UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Dec 31 – Jan 06 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from Dec 31 – Jan 06 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GKÂ and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.
Post your scores in the comment section below!
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UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Dec 31 – Jan 06
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UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Dec 31 – Jan 06
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyWhich amongst the following correctly describes an ‘invasive species’?
Correct
- An invasive species is an organism that has been brought into a new ecosystem and has grown overpopulated, adversely altering its surroundings.
- Invasive species have a negative impact on the habitats and bioregions they invade, inflicting ecological, environmental, and/or economic harm.
- Hence Option A is correct.Â
Incorrect
- An invasive species is an organism that has been brought into a new ecosystem and has grown overpopulated, adversely altering its surroundings.
- Invasive species have a negative impact on the habitats and bioregions they invade, inflicting ecological, environmental, and/or economic harm.
- Hence Option A is correct.Â
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regards to OBC reservation in Maharashtra:
- The Maharashtra government set up a 27 percent quota in local bodies for OBCs in 1994.
- The 27 percent reservation was applicable to all urban (Municipal Corporations, Councils and Nagar Panchayat) and rural bodies (Zilla Parishad, Panchayat Samiti and Gram Panchayat) across the state.
- 73rd and 74th constitutional amendment acts make it compulsory to provide OBCÂ reservation in local bodies of the state.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Correct
- In 1994, the Maharashtra government established a 27% quota for OBCs in local bodies. Hence Statement 1 is correct.Â
- All urban (Municipal Corporations, Councils, and Nagar Panchayat) and rural (Zilla Parishad, Panchayat Samiti, and Gram Panchayat) entities in the state were eligible for the 27% reservation. Hence Statement 2 is correct.Â
- The 73rd and 74th constitutional amendment acts do not make it compulsory to provide OBC reservation in local bodies of the state. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.Â
Incorrect
- In 1994, the Maharashtra government established a 27% quota for OBCs in local bodies. Hence Statement 1 is correct.Â
- All urban (Municipal Corporations, Councils, and Nagar Panchayat) and rural (Zilla Parishad, Panchayat Samiti, and Gram Panchayat) entities in the state were eligible for the 27% reservation. Hence Statement 2 is correct.Â
- The 73rd and 74th constitutional amendment acts do not make it compulsory to provide OBC reservation in local bodies of the state. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.Â
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regards to the AFSPA law:
- It was first introduced by Viceroy Linlithgow in the form of an Ordinance in the wake of the Quit India Movement of 1942.
- Post-Independence, AFSPA was first enacted to deal with the Naga insurgency in the Assam region.
- Section 4 gives the Army powers to search premises and make arrests without warrants, to use force even to the extent of causing death, to destroy arms/ammunition dumps, fortifications/shelters/hideouts and to stop, search and seize any vehicle.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Lord Linlithgow, India’s viceroy, issued the Armed Forces Special Powers (Ordinance) on August 15, 1942, in response to Mahatma Gandhi’s Quit India Movement. Hence Statement 1 is correct.Â
- After independence, Jawaharlal Nehru’s government passed the Armed Forces Special Powers Act (1958) in the Indian parliament in the wake of the Naga insurgency in Assam. Hence Statement 2 is correct.Â
- Section 4 in the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 stands for Special Powers of the armed forces. It empowers the Army to search and arrest anyone without a warrant, to use lethal force, to demolish weapons and ammunition depots, fortifications, shelters, and hideouts, and to stop, search, and seize any vehicle. Hence Statement 3 is correct.Â
Incorrect
- Lord Linlithgow, India’s viceroy, issued the Armed Forces Special Powers (Ordinance) on August 15, 1942, in response to Mahatma Gandhi’s Quit India Movement. Hence Statement 1 is correct.Â
- After independence, Jawaharlal Nehru’s government passed the Armed Forces Special Powers Act (1958) in the Indian parliament in the wake of the Naga insurgency in Assam. Hence Statement 2 is correct.Â
- Section 4 in the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 stands for Special Powers of the armed forces. It empowers the Army to search and arrest anyone without a warrant, to use lethal force, to demolish weapons and ammunition depots, fortifications, shelters, and hideouts, and to stop, search, and seize any vehicle. Hence Statement 3 is correct.Â
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Category: International RelationsIndia observes ‘Maitri Divas’ with reference to which of the following nations?
Correct
- To celebrate the 50th anniversary of the Bangladesh Liberation War of 1971, India and Bangladesh are celebrating ‘Maitri Diwas.’
