UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Jul 29 – Aug 04 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Current Affairs Monthly Magazine (June 2023)
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UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from Jul 29 – Aug 04 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.
Post your scores in the comment section below!
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UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Jul 29 – Aug 04
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Category: EconomyConsider the following statements: (Level – Medium)
- A hike in repo rate will lead to borrowing rates of all kinds also going up.
- Generally, an increase in the repo rate will result in an increase in the economy’s growth rate.
- OBICUS (Order Books, Inventories and Capacity Utilization Survey) of the RBI provides insight into the demands of the Indian manufacturing sector.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, Repo rate is the interest rate at which RBI lends money to the banking system and an increase in repo rate increases the borrowing rates of all kinds.
- Statement 2 is not correct, An increase in Repo rate can also adversely affect economic growth due to decrease in consumption resulting from lower money supply in the economy.
- Statement 3 is correct, OBICUS (Order Books, Inventories and Capacity Utilization Survey) of the RBI provides an insight into the demands of the Indian manufacturing sector.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, Repo rate is the interest rate at which RBI lends money to the banking system and an increase in repo rate increases the borrowing rates of all kinds.
- Statement 2 is not correct, An increase in Repo rate can also adversely affect economic growth due to decrease in consumption resulting from lower money supply in the economy.
- Statement 3 is correct, OBICUS (Order Books, Inventories and Capacity Utilization Survey) of the RBI provides an insight into the demands of the Indian manufacturing sector.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Category: International RelationsConsider the following statements with respect to the START treaty: (Level – Difficult)
- Signed in 1991, the START I (Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty) was a bilateral treaty between the United States and the Soviet Union on the reduction and the limitation of strategic offensive arms.
- The treaty barred its signatories from deploying more than 6,000 nuclear warheads and a total of 1,600 intercontinental ballistic missiles (ICBMs) and bombers.
- The New START treaty limits the number of deployed strategic nuclear warheads to 1,550, which is down nearly two-thirds from the original START treaty.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, START (Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty) was a bilateral treaty between the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR) and the United States of America on the limitation and reduction of strategic offensive arms.
- The treaty was signed on 31 July 1991 and entered into force on 5 December 1994.
- Statement 2 is correct, The treaty barred its signatories from deploying more than 6,000 nuclear warheads atop a total of 1,600 inter-continental ballistic missiles (ICBMs) and bombers.
- Statement 3 is correct, The New START treaty limits the number of deployed strategic nuclear warheads to 1,550, which is down nearly two-thirds from the original START treaty.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, START (Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty) was a bilateral treaty between the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR) and the United States of America on the limitation and reduction of strategic offensive arms.
- The treaty was signed on 31 July 1991 and entered into force on 5 December 1994.
- Statement 2 is correct, The treaty barred its signatories from deploying more than 6,000 nuclear warheads atop a total of 1,600 inter-continental ballistic missiles (ICBMs) and bombers.
- Statement 3 is correct, The New START treaty limits the number of deployed strategic nuclear warheads to 1,550, which is down nearly two-thirds from the original START treaty.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Category: G KConsider the following statements with respect to the Commonwealth Games: (Level – Medium)
- The motto of 2022 Commonwealth Games was “Sport is just the beginning”.
- Unlike the Olympics, para athletes also participated in the same Commonwealth games, making it the first fully inclusive international multi-sport event.
- 2022 Commonwealth games are the first global multi-sport event to have more events for women than men.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, The motto of the 2022 Commonwealth Games was “Sport is just the beginning”
- Statement 2 is correct, Unlike the Olympics, para athletes also participated in the same Commonwealth games, making it the first fully inclusive international multi-sport event.
- Statement 3 is correct, The 2022 Commonwealth games are the first global multi-sport event to have more events for women than men.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, The motto of the 2022 Commonwealth Games was “Sport is just the beginning”
- Statement 2 is correct, Unlike the Olympics, para athletes also participated in the same Commonwealth games, making it the first fully inclusive international multi-sport event.
- Statement 3 is correct, The 2022 Commonwealth games are the first global multi-sport event to have more events for women than men.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Category: Current Affairs‘Porcupine strategy’, often seen in the news, is related to which of the following? (Level – Easy)
Correct
- The “porcupine strategy” proposed in 2008 by US Naval War College research professor William S Murray, is a strategy of asymmetric warfare focused on fortifying a weak state’s defences to exploit the enemy’s weaknesses rather than taking on its strengths.
