01 is correctly matched, Chaliha is the most important festival for the Sindhi community. Chailo Sahib or Chaliha is a forty-day festival which falls in the months of July – August when Sindhis observe fast for forty days to please their God Jhulelal.
- Pair 02 is incorrectly matched, The three-week-long Nanda Devi Raj Jat is a pilgrimage and festival of Uttarakhand. Only the deities of Garhwal Division took part in it. Gonds are not native to Uttarakhand.
- Pair 03 is incorrectly matched, Wari- Warkari is a religious movement within the bhakti spiritual tradition of Hinduism, geographically associated with the Indian state of Maharashtra celebrated by Marathas.
Incorrect
- Pair 01 is correctly matched, Chaliha is the most important festival for the Sindhi community. Chailo Sahib or Chaliha is a forty-day festival which falls in the months of July – August when Sindhis observe fast for forty days to please their God Jhulelal.
- Pair 02 is incorrectly matched, The three-week-long Nanda Devi Raj Jat is a pilgrimage and festival of Uttarakhand. Only the deities of Garhwal Division took part in it. Gonds are not native to Uttarakhand.
- Pair 03 is incorrectly matched, Wari- Warkari is a religious movement within the bhakti spiritual tradition of Hinduism, geographically associated with the Indian state of Maharashtra celebrated by Marathas.
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Category: SchemesWhich of the given statements best describes the Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana:(Level- Medium)
Correct
- Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) is a maternity benefit programme being implemented in all districts of the country since 2017.
- It is a centrally sponsored scheme aimed at pregnant or lactating women aged 19 years or above for the first live birth.
- The programme provides partial compensation for wage loss during childbirth and afterwards during childcare.
- It also aims to provide information on good feeding and nutrition for mother and child pursuant to the National Food Security Act, 2013.
Incorrect
- Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) is a maternity benefit programme being implemented in all districts of the country since 2017.
- It is a centrally sponsored scheme aimed at pregnant or lactating women aged 19 years or above for the first live birth.
- The programme provides partial compensation for wage loss during childbirth and afterwards during childcare.
- It also aims to provide information on good feeding and nutrition for mother and child pursuant to the National Food Security Act, 2013.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Category: SchemesConsider the following statements with respect to the District Mineral Foundation Scheme:(Level- Difficult)
- DMFs are statutory authorities that a State Government sets up in districts affected by mining.
- DMFs are responsible for implementing the Pradhan Mantri Khanij Kshetra Kalyan Yojana (PMKKKY).
- It is funded by mining companies through contribution of 30% of their royalty amount for mining leases.
How many of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct: DMFs are statutory authorities that a State Government sets up in districts affected by mining. These bodies get their legality from Section 9B under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 and its amendment in 2015.
- Statement 2 is correct: A District Mineral Foundation (DMF) is responsible for implementing the Pradhan Mantri Khanij Kshetra Kalyan Yojana (PMKKKY) and other schemes in areas where mining is carried out.
- Statement 3 is correct: Mining companies contribute 30% on the royalty amount that they pay to the government to DMF Trust in the district they are operating in.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct: DMFs are statutory authorities that a State Government sets up in districts affected by mining. These bodies get their legality from Section 9B under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 and its amendment in 2015.
- Statement 2 is correct: A District Mineral Foundation (DMF) is responsible for implementing the Pradhan Mantri Khanij Kshetra Kalyan Yojana (PMKKKY) and other schemes in areas where mining is carried out.
- Statement 3 is correct: Mining companies contribute 30% on the royalty amount that they pay to the government to DMF Trust in the district they are operating in.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyHow many of the given statements is/are correct with respect to United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)? (Level- Medium)
- It is the sole legally binding international agreement linking environment and development to sustainable land management.
- It is one of the three Rio Conventions.
- India has hosted three editions of the UNCCD Conference of Parties.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct: UNCCD was established in 1994. It is the sole legally binding international agreement linking environment and development to sustainable land management.
- Statement 2 is correct: The UNCCD is one of the three Rio Conventions, the other two being Convention on Biological Diversity (UNCBD) and United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
- Statement 3 is incorrect: India has hosted only one edition (UNCCD COP 14) of the UNCCD Conference of parties in 2019. This was the first time that India hosted an edition of the UNCCD COP.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct: UNCCD was established in 1994. It is the sole legally binding international agreement linking environment and development to sustainable land management.
- Statement 2 is correct: The UNCCD is one of the three Rio Conventions, the other two being Convention on Biological Diversity (UNCBD) and United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
- Statement 3 is incorrect: India has hosted only one edition (UNCCD COP 14) of the UNCCD Conference of parties in 2019. This was the first time that India hosted an edition of the UNCCD COP.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Category: GeographyThe Bru tribe is recognised as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups in which of the following states? (Level- Difficult)
- Assam
- Tripura
- Mizoram
Select the correct code:
Correct
- Bru or Reang is a community indigenous to Northeast India, living mostly in Tripura, Mizoram and Assam. However, they are recognised as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group in only Tripura.
Incorrect
- Bru or Reang is a community indigenous to Northeast India, living mostly in Tripura, Mizoram and Assam. However, they are recognised as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group in only Tripura.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Category: HistoryIn the context of Indian history, the principle of “Dyarchy (diarchy)” refers to: (Level- Medium)
Correct
- Dyarchy means Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories.
- Dyarchy system of double government introduced by the Government of India Act (1919) for the provinces of British India. The provincial subjects were divided into two categories viz. reserved and transferred. The reserved subjects were kept with the Governor and transferred subjects were kept with Governor acting with the Indian Ministers.
Incorrect
- Dyarchy means Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories.
- Dyarchy system of double government introduced by the Government of India Act (1919) for the provinces of British India. The provincial subjects were divided into two categories viz. reserved and transferred. The reserved subjects were kept with the Governor and transferred subjects were kept with Governor acting with the Indian Ministers.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Category: International RelationsQ1. India is a signatory to how many of these international treaties and conventions that aim to combat the menace of Drug Abuse: (Level - Difficult)
- United Nations (UN) Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs (1961)
- United Nations (UN) Convention on Psychotropic Substances (1971)
- United Nations (UN) Convention against Illicit Traffic in Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (1988)
- United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) (2000)
Options:
Correct
- India is a signatory to:
- UN Single Convention on Narcotics Drugs 1961
- Convention on Psychotropic Substances, 1971
- Convention on Illicit Traffic in Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances, 1988
- United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC), 2000
Incorrect
- India is a signatory to:
- UN Single Convention on Narcotics Drugs 1961
- Convention on Psychotropic Substances, 1971
- Convention on Illicit Traffic in Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances, 1988
- United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC), 2000
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