- Bangladesh was formally recognised as a new country by India on December 6 1971.
- Every year, the two countries observe this day as ‘Maitri Diwas,’ or ‘Friendship Day.’
- Hence Option B is correct.
Incorrect
- To celebrate the 50th anniversary of the Bangladesh Liberation War of 1971, India and Bangladesh are celebrating ‘Maitri Diwas.’
- Bangladesh was formally recognised as a new country by India on December 6 1971.
- Every year, the two countries observe this day as ‘Maitri Diwas,’ or ‘Friendship Day.’
- Hence Option B is correct.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Category: GeographyWith reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:
- Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the country.
- State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.
- State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1: Correct. Sand is a minor mineral, as defined under section 3(e) of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act).
- Statement 2: Incorrect. Section 15 of the MMDR Act empowers state governments to make rules for regulating the grant of mineral concessions in respect of minor minerals and for purposes connected therewith. The regulation of grant of mineral concessions for minor minerals is, therefore, within the legislative and administrative domain of the state governments.
- Statement 3: Correct. As per Section 15 of the MMDR Act, 1957, State Governments have been empowered to frame rules in respect of minor minerals for regulating the grant of quarry leases, mining leases or other mineral concessions in respect of minor minerals and for purposes connected therewith. Both as a consequence of this, and the fact that the States have been granted powers to frame rules regarding illegal mining in terms of Section 23C of MDMR Act, 1957, this is a subject which is entirely under the legislative and administrative jurisdiction of the States.
Incorrect
- Statement 1: Correct. Sand is a minor mineral, as defined under section 3(e) of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act).
- Statement 2: Incorrect. Section 15 of the MMDR Act empowers state governments to make rules for regulating the grant of mineral concessions in respect of minor minerals and for purposes connected therewith. The regulation of grant of mineral concessions for minor minerals is, therefore, within the legislative and administrative domain of the state governments.
- Statement 3: Correct. As per Section 15 of the MMDR Act, 1957, State Governments have been empowered to frame rules in respect of minor minerals for regulating the grant of quarry leases, mining leases or other mineral concessions in respect of minor minerals and for purposes connected therewith. Both as a consequence of this, and the fact that the States have been granted powers to frame rules regarding illegal mining in terms of Section 23C of MDMR Act, 1957, this is a subject which is entirely under the legislative and administrative jurisdiction of the States.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Category: PolityWhich of the following statements is/are correct?
- The Model Code of Conduct is a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission to regulate political parties and candidates during elections.
- It is operational from one month prior to elections to the date of result announcement.
- These guidelines are legally enforceable.
Options:
Correct
- The Model Code of Conduct is a collection of rules developed with the agreement of political parties that have agreed to adhere to the ideas reflected in the code, as well as to respect and observe it in its text and spirit. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- The Model Code of Conduct applies to political parties and candidates during elections and is in effect from the moment the elections are declared by the Commission until the elections are completed. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
- These guidelines are not legally enforceable. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
- The Model Code of Conduct is a collection of rules developed with the agreement of political parties that have agreed to adhere to the ideas reflected in the code, as well as to respect and observe it in its text and spirit. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- The Model Code of Conduct applies to political parties and candidates during elections and is in effect from the moment the elections are declared by the Commission until the elections are completed. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
- These guidelines are not legally enforceable. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Category: G KWhich of the following statements is/are incorrect?
- The International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Assistance (International IDEA) is an intergovernmental organization that works to support and strengthen democratic institutions and processes around the world, to develop sustainable, effective and legitimate democracies.
- It is based out of Stockholm and is an official United Nations Observer.
- India is seeking membership in this organization.
Options:
Correct
- International IDEA (International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Assistance) is an international organization whose mission is to promote and enhance democracy across the world. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- International IDEA works worldwide and is based in Stockholm, Sweden. It also has The Office of the Permanent Observer for International IDEA to the United Nations in New York and The Office of International IDEA to the European Union in Brussels. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- India Joined International IDEA in 1995. Thus, India is not seeking membership in this organization. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
- International IDEA (International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Assistance) is an international organization whose mission is to promote and enhance democracy across the world. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- International IDEA works worldwide and is based in Stockholm, Sweden. It also has The Office of the Permanent Observer for International IDEA to the United Nations in New York and The Office of International IDEA to the European Union in Brussels. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- India Joined International IDEA in 1995. Thus, India is not seeking membership in this organization. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Category: SchemesWhat are the key objectives of the new restructured scheme of Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA)?