Incorrect
- The “porcupine strategy” proposed in 2008 by US Naval War College research professor William S Murray, is a strategy of asymmetric warfare focused on fortifying a weak state’s defences to exploit the enemy’s weaknesses rather than taking on its strengths.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Category: EconomyWith reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements (Level – Easy)PYQ (2022)
- If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.
- If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.
- If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, If the inflation is too high, RBI would sell government securities to ease out the pressure.
- Statement 2 is correct, If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market to maintain liquidity and reduce volatility in the market.
- Statement 3 is correct, Elimination of exchange rate variation between legacy currencies is expected to lead to an increase in trade and investment between the countries. When the central bank sells dollars, it sucks out an equivalent amount in rupees, thus reducing the rupee liquidity in the system. Dollar inflow into the market will strengthen the rupee. So, RBI will buy dollars in case interest rates fall in the USA or European Union.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, If the inflation is too high, RBI would sell government securities to ease out the pressure.
- Statement 2 is correct, If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market to maintain liquidity and reduce volatility in the market.
- Statement 3 is correct, Elimination of exchange rate variation between legacy currencies is expected to lead to an increase in trade and investment between the countries. When the central bank sells dollars, it sucks out an equivalent amount in rupees, thus reducing the rupee liquidity in the system. Dollar inflow into the market will strengthen the rupee. So, RBI will buy dollars in case interest rates fall in the USA or European Union.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Category: History“The participation of women in the Quit India Movement of 1942 was significant from several aspects.” Who among the following participated in the Quit India Movement (Level – Difficult)
- Usha Mehta
- Matangini Hazra
- Sucheta Kriplani
- Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
Options:
Correct
- Usha Mehta was a Gandhian and freedom fighter who organized the Congress Radio (Secret Congress Radio) an underground radio station, which functioned during the Quit India Movement.
- Matangini Hazra was an Indian revolutionary who participated in the Quit India Movement. She was affectionately known as Gandhi Buri.
- Sucheta Kripalani played an active part in the Quit India Movement. She is also the first women to become a Chief Minister of a state in India (Uttar Pradesh)
- Rajkumari Amrit Kaur was designated as a member of the Advisory Board of Education by the colonial authorities. However, she quit the board owing to her involvement in the Quit India Movement.
- Rajkumari Amrit Kaur was the first Indian woman to join the Cabinet of Independent India as its health minister.
Incorrect
- Usha Mehta was a Gandhian and freedom fighter who organized the Congress Radio (Secret Congress Radio) an underground radio station, which functioned during the Quit India Movement.
- Matangini Hazra was an Indian revolutionary who participated in the Quit India Movement. She was affectionately known as Gandhi Buri.
- Sucheta Kripalani played an active part in the Quit India Movement. She is also the first women to become a Chief Minister of a state in India (Uttar Pradesh)
- Rajkumari Amrit Kaur was designated as a member of the Advisory Board of Education by the colonial authorities. However, she quit the board owing to her involvement in the Quit India Movement.
- Rajkumari Amrit Kaur was the first Indian woman to join the Cabinet of Independent India as its health minister.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Category: G KWhich of the given statement/s is/are CORRECT? (Level – Medium)
- The most recent Chess Olympiad was hosted in India for the first time and saw the largest participation in any Chess Olympiad.
- International Chess Federation (FIDE) is recognised as a Global Sporting Organization by the International Olympic Committee.
- Indian women’s team won the country’s first-ever medal in the women’s section in the recent Chess Olympiad.
Choose the correct option:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, The most recent Chess Olympiad was hosted in India for the first time and saw the largest participation in any Chess Olympiad.
- Statement 2 is correct, International Chess Federation (FIDE) was recognised as a Global Sporting Organization by the International Olympic Committee in 1999
- Statement 3 is correct, The India women’s A team achieved a first at the 44th Chess Olympiad by winning the country’s first-ever medal in the women’s section.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, The most recent Chess Olympiad was hosted in India for the first time and saw the largest participation in any Chess Olympiad.
- Statement 2 is correct, International Chess Federation (FIDE) was recognised as a Global Sporting Organization by the International Olympic Committee in 1999
- Statement 3 is correct, The India women’s A team achieved a first at the 44th Chess Olympiad by winning the country’s first-ever medal in the women’s section.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements with respect to NISAR: (Level – Difficult)
- The mission will observe Earth and measure its changing ecosystem and masses globally.
- It will use both L-Brand and S-Brand Radar frequencies. The S-Brand Radar is being built by ISRO and the L-Brand Radar is being built by NASA.
