UPSC 2024: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Oct 14 – Oct 20 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Current Affairs Monthly Magazine (Sep 2023)
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UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from Oct 14 – Oct 20 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.
Post your scores in the comment section below!
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UPSC 2024: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Oct 14 – Oct 20
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements: (Level – Easy)
- Article 39A of the Constitution of India provides that the State shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity, and shall in particular, provide free legal aid, by suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way.
- Articles 14 and 22(1) also make it obligatory for the State to ensure equality before law and a legal system which promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity to all.
- The President of India acts as the patron-in-chief of the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA).
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, Directive Principles of State Policy under Article 39A of the Constitution of India provides that State shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity, and shall in particular, provide free legal aid, by suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way, to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disability.
- Statement 02 is correct, Fundamental rights under Articles 14 and 22(1) also make it obligatory for the State to ensure equality before law and a legal system which promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity to all.
- Legal aid strives to ensure that the constitutional pledge is fulfilled in its letter and spirit and that equal justice is made available to the poor, downtrodden and weaker sections of society.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, The Chief Justice of India is the Patron-in-Chief of the National Legal Services Authority.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, Directive Principles of State Policy under Article 39A of the Constitution of India provides that State shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity, and shall in particular, provide free legal aid, by suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way, to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disability.
- Statement 02 is correct, Fundamental rights under Articles 14 and 22(1) also make it obligatory for the State to ensure equality before law and a legal system which promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity to all.
- Legal aid strives to ensure that the constitutional pledge is fulfilled in its letter and spirit and that equal justice is made available to the poor, downtrodden and weaker sections of society.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, The Chief Justice of India is the Patron-in-Chief of the National Legal Services Authority.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Category: SchemesThe recently setup ‘Rythu Bharosa Kendras’ in Andhra Pradesh focus on the welfare of: (Level – Medium)
Correct
- Set up for the first time in the country, the ‘Rythu Bharosa Kendras’ (RBKs) are unique seeds-to-sales, single-window service centres for farmers that have been set up across Andhra Pradesh.
- They are a one-stop solution to all farmers’ needs and grievances.
- RBKs sell pre-tested quality seeds, certified fertilisers and animal feed. Farmers can purchase or hire farm equipment, and even sell their produce at the prevailing MSP in the RBKs.
- Recently, an Ethiopian delegation led by the country’s Agricultural Minister Dr Meles Mekonen Yimer visited Andhra Pradesh to study Rythu Bharosa Kendras (RBKs).
Incorrect
- Set up for the first time in the country, the ‘Rythu Bharosa Kendras’ (RBKs) are unique seeds-to-sales, single-window service centres for farmers that have been set up across Andhra Pradesh.
- They are a one-stop solution to all farmers’ needs and grievances.
- RBKs sell pre-tested quality seeds, certified fertilisers and animal feed. Farmers can purchase or hire farm equipment, and even sell their produce at the prevailing MSP in the RBKs.
- Recently, an Ethiopian delegation led by the country’s Agricultural Minister Dr Meles Mekonen Yimer visited Andhra Pradesh to study Rythu Bharosa Kendras (RBKs).
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Category: PolityWho amongst the following releases the LEADS (Logistics Ease Across Different States) report? (Level – Medium)
Correct
- It is released by the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
- The Logistics Performance Index is an indicator of the efficiency of logistics services needed to fuel exports and economic growth.
- The index aims to focus on improving logistic performance across states, which is essential for improving the country’s trade and reducing transaction costs.
- The annual survey processes the data received from stakeholders and States/UTs and ranks the logistics ecosystem of each State/UT using a statistical model.
- The first logistic report was released in 2018.
- Andhra Pradesh, Assam and Gujarat are among the 15 states and UTs categorised as achievers in the logistics index chart 2022.
Incorrect
- It is released by the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
- The Logistics Performance Index is an indicator of the efficiency of logistics services needed to fuel exports and economic growth.
- The index aims to focus on improving logistic performance across states, which is essential for improving the country’s trade and reducing transaction costs.