- Developing and strengthening the capacities of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) for rural local governance to become more responsive towards local development needs.
- Preparing the participatory plans for PRIs that leverage technology and ensure efficient and optimum utilization of available resources.
- Realizing sustainable solutions to local problems at the panchayat level to achieve the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
Options:
Correct
- Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) was launched for developing and strengthening the capacities of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) for rural local governance to become more responsive towards local development needs. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- It also looks into preparing the participatory plans that leverage technology, efficient and optimum utilization of available resources. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- The key principles of SDGs are addressed by RGSA along with realizing sustainable solutions to local problems at the panchayat level. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
- Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) was launched for developing and strengthening the capacities of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) for rural local governance to become more responsive towards local development needs. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- It also looks into preparing the participatory plans that leverage technology, efficient and optimum utilization of available resources. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- The key principles of SDGs are addressed by RGSA along with realizing sustainable solutions to local problems at the panchayat level. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWhat is the significance of NASA’s LCRD mission?
Correct
NASA launched its new Laser Communications Relay Demonstration (LCRD). LCRD is NASA’s first-ever laser communications system which will demonstrate all of the advantages of using laser systems. Hence Option B is correct.
Incorrect
NASA launched its new Laser Communications Relay Demonstration (LCRD). LCRD is NASA’s first-ever laser communications system which will demonstrate all of the advantages of using laser systems. Hence Option B is correct.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Category: HistoryConsider the following:
- Calcutta Unitarian Committee
- Tabernacle of New Dispensation
- Indian Reform Association
Keshab Chandra Sen is associated with the establishment of which of the above?
Correct
Calcutta Unitarian Committee:Â
- The Calcutta Unitarian Committee was founded in 1823 by Rammohun Roy, Dwarkanath Tagore, and William Adam.
- The Calcutta Unitarian Committee aimed to gather together influential Brahmins as well as European citizens of Calcutta who were Unitarian Christians, to promote religious monotheism. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
Tabernacle of New Dispensation:Â
- In 1868, Keshub Chandra Sen laid the foundation stone of his new church, the Tabernacle of New Dispensation.
- He introduced into the church the Pilgrimage to saints, the Homa ceremony, the Baptismal ceremony, the Lord’s supper, etc.
Indian Reform Association:Â
- On October 29, 1870, the Indian Reform Association was founded, with Keshub Chunder Sen as its first president. It represented the secular side of the Brahmo Samaj and had many non-Brahmo Samaj members.
Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Incorrect
Calcutta Unitarian Committee:Â
- The Calcutta Unitarian Committee was founded in 1823 by Rammohun Roy, Dwarkanath Tagore, and William Adam.
- The Calcutta Unitarian Committee aimed to gather together influential Brahmins as well as European citizens of Calcutta who were Unitarian Christians, to promote religious monotheism. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
Tabernacle of New Dispensation:Â
- In 1868, Keshub Chandra Sen laid the foundation stone of his new church, the Tabernacle of New Dispensation.
- He introduced into the church the Pilgrimage to saints, the Homa ceremony, the Baptismal ceremony, the Lord’s supper, etc.
Indian Reform Association:Â
- On October 29, 1870, the Indian Reform Association was founded, with Keshub Chunder Sen as its first president. It represented the secular side of the Brahmo Samaj and had many non-Brahmo Samaj members.
Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Category: GeographyConsider the following statements with regards to the Ken-Betwa river interlinking project:
- Ken and Betwa rivers originate in MP and are the tributaries of Yamuna.
- The Ken-Betwa Link Project (KBLP) is the river interlinking project that aims to transfer surplus water from the Betwa in UP to the Ken River in MP to irrigate the drought-prone Bundelkhand region.
- Ken River passes through the Panna Tiger Reserve.
Choose the correct statements:
Correct
- It is a project to transfer excess water from the River Ken to the Betwa basin through the use of a concrete canal. The project aims to provide irrigation to the Bundelkhand region, which is one of the worst drought-affected areas in India.
- Read more on Ken Betwa River Linking.
Incorrect
- It is a project to transfer excess water from the River Ken to the Betwa basin through the use of a concrete canal. The project aims to provide irrigation to the Bundelkhand region, which is one of the worst drought-affected areas in India.
