UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Mar 25 - Mar 31

• It is the world’s largest security-oriented intergovernmental organization with observer status at the United Nations.
• It has its origins in the mid-1975 Conference on Security and Co-operation in Europe (CSCE) held in Helsinki, Finland.
• It was created during the Cold War era as an East–West forum.
• Its secretariat is located in Vienna, Austria.
• The OSCE is concerned with arms control, promotion of human rights, conflict prevention & post-conflict rehabilitation, crisis management and counter-terrorism.
• Most of its 57 participating countries are in Europe, but there are a few members present in Asia and North America.
• The participating states cover much of the land area of the Northern Hemisphere.
• Hence Option D is correct.

• The IWT was signed by the then-Indian Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and the then-Pakistani President Ayub Khan.
• The Indus Waters Treaty is a water-sharing agreement between India and Pakistan signed in 1960. It was brokered by the World Bank.
• Hence Option B is correct.

• Pashmina comes from a wide range of goats. The Pashmina goat is a type of goat found on the Tibetan Plateau, Nepal, and the Ladakh region of Jammu and Kashmir, India. Changthangi goats are another name for them.
• Because the fibre cannot bear high strain, pure pashmina has a slightly gauzy, open weave.
• Changpa is a traditional pashmina wool producer in the Himalayan area of Ladakh. In these severe climates, they raise sheep for meat and Pashmina goats for fibre.
• Shahmina is a shawl produced from Pashmina fibres with a fibre range of 13 micrometres or less that is made in Kashmir.
• Hence All the statements are correct.

• Synthetic biology is an emerging science that deals with engineering life forms for a wide range of applications from making designer medicines to foods.
• The potential benefits from synthetic biotechnology are seen in biofuels, bioremediation, biosensors, food and health.
• Use of gene editing systems such as CRISPR that allow defective genes in animals, plants and even people to be silenced, or changed, and control biological outcomes.
• Hence Option A is correct.

• When it comes to deposits with banks, the assets and liabilities are defined as follows:
• In the case of depositor:
  • It is an asset – amount to be received from the bank. It means that the amount to be received from the bank is either on demand or a maturity of the deposit.
• In the case of bank:
  • It is a liability – amount to be payable to the depositor . It means that the bank has to repay the amount to the depositor on demand or on maturity of the deposit.

• The Union Budget 2022 announced the creation of a new task force for AVGC (Animation Visual Effects, Gaming and Comics) industry with the help of all stakeholders to look at various ways in which domestic capacity is built and serve the global demand in the sector.
• The setting up of the AVGC promotion task force will help India achieve its potential of achieving 20 lakh jobs according to Deloitte projections.
• These are critical skills for growth of the metaverse and India is poised to take advantage of this ecosystem.
• Hence option B is correct.

• The Shailesh Nayak Committee was constituted in 2014 with the mandate of examining the issues of the coastal states and union territories of the country with respect to the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Notification, 2011.
• Coastal Regulation Zone Notification, 2018 is based on the recommendations of Shailesh Nayak committee which submitted its report in 2015.
• Hence option B is correct.

• Greater One-Horned Rhinoceros are also known as the Indian rhino and are the largest of the rhino species.
• They have a single black horn and a grey-brown hide with skin folds.
• Largest number of Greater One-Horned Rhinoceros are found in India.
• At present, there are about 2,600 Indian rhinos in India, with more than 90% of the population concentrated in Assam’s Kaziranga National Park.
• These are protected under
  • IUCN Red List: Vulnerable.
  • CITES: Appendix-I
  • Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I.
• Hence option C is correct.

• Sustainable Development Goal 14 commits countries to unite over what is a truly global responsibility – the protection of our oceans and the lives that depend on it.
• By 2020, countries commit to achieving the sustainable management of marine ecosystems, and in another five years, significantly reduce marine pollution of all kinds.
• As per the World Bank, the blue economy is the “sustainable use of ocean resources for economic growth, improved livelihoods, and jobs while preserving the health of the ocean ecosystem.”
• The ocean economy is defined by the OECD as the sum of the economic activities of ocean-based industries, together with the assets, goods and services provided by marine ecosystems.
• Hence option D is correct.