- The annual survey processes the data received from stakeholders and States/UTs and ranks the logistics ecosystem of each State/UT using a statistical model.
- The first logistic report was released in 2018.
- Andhra Pradesh, Assam and Gujarat are among the 15 states and UTs categorised as achievers in the logistics index chart 2022.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements: (Level – Difficult)
- It lies at the international border between India and Myanmar within Changlang District in the state of Arunachal Pradesh.
- It is the only park in the world to have the four feline species of big cats namely the Tiger, Leopard, Snow Leopard and Clouded Leopard.
- Hoolock Gibbons, the only ‘ape’ species found in India is found in this National Park.
Which of the following National Parks is being referred to here?
Correct
- Namdapha National Park is a large protected area established in 1983 in Arunachal Pradesh.
- With more than 1,000 floral and about 1,400 faunal species, it is a biodiversity hotspot in the Eastern Himalayas.
- It lies on the international border between India and Myanmar (Burma) within the Changlang District in the state of Arunachal Pradesh in northeast India.
- It is the only park in the world to have the four feline species of big cats namely the Tiger (Panthera tigris), Leopard (Panthera pardus), Snow Leopard (Panthera uncia) and Clouded Leopard (Neofelis nebulosa) and a number of lesser cats.
- However, snow leopards in the national park have never been spotted nor recorded yet and are awaiting confirmation based on a recent survey.
- Hoolock Gibbons, the only ‘ape’ species found in India is found in this National Park.
Incorrect
- Namdapha National Park is a large protected area established in 1983 in Arunachal Pradesh.
- With more than 1,000 floral and about 1,400 faunal species, it is a biodiversity hotspot in the Eastern Himalayas.
- It lies on the international border between India and Myanmar (Burma) within the Changlang District in the state of Arunachal Pradesh in northeast India.
- It is the only park in the world to have the four feline species of big cats namely the Tiger (Panthera tigris), Leopard (Panthera pardus), Snow Leopard (Panthera uncia) and Clouded Leopard (Neofelis nebulosa) and a number of lesser cats.
- However, snow leopards in the national park have never been spotted nor recorded yet and are awaiting confirmation based on a recent survey.
- Hoolock Gibbons, the only ‘ape’ species found in India is found in this National Park.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Category: International RelationsIn the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’? (CSE-PYQ-2018) (Level – Difficult)
Correct
- Under the old IAEA safeguards, all NPT signatories would specify their nuclear sites and IAEA would carry out inspections in the specified sites.
- Thus, IAEA, under the old safeguards, could only carry out inspections for unauthorised activities only at designated or specified sites declared by a country. This basically left an option open for states to carry out covert nuclear programmes – as happened in the case of Iraq.
- Thus, in 1993, the IAEA designed Additional Protocols (AP) to tighten the existing safeguarding regime. However, India-specific Additional Protocols (AP) do not give IAEA the right to hinder or interfere with activities which are outside the scope of India’s safeguard agreements, thus recognizing that India reserves a right to a military nuclear program outside the IAEA agreement.
Incorrect
- Under the old IAEA safeguards, all NPT signatories would specify their nuclear sites and IAEA would carry out inspections in the specified sites.
- Thus, IAEA, under the old safeguards, could only carry out inspections for unauthorised activities only at designated or specified sites declared by a country. This basically left an option open for states to carry out covert nuclear programmes – as happened in the case of Iraq.
- Thus, in 1993, the IAEA designed Additional Protocols (AP) to tighten the existing safeguarding regime. However, India-specific Additional Protocols (AP) do not give IAEA the right to hinder or interfere with activities which are outside the scope of India’s safeguard agreements, thus recognizing that India reserves a right to a military nuclear program outside the IAEA agreement.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements: (Level – Difficult)
- So far, ISRO has only used Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) to carry out commercial launches.
- India currently has three operational launch vehicles – the PSLV, GSLV, and GSLV Mk III.
- The government opened up the space sector for private players in 2020.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Statement 1 is correct: Till now ISRO has used only PSLV for commercial launches. There have been eight commercial launches using PSLV. However, GSLV Mk III is set to launch 36 satellites and enter the commercial foray.