- Read more on Ken Betwa River Linking.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Category: PolityWhich amongst the following appliances must have the BEE energy rating label mandatorily under Indian law?
- Colour TV
- Electric Geyser
- Tubular fluorescent
- Room Air-conditioners
Choose from the codes given below:
Correct
- The following products have been notified under mandatory labelling.
- Frost Free (No-Frost) Refrigerator
- Tubular Fluorescent Lamps
- Room Air Conditioners
- Distribution Transformers
- Room Air Conditioners (Cassette, Floor Standing Tower, Ceiling, Corner AC)
- Direct Cool Refrigerator
- Electric Geysers
- Colour TV
- Room Air Conditioners (Inverter type)
- LED lamps
Incorrect
- The following products have been notified under mandatory labelling.
- Frost Free (No-Frost) Refrigerator
- Tubular Fluorescent Lamps
- Room Air Conditioners
- Distribution Transformers
- Room Air Conditioners (Cassette, Floor Standing Tower, Ceiling, Corner AC)
- Direct Cool Refrigerator
- Electric Geysers
- Colour TV
- Room Air Conditioners (Inverter type)
- LED lamps
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regards to the recently passed Assisted Reproductive Technology (Regulation) Bill, 2020:
- The Bill provides that every ART clinic and bank must be registered under the National Registry of Banks and Clinics of India.
- The registration will be valid for five years and can be renewed for a further five years.
- A bank can obtain semen from males between 21 and 55 years of age, and oocytes from females between 23 and 35 years of age.
- The woman can donate oocyte only once in her life and not more than seven oocytes can be retrieved from her.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Correct
- The Bill provides that every ART clinic and bank must be registered under the National Registry of Banks and Clinics of India.
- The National Registry will be established under the Bill and will act as a central database with details of all ART clinics and banks in the country
- The registration will be valid for five years and can be renewed for a further five years.
- Registration may be cancelled or suspended if the entity contravenes the provisions of the Bill.
- A bank can obtain semen from males between 21 and 55 years of age, and oocytes from females between 23 and 35 years of age. An oocyte donor should be an ever-married woman having at least one alive child of her own (minimum three years of age). The woman can donate oocytes only once in her life and not more than seven oocytes can be retrieved from her.
- A bank cannot supply the gamete of a single donor to more than one commissioning couple (couple seeking services).
Incorrect
- The Bill provides that every ART clinic and bank must be registered under the National Registry of Banks and Clinics of India.
- The National Registry will be established under the Bill and will act as a central database with details of all ART clinics and banks in the country
- The registration will be valid for five years and can be renewed for a further five years.
- Registration may be cancelled or suspended if the entity contravenes the provisions of the Bill.
- A bank can obtain semen from males between 21 and 55 years of age, and oocytes from females between 23 and 35 years of age. An oocyte donor should be an ever-married woman having at least one alive child of her own (minimum three years of age). The woman can donate oocytes only once in her life and not more than seven oocytes can be retrieved from her.
- A bank cannot supply the gamete of a single donor to more than one commissioning couple (couple seeking services).
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Category: EconomyWhich of the following is not true with regards to Unified Payments Interface (UPI)?
Correct
- Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a system that powers multiple bank accounts into a single mobile application (of any participating bank), merging several banking features, seamless fund routing & merchant payments into one hood.
- National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) conducted a pilot launch with 21 member banks in 2016.
Incorrect
- Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a system that powers multiple bank accounts into a single mobile application (of any participating bank), merging several banking features, seamless fund routing & merchant payments into one hood.
- National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) conducted a pilot launch with 21 member banks in 2016.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Category: PolityUnder which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void? Â (PYQ 2019)
Correct
- The Fifth Schedule contains provisions in relation to the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
- Know more about the Schedules of the Indian Constitution.
Incorrect
- The Fifth Schedule contains provisions in relation to the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
- Know more about the Schedules of the Indian Constitution.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with respect to Zero Hour:
- It is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure.
- It is an informal device available to the members of the Parliament to raise matters without any prior notice.
- The idea was imported from Japan.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Zero Hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. Thus, it is an informal device available to MPs to raise matters without any notice 10 days in advance.
- Zero Hour is the time when Members of Parliament (MPs) can raise Issues of Urgent Public Importance. For raising matters during the Zero Hour, MPs must give the notice before 10 am to the Speaker/Chairman on the day of the sitting. The notice must state the subject they wish to raise in the House. However, Speaker, Lok Sabha/Chairman, Rajya Sabha may allow or decline a member to raise a matter of importance.