- Its primary goals include spotting warning signs of imminent volcanic eruptions, helping to monitor groundwater supplies, tracking the rate at which ice sheets are melting etc.
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, The NASA-ISRO SAR mission will observe Earth and measure its changing ecosystem and masses globally.
- Statement 2 is correct, It is a dual-frequency Radar imaging satellite and is using both L-Brand and S-Brand Radar frequencies. The S-Brand Radar is being built by ISRO and the L-Brand Radar is being built by NASA
- Statement 3 is correct, The main objective of this research is to make global measurements of the causes and consequences of land surface changes. This includes:
-
- Imbalance in the Ecosystem
- Natural Hazards
- Ice Sheet Collapse
- Agricultural and Forest Biomass
- Soil Moisture Estimation
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, The NASA-ISRO SAR mission will observe Earth and measure its changing ecosystem and masses globally.
- Statement 2 is correct, It is a dual-frequency Radar imaging satellite and is using both L-Brand and S-Brand Radar frequencies. The S-Brand Radar is being built by ISRO and the L-Brand Radar is being built by NASA
- Statement 3 is correct, The main objective of this research is to make global measurements of the causes and consequences of land surface changes. This includes:
-
- Imbalance in the Ecosystem
- Natural Hazards
- Ice Sheet Collapse
- Agricultural and Forest Biomass
- Soil Moisture Estimation
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Category: Science and Technology‘Baansera’, ‘Bashgram’ are seen in the News with reference to: (Level – Difficult)
Correct
- Delhi’s first bamboo theme park titled “Baansera” is being constructed on the Yamuna floodplain.
- “Bashgram”(bamboo village) is India’s first bamboo park set up in Tripura.
Incorrect
- Delhi’s first bamboo theme park titled “Baansera” is being constructed on the Yamuna floodplain.
- “Bashgram”(bamboo village) is India’s first bamboo park set up in Tripura.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Category: Schemes‘Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to: (Level – Medium) PYQ-2016
Correct
- The Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) Scheme is an assessment process in which an individual’s existing skills and experience (formal or informal) are evaluated and certified.
- The Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) was launched in 2016, and RPL is a part of it.
- It is overseen by the Ministry of Entrepreneurship and Skill Development.
Incorrect
- The Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) Scheme is an assessment process in which an individual’s existing skills and experience (formal or informal) are evaluated and certified.
- The Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) was launched in 2016, and RPL is a part of it.
- It is overseen by the Ministry of Entrepreneurship and Skill Development.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Category: PolityIn which amongst the following cases did the Supreme court ensure that convicted criminals don’t contest elections and find a place in the Parliament and State Legislature? (Level- Medium)
Correct
- Option 1 is incorrect, Supreme Court in Kehar Singh v Union of India, 1988 case talks about Article 72 of the Indian Constitution regarding the power of the President to grant pardons, etc. and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases.
- Option 2 is incorrect, ‘Kihoto Hollohan vs Zachillhu And Others’ (1992) case is regarding the constitutional challenge to the Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution and discretionary powers granted to the Speaker.
- The Supreme Court of India upheld the sweeping discretion available to the Speaker in deciding cases of disqualification of MLAs.
- Option 3 is correct, The judgment in Lily Thomas v Union of India case has provided that all the elected or non-elected MPs and MLAs would be disqualified with immediate effect if they were convicted in a criminal case by a trial court and the saving clause under section 8(4) will not be applicable.
- Option 4 is incorrect, Lok Prahari v Union Of India And Others case deals with the provision of Article 224A of the Constitution of India regarding the appointment of ad hoc Judges to deal with the backlog of cases in High Courts.
Incorrect
- Option 1 is incorrect, Supreme Court in Kehar Singh v Union of India, 1988 case talks about Article 72 of the Indian Constitution regarding the power of the President to grant pardons, etc. and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases.
- Option 2 is incorrect, ‘Kihoto Hollohan vs Zachillhu And Others’ (1992) case is regarding the constitutional challenge to the Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution and discretionary powers granted to the Speaker.
- The Supreme Court of India upheld the sweeping discretion available to the Speaker in deciding cases of disqualification of MLAs.
- Option 3 is correct, The judgment in Lily Thomas v Union of India case has provided that all the elected or non-elected MPs and MLAs would be disqualified with immediate effect if they were convicted in a criminal case by a trial court and the saving clause under section 8(4) will not be applicable.