• Organic matter increases a soil’s ability to hold water, both directly and indirectly. This is because the addition of organic matter increases the number of micropores and macropores in the soil either by “gluing” soil particles together or by creating favorable living conditions for soil organisms.Hence Statement 1 is not correct.
• Soil is a major source of  sulfur that occurs in organic and inorganic forms. It is cycled within and between those forms via mobilization, immobilization, mineralization, oxidation, and reduction processes. Hence Statement 2 is not correct.
• Irrigation salinity occurs due to increased rates of leakage and groundwater recharge causing the water table to rise. Irrigation with salt-rich water, which amplifies salt content in earths, is a major cause of salinity of agricultural lands. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

All the pairs are correctly matched.

• Mission Vatsalya or Vatsalya Maatri Amrit Kosh was launched by the ministry of health and family welfare.
• It is a scheme to promote breastfeeding and child protection services all over India. Know more about Vatsalya Maatri Amrit Kosh.

Hence Option A is correct.

• The fundamental duties were not present in the original constitution and they were added by the 42nd Amendment Act of the Constitution in 1976. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added 10 Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution. The 86th Amendment Act 2002 later added 11th Fundamental Duty to the list.  Hence Statement 2 is not correct
• The Swaran Singh Committee in 1976 recommended Fundamental Duties, the necessity of which was felt during the internal emergency of 1975-77. Hence Statement is 3 is correct
• The Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Articles 14, 20, 21, 21A, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27 and 28 are available to all persons whether citizens or foreigners. Fundamental rights can be applied to foreigners also but the fundamental duties are only restricted to the Indians citizens. Hence Statement 4 is not correct.

• The objective of the scheme is to offer scholarships to meritorious students of economically weaker sections to reduce the dropout rate from school encouraging them to continue their studies at the secondary level.
• To take the scheme further, one lakh fresh scholarships will be provided to the students of class IX every year and their continuation in classes X to XII.  It covers the government aided and local body schools apart from the schools under the state government.  Hence Statement 1 is not correct.
• As this is a central sector scheme, 100% funds are provided by the central government. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
• The scheme is available on the National Scholarship Portal.
• The scholarships are transferred to the bank accounts of the selected students by electronic transfer into their bank accounts under Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT). Hence Statement 3 is correct.

• Statement 1 is not correct, The Khajuraho temples are a group of Hindu and Jain temples in Chhatarpur district in Madhya Pradesh.
• Statement 2 is correct, The Khajuraho Temples are an example of the Nagara style of architecture.
• Statement 3 is correct, The temples were patronised by the Chandela Kings.
• Read about – Temple architecture in India.

• Statement 1 is not correct, The Cobra Warrior exercise is an apex event organised by the Royal Air Force of the U.K.
• Statement 2 is not correct, The exercise is for training the pilots and others in planning and executing complex airborne missions and further provides operational exposure and shares best practices amongst the participating Air Forces, thereby enhancing combat capability and forging bonds of friendship.

• Golan Heights is a hilly area overlooking the upper Jordan River valley in the west.
• Israel captured the Golan Heights from Syria during the Six-Day War of 1967 and formally annexed the territory in 1981.
• To read more about Golan Heights.

• Statement 1 is not correct, The ISS was launched in 1998 by five space agencies, namely, NASA (USA), Roscosmos (Russia), European Space Agency (ESA-Europe), JAXA (Japan) and the Canadian Space Agency (CSA-Canada).
  • China was not involved.
• Statement 2 is correct, It is the largest artificial object in space and the largest satellite in low Earth orbit.
• Read more about the International Space Station (ISS).

• R2 stands for Responsible Recycling and is a standard specifically created for the electronics recycling industry by Sustainable Electronics Recycling International (SERI).
• The standards were then accredited by ANAB, and in 2008, R2 was released.