- Zero Hour was not taken from Japan, but it remains an Indian innovation. It has been in existence since 1962.
- Read more on Zero Hour in the link.
Incorrect
- Zero Hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. Thus, it is an informal device available to MPs to raise matters without any notice 10 days in advance.
- Zero Hour is the time when Members of Parliament (MPs) can raise Issues of Urgent Public Importance. For raising matters during the Zero Hour, MPs must give the notice before 10 am to the Speaker/Chairman on the day of the sitting. The notice must state the subject they wish to raise in the House. However, Speaker, Lok Sabha/Chairman, Rajya Sabha may allow or decline a member to raise a matter of importance.
- Zero Hour was not taken from Japan, but it remains an Indian innovation. It has been in existence since 1962.
- Read more on Zero Hour in the link.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Category: PolityWith respect to State Legislative Council, which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
- An Indian citizen who is at least 25 years of age can become a member of the Legislative Council.
- The Chairman of the Council is nominated by the Governor.
- Currently, seven states in India have a legislative council.
Options:
Correct
- To become a member of a State Legislative Council (MLC), a person must be a citizen of India, at least 30 years old, mentally sound, not an insolvent, and must be enrolled on the voters’ list of the state for which he or she is contesting an election.
- The members of the State Legislative Council elect the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the State Legislative Council. It is not nominated by the Governor.
- As of 2021, 6 out of 28 states have a State Legislative Council. These are Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Telangana, Maharashtra, Bihar and Uttar Pradesh. The latest state to have a council is Telangana.
Incorrect
- To become a member of a State Legislative Council (MLC), a person must be a citizen of India, at least 30 years old, mentally sound, not an insolvent, and must be enrolled on the voters’ list of the state for which he or she is contesting an election.
- The members of the State Legislative Council elect the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the State Legislative Council. It is not nominated by the Governor.
- As of 2021, 6 out of 28 states have a State Legislative Council. These are Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Telangana, Maharashtra, Bihar and Uttar Pradesh. The latest state to have a council is Telangana.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following are the Point sources of water pollution?
- Oil refineries
- Paper and pulp mills
- Agriculture Run off
- Sewage treatment plants
Options:
Correct
- Point source water pollution refers to contaminants that enter a waterway from a single, identifiable source, such as a pipe or ditch. Examples of sources in this category include discharges from a sewage treatment plant, a factory, oil refinery, or a city storm drain.
Incorrect
- Point source water pollution refers to contaminants that enter a waterway from a single, identifiable source, such as a pipe or ditch. Examples of sources in this category include discharges from a sewage treatment plant, a factory, oil refinery, or a city storm drain.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Category: EconomyWith respect to Payments Bank, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Payments banks can issue Debit cards and not credit cards.
- They are given a provision to lend to small businesses.
- They are not allowed to accept time deposits/fixed deposits (FDs).
Options:
Correct
- Payments bank is a new form of bank created under the purview of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). Payments banks can accept a limited deposit of ₹100,000 per customer and may be increased further. These banks cannot lend loans and issue credit cards but they can offer services such as net banking, ATM cards, debit banks and Mobile Banking.
- A time deposit is an interest-bearing bank account that has a date of maturity, such as a certificate of deposit (CD). The payment banks cannot accept time deposits.
Incorrect
- Payments bank is a new form of bank created under the purview of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). Payments banks can accept a limited deposit of ₹100,000 per customer and may be increased further. These banks cannot lend loans and issue credit cards but they can offer services such as net banking, ATM cards, debit banks and Mobile Banking.
- A time deposit is an interest-bearing bank account that has a date of maturity, such as a certificate of deposit (CD). The payment banks cannot accept time deposits.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Category: PolityWhich one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
Correct
Economic Liberty is not explicitly provided for in the Preamble to the Constitution. The short text hereunder:
WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:
LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
Incorrect
Economic Liberty is not explicitly provided for in the Preamble to the Constitution. The short text hereunder:
WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:
LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Category: SchemesWhich of the following statements is/are correct with respect to the Soil Health Card Scheme?
- The card will contain an advisory based on the soil nutrient status of a farmer’s holdings.
- It will provide insurance coverage and financial support to the non-loanee small and marginal farmers in case of Soil erosion.
- It aims to expand cultivable area under assured irrigation to maintain soil fertility.