- Option 4 is incorrect, Lok Prahari v Union Of India And Others case deals with the provision of Article 224A of the Constitution of India regarding the appointment of ad hoc Judges to deal with the backlog of cases in High Courts.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements: (Level-Easy)
- In case of a conflict between the central law and the state law on a subject enumerated in the Concurrent List, the central law prevails over the state law.
- If the state law has been reserved for the consideration of the President and has received his assent, then the state law prevails in that state.
- The Malimath Committee, constituted by the Atal Bihari Vajpayee government in 2000, favoured making Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code (dowry harassment) a bailable and compoundable offense.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct. If there is any inconsistency between laws made by Parliament and laws made by the Legislatures of States on subjects in the concurrent list then the central law prevails over the state law.
- Statement 2 is correct, as per Article 254(2) of the Indian Constitution, the law made by the State shall prevail if it has been reserved for the consideration of the President and has received his assent.
- Statement 3 is correct, Malimath Committee headed by Justice V.S. Malimath to examine the fundamental principles of criminal law favoured making Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code (dowry harassment) a bailable and compoundable offense.
Read more on the 7th schedule of the Indian Constitution.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct. If there is any inconsistency between laws made by Parliament and laws made by the Legislatures of States on subjects in the concurrent list then the central law prevails over the state law.
- Statement 2 is correct, as per Article 254(2) of the Indian Constitution, the law made by the State shall prevail if it has been reserved for the consideration of the President and has received his assent.
- Statement 3 is correct, Malimath Committee headed by Justice V.S. Malimath to examine the fundamental principles of criminal law favoured making Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code (dowry harassment) a bailable and compoundable offense.
Read more on the 7th schedule of the Indian Constitution.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Category: HistoryWhich amongst the following is not correctly matched as per the Chola inscriptions? (Level-Difficult)
- Vellanvagai – land of non-Brahmana peasant proprietors
- Pallichchhandam – land gifted to Brahmanas
- Shalabhoga – land gifted to temples
Options:
Correct
- Pair 1 is correctly matched, Vellanvagai was land of non-Brahmana peasant proprietors, and land gifted to temples was referred to as devadana or tirunamattukkani.
- Pair 2 is incorrectly matched, Pallichchhandam was land donated to Jaina institutions.
- Pair 3 is incorrectly matched, Shalabhoga refers to the land denoted to the maintenance of a school.
Incorrect
- Pair 1 is correctly matched, Vellanvagai was land of non-Brahmana peasant proprietors, and land gifted to temples was referred to as devadana or tirunamattukkani.
- Pair 2 is incorrectly matched, Pallichchhandam was land donated to Jaina institutions.
- Pair 3 is incorrectly matched, Shalabhoga refers to the land denoted to the maintenance of a school.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Category: HistoryWith respect to Third Anglo Mysore War, which of the following statements is/are correct? (Level-Easy)
- During the initial phase of the war Tipu defeated the English under Cornwallis.
- The War ended with the Treaty of Mangalore.
- It was during the Third Anglo-Mysore War that Tipu’s two sons were taken as hostages by the British.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is incorrect, Tipu was defeated in the first phase of the war against Lord Cornwallis and his forces had to retreat.
- Statement 2 is incorrect, the war ended with the Treaty of Seringapatam in 1792.
- Statement 3 is correct, as per the treaty, Tipu had to surrender two of his sons as surety to the British till he paid his due.
Read more on the Third and Fourth Anglo-Mysore wars.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is incorrect, Tipu was defeated in the first phase of the war against Lord Cornwallis and his forces had to retreat.
- Statement 2 is incorrect, the war ended with the Treaty of Seringapatam in 1792.
- Statement 3 is correct, as per the treaty, Tipu had to surrender two of his sons as surety to the British till he paid his due.
Read more on the Third and Fourth Anglo-Mysore wars.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Category: PolityWith reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (Level-Medium) (CSE Prelims:2022)
- The Tea Board is a statutory body.
- It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.
- The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
- The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
The Tea Board was set up under the Tea Act 1953. It has succeeded the Central Tea Board and the Indian Tea Licencing Committee which functioned respectively under the Central Tea Board Act, 1949 and the Indian Tea Control Act, 1938 which were repealed. The Tea Board is functioning as a statutory body of the Central Government under the Ministry of Commerce.