Statement 2 is correct: India presently has three operational launch vehicles PSLV, GSLV, and GSLV Mk III. The Small Satellite Launch Vehicle of ISRO was partially successful.
Statement 3 is correct: The government opened the space sector for private players in 2020 with the aim to allow private players to offer regular space services and ISRO to focus on scientific missions.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: Till now ISRO has used only PSLV for commercial launches. There have been eight commercial launches using PSLV. However, GSLV Mk III is set to launch 36 satellites and enter the commercial foray.
Statement 2 is correct: India presently has three operational launch vehicles PSLV, GSLV, and GSLV Mk III. The Small Satellite Launch Vehicle of ISRO was partially successful.
Statement 3 is correct: The government opened the space sector for private players in 2020 with the aim to allow private players to offer regular space services and ISRO to focus on scientific missions.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Category: EconomyConsider the following statements with regard to the GIFT (Gujarat International Finance Tec) City: (Level – Easy)
- It consists of a multi-service Special Economic Zone (SEZ), which houses India’s first International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) and an exclusive Domestic Tariff Area (DTA).
- It doesn’t have any residential facilities.
- The GIFT city also houses the India International Bullion Exchange (IIBX), India’s first International Bullion Exchange.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect: It is India’s first operational greenfield smart city and international financial services center consisting of a multi-service SEZ. The city is located on the banks of the Sabarmati river. The city includes commercial, financial and residential complexes.
Statement 3 is correct: GIFT city consists of India’s first International Bullion Exchange called India International Bullion Exchange (IIBX).
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect: It is India’s first operational greenfield smart city and international financial services center consisting of a multi-service SEZ. The city is located on the banks of the Sabarmati river. The city includes commercial, financial and residential complexes.
Statement 3 is correct: GIFT city consists of India’s first International Bullion Exchange called India International Bullion Exchange (IIBX).
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Category: SchemesWith respect to India’s Ethanol blending programme, the Government has set a target of achieving ______ ethanol blending in petrol by _____. (Level – Easy)
Correct
The Government of India has advanced the target for 20% ethanol blending in petrol (also called E20) to 2025 from 2030. The twenty percent ethanol-blended petrol is likely to be made available in India in December 2022 or January 2023, as cited by the Union Minister of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
Incorrect
The Government of India has advanced the target for 20% ethanol blending in petrol (also called E20) to 2025 from 2030. The twenty percent ethanol-blended petrol is likely to be made available in India in December 2022 or January 2023, as cited by the Union Minister of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regards to Electoral bonds in India: (Level – Medium)
- They are valid for 15 days from the date of issue.
- Only the political parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and have secured not less than 1% of the votes polled in the last general election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly, are eligible to receive electoral bonds.
- The bonds are available for purchase by any citizen of India for a period of ten days each in the months of January, April, July and October as may be specified by the RBI.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Statement 1 is correct: Electoral bonds are valid for 15 days from the date of issue.
Statement 2 is correct: Only the political parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and have secured not less than 1% of the votes polled in the last general election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly, are eligible to receive electoral bonds.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The bonds are available for purchase by any citizen of India for a period of ten days each in the months of January, April, July and October as may be specified by the Central Government.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: Electoral bonds are valid for 15 days from the date of issue.
Statement 2 is correct: Only the political parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and have secured not less than 1% of the votes polled in the last general election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly, are eligible to receive electoral bonds.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The bonds are available for purchase by any citizen of India for a period of ten days each in the months of January, April, July and October as may be specified by the Central Government.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Category: G K“Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the following? (Level – Difficult)
Correct
The World Justice Project released its Rule of Law Index 2017-18 report, which measures the extent to which 113 countries have adhered to the rule of law in that period. India’s rank was 62, better than China, Pakistan, Myanmar, and Bangladesh; Denmark occupied the top spot.
Incorrect
The World Justice Project released its Rule of Law Index 2017-18 report, which measures the extent to which 113 countries have adhered to the rule of law in that period. India’s rank was 62, better than China, Pakistan, Myanmar, and Bangladesh; Denmark occupied the top spot.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016? (Level – Medium)
- Responsibilities of Generators have been introduced to segregate waste into three streams.
- Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs is responsible for overall monitoring of the rules.
- Generator will have to pay ‘User Fee’ to waste collector
- The Rules are now applicable beyond Municipal areas and extend to urban agglomerations, census towns, notified industrial townships, Port and harbor, and special economic zones.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct: Responsibilities of Generators have been introduced to segregate waste into three streams, Wet (Biodegradable), Dry (Plastic, Paper, metal, wood, etc.), and domestic hazardous wastes (diapers, napkins, empty containers of cleaning agents, mosquito repellents, etc.) and handover segregated wastes to authorized rag-pickers or waste collectors or local bodies.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Ministry of Environment is responsible for the overall monitoring of the rules.
- Statement 3 is correct: Generator will have to pay a ‘User Fee’ to the waste collector.
- Statement 4 is correct: The Rules are now applicable beyond Municipal areas and extend to urban agglomerations, census towns, notified industrial townships, areas under the control of Indian Railways, airports, airbases, Port and harbor, defence establishments, special economic zones, State and Central government organizations, places of pilgrims, religious & historical importance.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct: Responsibilities of Generators have been introduced to segregate waste into three streams, Wet (Biodegradable), Dry (Plastic, Paper, metal, wood, etc.), and domestic hazardous wastes (diapers, napkins, empty containers of cleaning agents, mosquito repellents, etc.) and handover segregated wastes to authorized rag-pickers or waste collectors or local bodies.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Ministry of Environment is responsible for the overall monitoring of the rules.
- Statement 3 is correct: Generator will have to pay a ‘User Fee’ to the waste collector.
- Statement 4 is correct: The Rules are now applicable beyond Municipal areas and extend to urban agglomerations, census towns, notified industrial townships, areas under the control of Indian Railways, airports, airbases, Port and harbor, defence establishments, special economic zones, State and Central government organizations, places of pilgrims, religious & historical importance.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyWhich one amongst the following species does not belong to the category of Critically Endangered in the IUCN red list? (Level- Medium)
Correct
The Gaur, also known as the Indian Bison, is among the largest species of wild cattle native to the South and Southeast. It falls under the Vulnerable category.
Gaurs are found in evergreen forests or semi-evergreen and deciduous forests.
In certain areas affected by human habitation, gaurs are nocturnal but in other places they are diurnal.Incorrect
The Gaur, also known as the Indian Bison, is among the largest species of wild cattle native to the South and Southeast. It falls under the Vulnerable category.
Gaurs are found in evergreen forests or semi-evergreen and deciduous forests.
In certain areas affected by human habitation, gaurs are nocturnal but in other places they are diurnal. -
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWith respect to Mars, which of the following statements is/are correct? (Level- Easy)
- Mars is known as the Red Planet because iron minerals in the Martian soil oxidize, or rust, causing the soil and atmosphere to look red.
- Mars has two small moons. Their names are Phobos and Callisto.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct: Mars is called the Red Planet because iron minerals present in the Martian soil oxidize, or rust, causing the soil and atmosphere to look red.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Phobos and Deimos are the two satellites that orbit around Mars.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct: Mars is called the Red Planet because iron minerals present in the Martian soil oxidize, or rust, causing the soil and atmosphere to look red.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Phobos and Deimos are the two satellites that orbit around Mars.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Category: SchemesConsider the following statements with respect to Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY): (Level- Medium)
- In order to avail the benefit of PMUY an applicant must be a woman aged above 21 years.
- The beneficiaries will be selected or identified through the published SECC-2011 data.
- Under the scheme, oil marketing companies provide interest-free loans for refilling and purchasing stoves.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is incorrect: In order to avail benefits of the PMUY scheme, an applicant must be a woman aged above 18 years. She should also be a citizen of India
- Statement 2 is correct: The beneficiaries will be selected or identified through the published list of SECC-2011.
- Statement 3 is correct: Under the scheme, oil marketing companies provide interest-free loans for refilling and purchasing stoves.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is incorrect: In order to avail benefits of the PMUY scheme, an applicant must be a woman aged above 18 years. She should also be a citizen of India
- Statement 2 is correct: The beneficiaries will be selected or identified through the published list of SECC-2011.