Options:
Correct
- A Soil Health Card is used to assess the current state of soil health and, over time, to detect changes in soil health caused by land management. The card will provide an advisory based on a farmer’s holding’s soil nutrient level. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- The scheme will monitor the soil of the farmers well and will give them a formatted report.
- The soil card will give the farmers a proper idea of which nutrients their soil is lacking.
- The main aim behind the scheme was to find out the type of particular soil. And then provide ways in which we can improve it.
- The Soil Health Card does not provide insurance coverage and it does not aim to expand the cultivable area under irrigation. Hence Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.
Incorrect
- A Soil Health Card is used to assess the current state of soil health and, over time, to detect changes in soil health caused by land management. The card will provide an advisory based on a farmer’s holding’s soil nutrient level. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- The scheme will monitor the soil of the farmers well and will give them a formatted report.
- The soil card will give the farmers a proper idea of which nutrients their soil is lacking.
- The main aim behind the scheme was to find out the type of particular soil. And then provide ways in which we can improve it.
- The Soil Health Card does not provide insurance coverage and it does not aim to expand the cultivable area under irrigation. Hence Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Category: SchemesWith reference to Atmanirbhar Hastshilpkar Scheme, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is an initiative of the Ministry of Culture to promote development of new talents in the field of music and dance, folk and tribal art forms.
- Under this scheme artisans are provided with a credit facility that is collateral-free and carries a subsidized interest rate of 6% p.a., which is repayable in 24 months.
Options:
Correct
- The North Eastern Development Finance Corporation Ltd (NEDFi) has launched the ‘Atmanirbhar Hastshilpkar’ initiative to help artisans in the Northeast.  Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
- The scheme’s goal is to give financial support in the form of a term loan for revenue-generating activities.
- The scheme provides a credit facility that is collateral-free and has a subsidized interest rate of 6% p.a., with a repayment term of 24 months. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
- The North Eastern Development Finance Corporation Ltd (NEDFi) has launched the ‘Atmanirbhar Hastshilpkar’ initiative to help artisans in the Northeast.  Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
- The scheme’s goal is to give financial support in the form of a term loan for revenue-generating activities.
- The scheme provides a credit facility that is collateral-free and has a subsidized interest rate of 6% p.a., with a repayment term of 24 months. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Category: SchemesWhich amongst the following ministries is/are associated with the Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao scheme?
- Ministry of Women and Child Development
- Ministry of Law and Justice
- Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
- Ministry of Education
- Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Options:
Correct
- The Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Yojana is a national initiative jointly run by the Ministry of Women and Child Development, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the Ministry of Education.Â
- Each body is accountable for different aspects of the scheme.
- Budgetary control and administration of the BBBP falls under the MoWCD’s purview. However, capacity building and quality control are responsibilities of the MoH&FW.
- Â Hence Option C is correct.
Incorrect
- The Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Yojana is a national initiative jointly run by the Ministry of Women and Child Development, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the Ministry of Education.Â
- Each body is accountable for different aspects of the scheme.
- Budgetary control and administration of the BBBP falls under the MoWCD’s purview. However, capacity building and quality control are responsibilities of the MoH&FW.
- Â Hence Option C is correct.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Category: G KRoyal Gold Medal is an award given to individuals who have made significant contributions to the field of
Correct
- The Royal Gold Medal for Architecture is presented yearly on behalf of the British monarch by the Royal Institute of British Architects in appreciation of an individual’s or group’s significant contribution to world architecture.
Incorrect
- The Royal Gold Medal for Architecture is presented yearly on behalf of the British monarch by the Royal Institute of British Architects in appreciation of an individual’s or group’s significant contribution to world architecture.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Category: EconomyWhat is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’?
- It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India.
- It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves.
- It will enormously increase the growth and size of economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
- The Goods & Services Tax (GST) is a value-added tax applied on the majority of goods and services. GST is a destination-based tax which aims to create a single market in India. Hence Statement 1 is correct.Â
- The GST Bill was initially proposed in India as the 122nd Constitutional Amendment Bill in 2014. Because of crude oil imports and the OPEC cartel that manipulates its pricing, GST is unlikely to ‘dramatically’ lower the current account deficit. As a result, statement 2 is erroneous. India will not be able to overcome China in the foreseeable future since it will need currency depreciation and labour exploitation. Hence Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.