Incorrect
The Tea Board was set up under the Tea Act 1953. It has succeeded the Central Tea Board and the Indian Tea Licencing Committee which functioned respectively under the Central Tea Board Act, 1949 and the Indian Tea Control Act, 1938 which were repealed. The Tea Board is functioning as a statutory body of the Central Government under the Ministry of Commerce.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with respect to Vice-President of India: (Level- Easy)
- To be eligible for election as Vice-President, he/she should be qualified for election as a member of the lower house.
- The oath of office to the Vice-President is administered by the Chief Justice of India and in his absence, the seniormost judge of the Supreme Court available.
- If the office falls vacant by resignation, removal, death or otherwise, then an election to fill the vacancy should be held within six months from the date of the occurrence of such a vacancy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is incorrect, An Indian citizen who has completed 35 years of age is qualified to become the Vice-President of India given he is also qualified to be a Rajya Sabha/Upper House member.
- Statement 2 is incorrect, The President of India administers the oath to the vice president.
- Statement 3 is incorrect, there is no provision of a ‘six-month’ time frame to fill the vacancy to the post of Vice president as in the case for the President of India in the Indian Constitution.
Read more on the Vice President of India.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is incorrect, An Indian citizen who has completed 35 years of age is qualified to become the Vice-President of India given he is also qualified to be a Rajya Sabha/Upper House member.
- Statement 2 is incorrect, The President of India administers the oath to the vice president.
- Statement 3 is incorrect, there is no provision of a ‘six-month’ time frame to fill the vacancy to the post of Vice president as in the case for the President of India in the Indian Constitution.
Read more on the Vice President of India.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyWith respect to Elephants, which of the following statements is/are correct? (Level-Medium)
- Asian Elephant is listed as Endangered on the IUCN red list.
- Only some male Asian elephants have tusks, while both male and female African elephants grow tusks.
- There are two species of African elephants—the savanna (or bush) elephant and the forest elephant. Forest elephants are larger than Savanna elephants, and their tusks curve outwards.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, The Asian elephant has been listed as ‘Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List since 1986 as the elephant population has declined over the last 60-55 years.
- Statement 2 is correct, Only some male Asian elephants have tusks, while both male and female African elephants grow tusks.
- Statement 3 is incorrect, The African elephant was recently split into two different species, the African forest elephant and the African savanna elephant, by IUCN.
- Critically Endangered African savanna elephants are larger and their tusks curve outward. The tusks of the Endangered African forest elephant are straighter, pointing downward, and they have more rounded ears.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, The Asian elephant has been listed as ‘Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List since 1986 as the elephant population has declined over the last 60-55 years.
- Statement 2 is correct, Only some male Asian elephants have tusks, while both male and female African elephants grow tusks.
- Statement 3 is incorrect, The African elephant was recently split into two different species, the African forest elephant and the African savanna elephant, by IUCN.
- Critically Endangered African savanna elephants are larger and their tusks curve outward. The tusks of the Endangered African forest elephant are straighter, pointing downward, and they have more rounded ears.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Category: International RelationsThe United Nations (UN) Security Council Resolution 39 (1948) is concerned with (Level-Medium)
Correct
United Nations Security Council Resolution 39, adopted on January 20, 1948, offered to assist in the peaceful resolution of the Kashmir Conflict by setting up a commission of three members.
Incorrect
United Nations Security Council Resolution 39, adopted on January 20, 1948, offered to assist in the peaceful resolution of the Kashmir Conflict by setting up a commission of three members.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Category: GeographyConsider the following Pairs: (Level-Difficult)
Waterfalls State
- Kunchikal Falls Karnataka
- Barehipani Falls Odisha
- Nohkalikai Falls Meghalaya
- Vajrai Falls Maharashtra
- Wei Sawdong Falls Mizoram
Which of the above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
- Pair one is correctly matched, Kunchikal Falls is formed by Varahi River in Shimoga district of Karnataka. It is India’s highest waterfall with a height of 1493 feet.
- Pair two is correctly matched, Barehipani Falls is a two-tiered waterfall located in Simlipal National Park, Odisha. The waterfall is situated on the Budhabalanga river flowing over the Meghasani mountain of the Eastern Ghats.
- Pair three is correctly matched, Nohkalikai Falls is the tallest plunge waterfall in India with a height of 340 meters. It is located in Meghalaya. Nohkalikai Falls is located on the edge of the Cherrapunji Plateau and is always fed by the rain.
- Pair four is correctly matched, The Vajrai Waterfall is located on the Urmodi river in Maharashtra. It is the second highest plunge waterfall in India with a drop of 335 meters.