- Statement 3 is correct: Under the scheme, oil marketing companies provide interest-free loans for refilling and purchasing stoves.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Category: EconomyWith reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (Level- Easy)
- An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.
- An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.
- An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct: An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate reflects the appreciation of the rupee.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: When the Real Effective Exchange Rate improves or increases it results in reducing trade competitiveness.
- Statement 3 is correct: An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries causes an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct: An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate reflects the appreciation of the rupee.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: When the Real Effective Exchange Rate improves or increases it results in reducing trade competitiveness.
- Statement 3 is correct: An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries causes an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Category: Current AffairsWho among the following organisations releases the “The Hunger Hotspots Outlook”? (Level-Medium)
- United Nations
- Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO)
- United Nations Development Program (UNDP)
- World Food Programme
Choose the correct option from below:
Correct
- The ‘Hunger Hotspots Outlook’ is a report by the Food and Agriculture Organisation of the United Nations (FAO) and World Food Programme (WFP).
- Report warns that acute food insecurity is likely to deteriorate further in 19 countries or situations – called hunger hotspots – during the outlook period from October 2022 to January 2023.
- Afghanistan, Ethiopia, Nigeria, South Sudan, Somalia and Yemen remain at the highest alert level, as they all have populations facing or projected to face starvation or at risk of deterioration towards catastrophic conditions as they already have critical food insecurity and are facing severe aggravating factors.
Incorrect
- The ‘Hunger Hotspots Outlook’ is a report by the Food and Agriculture Organisation of the United Nations (FAO) and World Food Programme (WFP).
- Report warns that acute food insecurity is likely to deteriorate further in 19 countries or situations – called hunger hotspots – during the outlook period from October 2022 to January 2023.
- Afghanistan, Ethiopia, Nigeria, South Sudan, Somalia and Yemen remain at the highest alert level, as they all have populations facing or projected to face starvation or at risk of deterioration towards catastrophic conditions as they already have critical food insecurity and are facing severe aggravating factors.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Category: International RelationsWhich among the following countries are not the members of G20? (Level-Medium)
- Malaysia
- Singapore
- Philippines
- Vietnam
Choose the correct option from below:
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Category: EconomyWith regards to Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India consider the following statements(Level-Medium)
- FDI in India has seen a consistent rise in the past 10 years.
- The confidence in the Indian economy has been driven by a weakening Rupee.
Choose the correct option from below:
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, According to a recent report by the Confederation of Indian Industries (CII) and EY, FDI in India has seen a consistent rise in the last decade, with FY2021-22 receiving an FDI inflow of USD 84.8 billion despite the impact of the pandemic and geo-political developments on investment sentiment.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, As per the report, the confidence in India’s potential stems from strong consumption trends, digitisation and a growing services sector, along with government’s strong focus on infrastructure and manufacturing.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, According to a recent report by the Confederation of Indian Industries (CII) and EY, FDI in India has seen a consistent rise in the last decade, with FY2021-22 receiving an FDI inflow of USD 84.8 billion despite the impact of the pandemic and geo-political developments on investment sentiment.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, As per the report, the confidence in India’s potential stems from strong consumption trends, digitisation and a growing services sector, along with government’s strong focus on infrastructure and manufacturing.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Category: International Relations“The Common Framework”, recently seen in news, is associated with which one of the following multilateral organisations? (Level-Medium)
Correct
- G20 Common Framework is the Common Framework for Debt Treatments beyond the Debt Service Suspension Initiative (DSSI). It is endorsed by the G20 members together with the Paris Club.
- It was announced in November 2020 to deal with the issue of unsustainable debts faced by various countries.
Incorrect
- G20 Common Framework is the Common Framework for Debt Treatments beyond the Debt Service Suspension Initiative (DSSI). It is endorsed by the G20 members together with the Paris Club.