• Statement 1 is not correct, The Scheme will fund infrastructure, in the spirit of PM GatiShakti, and social development projects in the North-East States.
• Statement 2 is correct, The Scheme will enable livelihood activities for youth and women, filling the gaps in various sectors and it will not be a substitute for existing central or state Schemes.

• Statement 1 is correct, In 2011 Supreme Court ordered a ban on the production and sale of endosulfan as it is highly toxic, has a large potential for bioaccumulation and It is also an endocrine disruptor.
• Statement 2 is correct, the Stockholm Convention initiated a global ban on the manufacture and use of this chemical because of its threats to the environment and human health.
• To read more about – Endosulfan

• Statement 1 is not correct, The Indian National Army (Azad Hind Fauj) was an armed force formed by Indian Nationalists under Mohan Singh in 1942, through the patronage of the Imperial Japanese Army, to secure the Independence of India.
• Statement 2 is correct, The INA had participated in operation U-Go, the 1944 Japanese campaign towards British India
• Read more about – INA

• All the above statements are correct
• Difference between Article 323 A and Article 323 B

• Sugarcane is a highly water intensive crop.
• The oilseeds, pulses and coarse grains are less water intensive crops and have a higher water use efficiency compared to other crops.

• Dayanad anglovedic trust and Management society in lahore in 1886 , was an attempt to unite the samaj and its activities.
• He was the founder of the Arya Samaj which was a reform movement of the Vedic dharma.
• They also worked for the protection of widows and other social work like providing relief to victims of natural or manmade calamities.
• He wrote many books. His major contribution is Satyartha Prakash. Other books include the Sanskarvidhi, Rigved Bhashyam, etc.
• People he inspired include Shyamji Krishna Varma, MG Ranade, VD Savarkar, Lala Hardyal, Madan Lal Dhingra, Bhagat Singh and many others. He was also admired by Swami Vivekananda, Subhash Chandra Bose, Bipin Chandra Pal, Vallabhbhai Patel, Romain Rolland, etc.
• According to S Radhakrishnan, some reforms included in the Indian Constitution were influenced by Dayananda.
• Dayananda was poisoned during his stay at the palace of the Maharaja of Jodhpur, Jaswant Singh II. He succumbed to the injury suffered at Ajmer, where he was sent for better treatment on 26th October 1883. He was 59.
• Karmayogi is a biography of E. Sreedharan written by M.S. Ashokan not by Dayananda Saraswati.
• He also denounced idol worship.
• This makes option ‘b’ as the correct answer.

• Plutonium-239 is a primary fissile isotope used for the production of nuclear weapons.
• Plutonium-239 is also one of the major isotopes of Plutonium which is used as fuel in thermal spectrum nuclear reactors along with Uranium-235 and Uranium- 233. It is commonly formed in a nuclear reactor by transmutation of individual atoms of one of the isotopes of uranium present in the fuel rods.
• It is dangerous and carcinogenic.
• Plutonium-244 has a half life of 80 million years  which is longer than any of the other isotopes of Plutonium. Therefore, it is the most stable isotope of Plutonium.
• Plutonium-244 decays through spontaneous fission.
• This makes option ‘c’ the correct answer.

• Ammonia has a wide range of uses which makes it the second largest chemical product produced in the world.
• It is used in agriculture as a potential component of fertilizers, wastewater treatment, several industries like paper, rubber, leather, cosmetics and so on.
• It is also used in cold storages, refrigerating systems and pharmaceutical products.
• Ammonia cannot be used as an anesthetic agent because it lacks narcotics properties.
• This makes ‘a’ as the correct option.

• Snapback mechanism is a procedure initiated by the US at the United Nations Security Council in a bid to unilaterally reimpose sanctions on Iran.
• The clause of snapback allows the US to impose sanctions without any veto.
• This was on the grounds alleged by the US that Iran breached the norms of the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action.
• This makes option ‘b’ the correct answer.