Incorrect
- The Goods & Services Tax (GST) is a value-added tax applied on the majority of goods and services. GST is a destination-based tax which aims to create a single market in India. Hence Statement 1 is correct.Â
- The GST Bill was initially proposed in India as the 122nd Constitutional Amendment Bill in 2014. Because of crude oil imports and the OPEC cartel that manipulates its pricing, GST is unlikely to ‘dramatically’ lower the current account deficit. As a result, statement 2 is erroneous. India will not be able to overcome China in the foreseeable future since it will need currency depreciation and labour exploitation. Hence Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Category: Defence & SecurityWhich of the following statements with regards to the Pinaka missile system is not correct?
Correct
The Defense Research and Development Organization (DRDO) is the principal organization of the Government of India’s Ministry of Defense. The Defense Science Organization was founded in 1958 by the amalgamation of the Technical Development Establishment and the Directorate of Technical Development and Production of the Indian Ordnance Factories. The DRDO has teamed up with Israel and not France Military Industries to develop the Trajectory Correction System on Pinaka.
Hence Option A is correct.
Incorrect
The Defense Research and Development Organization (DRDO) is the principal organization of the Government of India’s Ministry of Defense. The Defense Science Organization was founded in 1958 by the amalgamation of the Technical Development Establishment and the Directorate of Technical Development and Production of the Indian Ordnance Factories. The DRDO has teamed up with Israel and not France Military Industries to develop the Trajectory Correction System on Pinaka.
Hence Option A is correct.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements with regards to the Buxa Tiger Reserve:
- It is located in the state of Assam.
- Its northern boundary runs along the international border with Bhutan.
- The Buxa Tiger Reserve has been identified for the tiger augmentation programme by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).
Choose the correct statements:
Correct
- Buxa Tiger Reserve (B.T.R.) is located in the Alipurduar Sub-division of West Bengal’s Jalpaiguri District. Located in the Buxa Hills in Bhutan’s southern hilly region. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
- Its northern border is parallel to Bhutan’s international border. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- The National Tiger Conservation Authority has designated the Buxa Tiger Reserve for the tiger augmentation programme. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
- Buxa Tiger Reserve (B.T.R.) is located in the Alipurduar Sub-division of West Bengal’s Jalpaiguri District. Located in the Buxa Hills in Bhutan’s southern hilly region. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
- Its northern border is parallel to Bhutan’s international border. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- The National Tiger Conservation Authority has designated the Buxa Tiger Reserve for the tiger augmentation programme. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Category: Art and CultureThe well-renowned Sri Ranganathaswamy temple in Srirangam is dedicated to
Correct
- Sri Ranganathaswamy Temple, also known as Thiruvaranga Tirupati, is one of the country’s most prominent Vaishnava temples, devoted to Ranganatha, a reclining form of the Hindu god, Bhagwan (God or Lord) Vishnu.
- Hence Option C is correct.
Incorrect
- Sri Ranganathaswamy Temple, also known as Thiruvaranga Tirupati, is one of the country’s most prominent Vaishnava temples, devoted to Ranganatha, a reclining form of the Hindu god, Bhagwan (God or Lord) Vishnu.
- Hence Option C is correct.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Category: GeographyThe Chakma-Hajong community are the usual inhabitants of which of the following states in India?
Correct
- Chakmas and Hajongs originated from the Chittagong Hill Tracts in former East Pakistan. They fled their homeland after the Kaptai dam project drowned it in the 1960s. The bulk of them were transferred to the North East Frontier Agency (NEFA), which is now Arunachal Pradesh.
- Hence Option D is correct.
Incorrect
- Chakmas and Hajongs originated from the Chittagong Hill Tracts in former East Pakistan. They fled their homeland after the Kaptai dam project drowned it in the 1960s. The bulk of them were transferred to the North East Frontier Agency (NEFA), which is now Arunachal Pradesh.
- Hence Option D is correct.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyThe word 'Denisovan' is sometimes mentioned in media in reference toÂ
Correct
Scientists sifting through the genomes of people scattered across the islands of south-east Asia have found echoes of ancient pairings with not just one, but three separate populations of the archaic hominins known as Denisovans. First discovered in 2010, the Denisovans are a relatively recent addition to the human family tree.
Incorrect
Scientists sifting through the genomes of people scattered across the islands of south-east Asia have found echoes of ancient pairings with not just one, but three separate populations of the archaic hominins known as Denisovans. First discovered in 2010, the Denisovans are a relatively recent addition to the human family tree.
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