- It was announced in November 2020 to deal with the issue of unsustainable debts faced by various countries.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Category: Current AffairsWhich among the following are the parameters used to compute the Global Hunger Index ? (Level-Difficult)
- Micro nutrient Deficiency
- Macro nutrient Deficiency
- Maternal Mortality Rate
- Infant Mortality Rate
Choose the correct option from below:
Correct
Global Hunger Index scores are based on the values of four component indicators:
- Undernourishment
- Child stunting
- Child wasting
- Child mortality
Incorrect
Global Hunger Index scores are based on the values of four component indicators:
- Undernourishment
- Child stunting
- Child wasting
- Child mortality
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Category: EconomyWhich one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effect? (Level-Easy)(CSE-PYQ-2013)
Correct
- Extremely high rates of inflation are generally associated with high rates of money growth. It is often the result of financing large deficits by printing money.
Incorrect
- Extremely high rates of inflation are generally associated with high rates of money growth. It is often the result of financing large deficits by printing money.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Category: PolityWith reference to the discretionary powers of the Governor, which among the following statements are correct? (Level – Medium)
- She/He can summon or prorogue the house at his/her own discretion when the government has lost its majority.
- The Governor has to act always under the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.
- The Governor can remove a Minister without the aid and advice of the Chief Minister.
Choose the correct option from below:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, The governor can summon or prorogue the house at his/her own discretion when the government has lost its majority.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The Governor of a state, unlike the President of India, is conferred with the power to act at his own discretion. There are two categories of discretion for the governor. One is Constitutional Discretion and the other is Situational Discretion.
- Statement 3 is not correct, A Governor cannot dismiss a Minister unless recommended by the Chief Minister.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, The governor can summon or prorogue the house at his/her own discretion when the government has lost its majority.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The Governor of a state, unlike the President of India, is conferred with the power to act at his own discretion. There are two categories of discretion for the governor. One is Constitutional Discretion and the other is Situational Discretion.
- Statement 3 is not correct, A Governor cannot dismiss a Minister unless recommended by the Chief Minister.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Category: Defence & SecurityWhich among the following countries has/have demonstrated Submarine Launched Ballistic Missile Capability? (Level – Medium)
- India
- United States of America
- France
- Russia
- United Kingdom
- China
- South Korea
Choose the correct answer from below:
Correct
- With the successful launch of a submarine-launched ballistic missile (SLBM), India has joined a league of nations SLBM Capability.
- Other countries with SLBM Capabilities include: The US, Russia, the UK, France, China and North Korea.
Incorrect
- With the successful launch of a submarine-launched ballistic missile (SLBM), India has joined a league of nations SLBM Capability.
- Other countries with SLBM Capabilities include: The US, Russia, the UK, France, China and North Korea.
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Category: EconomyWhat are the benefits of RBI’s latest “Tokenisation”? (Level – Medium)
- It cannot be broken into by any hacker
- Token generated is useless outside the merchant’s ecosystem
- The new method can be used online and offline
Choose the correct options from below:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, Tokenization is the process of exchanging sensitive data for nonsensitive data called “tokens” that can be used in a database or internal system without bringing it into scope.
- Tokenization is less vulnerable to hacking and is not completely immune.
- Statement 2 is correct, The token generated upon request for a specific merchant is unique to a specific card number and is usable only on that particular site or mobile app. The token is useless outside of that merchant’s ecosystem.
- Statement 3 is not correct, The new mandate is only for the use of credit/debit cards online.
- For offline merchants, users would continue to swipe the cards on the POS machines as per previously existing guidelines.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, Tokenization is the process of exchanging sensitive data for nonsensitive data called “tokens” that can be used in a database or internal system without bringing it into scope.
- Tokenization is less vulnerable to hacking and is not completely immune.
- Statement 2 is correct, The token generated upon request for a specific merchant is unique to a specific card number and is usable only on that particular site or mobile app. The token is useless outside of that merchant’s ecosystem.
- Statement 3 is not correct, The new mandate is only for the use of credit/debit cards online.
- For offline merchants, users would continue to swipe the cards on the POS machines as per previously existing guidelines.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Category: EconomyThe balance of payments of a country is a systematic record of (Level – Easy) [PYQ 2013]
Correct
- The Balance of Payments (BoP) of a country is a systematic record of all import and export transactions of a country during a given period of time normally a year.
- Hence option a is correct.
Incorrect
- The Balance of Payments (BoP) of a country is a systematic record of all import and export transactions of a country during a given period of time normally a year.
- Hence option a is correct.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Category: Defence & SecurityConsider the following statements with respect to global arms imports and exports. (Level – Medium)
- India has been the largest importer of arms from 2017 to 2021.
- India accounts for over 25% of the total global arms import.
- Russia was the largest global arms exporter in the period spanning 2017 to 2021.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, India was the world’s largest importer of major arms in 2017-21.
- Statement 2 is not correct, Despite a significant decrease, India still accounts for about 11% of total global arms imports.
- Statement 3 is not correct, The United States was the world’s largest arms exporter responsible for about 38.6% of international arms sales between 2017 and 2021.
- The five largest arms exporters in 2017–21 were the United States, Russia, France, China and Germany.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, India was the world’s largest importer of major arms in 2017-21.
- Statement 2 is not correct, Despite a significant decrease, India still accounts for about 11% of total global arms imports.
- Statement 3 is not correct, The United States was the world’s largest arms exporter responsible for about 38.6% of international arms sales between 2017 and 2021.
- The five largest arms exporters in 2017–21 were the United States, Russia, France, China and Germany.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements about Global Astrometric Interferometer for Astrophysics (GAIA) spacecraft. (Level – Medium)
- It is a space observatory of NASA.
- The mission aims to construct by far the largest and most precise three-dimensional map of our galaxy including stars, planets, comets, asteroids and quasars, among others.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, GAIA is a space observatory of the European Space Agency (ESA) which was launched in 2013.
- Statement 2 is correct, The mission aims to construct by far the largest and most precise three-dimensional map of our galaxy including stars, planets, comets, asteroids and quasars, among others.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, GAIA is a space observatory of the European Space Agency (ESA) which was launched in 2013.
- Statement 2 is correct, The mission aims to construct by far the largest and most precise three-dimensional map of our galaxy including stars, planets, comets, asteroids and quasars, among others.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Category: G KIndia’s National Maritime Heritage Complex is being set up in which of the following states? (Level – Easy)
Correct
- National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) is being set up in Lothal in Gujarat.
- It is a first-of-its-kind complex in India and this centre will showcase India’s rich and diverse maritime heritage.
Incorrect
- National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) is being set up in Lothal in Gujarat.
- It is a first-of-its-kind complex in India and this centre will showcase India’s rich and diverse maritime heritage.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements about the global carbon cycle. (Level – Difficult)
- Soil contains more carbon than all plants and the atmosphere combined.
- Depending on the soil conditions, nitrogen can either stabilise or destabilise the soil carbon pool.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, Studies have revealed that the soil contains more carbon than all plants and the atmosphere combined and it is essential to ensure its persistence.
- Statement 2 is correct, Depending on the soil conditions, nitrogen can either stabilise or destabilise the soil carbon pool.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, Studies have revealed that the soil contains more carbon than all plants and the atmosphere combined and it is essential to ensure its persistence.
- Statement 2 is correct, Depending on the soil conditions, nitrogen can either stabilise or destabilise the soil carbon pool.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Category: HistoryConsider the following statements: (Level – Difficult) PYQ (2019)
- In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as ‘Amil’.
- The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.
- The office of ‘Mir Bakshi’ came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, Amil were the officers in charge of revenue collection in the administration of the Delhi Sultanate.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The Iqta system was a unique type of land distribution and administrative system introduced during the reign of Iltutmish.
- The original Iqta system has its origins in Persia and the Middle East.
- Statement 3 is not correct, Mir Bakshi was the head of the military department during the reign of the Mughal Empire.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, Amil were the officers in charge of revenue collection in the administration of the Delhi Sultanate.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The Iqta system was a unique type of land distribution and administrative system introduced during the reign of Iltutmish.
- The original Iqta system has its origins in Persia and the Middle East.
- Statement 3 is not correct, Mir Bakshi was the head of the military department during the reign of the Mughal Empire.
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