- Pair five is incorrectly matched, Wei Sawdong Falls is a three-tiered waterfall located in Meghalaya.
Read more on the highest waterfalls in India.
Incorrect
- Pair one is correctly matched, Kunchikal Falls is formed by Varahi River in Shimoga district of Karnataka. It is India’s highest waterfall with a height of 1493 feet.
- Pair two is correctly matched, Barehipani Falls is a two-tiered waterfall located in Simlipal National Park, Odisha. The waterfall is situated on the Budhabalanga river flowing over the Meghasani mountain of the Eastern Ghats.
- Pair three is correctly matched, Nohkalikai Falls is the tallest plunge waterfall in India with a height of 340 meters. It is located in Meghalaya. Nohkalikai Falls is located on the edge of the Cherrapunji Plateau and is always fed by the rain.
- Pair four is correctly matched, The Vajrai Waterfall is located on the Urmodi river in Maharashtra. It is the second highest plunge waterfall in India with a drop of 335 meters.
- Pair five is incorrectly matched, Wei Sawdong Falls is a three-tiered waterfall located in Meghalaya.
Read more on the highest waterfalls in India.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Category: EconomyWith reference to Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements: (Level-Medium) (CSE-Prelims-2022)
- As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest.
- The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, Convertible bonds offer a lower coupon rate in exchange for the value of the option to convert the bond into common stock.
- Statement 2 is correct, The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices as equity prices can differ widely from the given interest and the difference in that can be used as a hedge for the inflation.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, Convertible bonds offer a lower coupon rate in exchange for the value of the option to convert the bond into common stock.
- Statement 2 is correct, The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices as equity prices can differ widely from the given interest and the difference in that can be used as a hedge for the inflation.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements: (Level – Medium)
- Project Elephant is a centrally sponsored scheme and was launched in February 1992 for the protection of elephants, their habitats and corridors.
- As per Elephant Census (2017), Karnataka has the highest number of elephants, followed by Assam and Kerala.
- The elephant herd is led by the oldest and largest female member (known as the matriarch).
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, Project Elephant is a Central Government sponsored scheme launched in February 1992.
- Statement 02 is correct, India has the world’s largest population of Asian Elephants with around 27,000 Elephants. As per the 2017 Elephant Census, Karnataka has the highest number of elephants (6,049), followed by Assam (5,719) and Kerala (3,054).
- Statement 03 is correct, The elephant herd is led by the oldest and largest female member (known as the matriarch). This herd includes the daughters of the matriarch and their offspring.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, Project Elephant is a Central Government sponsored scheme launched in February 1992.
- Statement 02 is correct, India has the world’s largest population of Asian Elephants with around 27,000 Elephants. As per the 2017 Elephant Census, Karnataka has the highest number of elephants (6,049), followed by Assam (5,719) and Kerala (3,054).
- Statement 03 is correct, The elephant herd is led by the oldest and largest female member (known as the matriarch). This herd includes the daughters of the matriarch and their offspring.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with respect to the Essential Commodities Act, 1955: (Level – Medium)
- There is no specific definition of essential commodities in the Essential Commodities Act, 1955.
- The Ministry of Rural Development implements the Act.
- The Act gives powers to the central government to add or remove a commodity from the list of essential commodities.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, There is no specific definition of essential commodities in The EC Act. Section 2(A) of the Act states that an “essential commodity” means a commodity specified in the “Schedule” of this Act.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, The Union Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution implements the Act.
- Statement 01 is correct, The Act empowers the central government to control the production, supply, distribution, trade, and commerce in certain commodities by adding or removing a commodity in the list of essential commodities.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, There is no specific definition of essential commodities in The EC Act. Section 2(A) of the Act states that an “essential commodity” means a commodity specified in the “Schedule” of this Act.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, The Union Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution implements the Act.
- Statement 01 is correct, The Act empowers the central government to control the production, supply, distribution, trade, and commerce in certain commodities by adding or removing a commodity in the list of essential commodities.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyAs per the recent judgment of the Supreme Court, national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and such protected forests must have an Eco-Sensitive Zone of minimum ________ from their boundaries. (Level – Easy)
Correct
The three-judge bench of the Supreme Court of India directed that every protected forest, national park and wildlife sanctuary across the country should have a mandatory eco-sensitive zone (ESZ) of a minimum of one km starting from their demarcated boundaries.
Incorrect
The three-judge bench of the Supreme Court of India directed that every protected forest, national park and wildlife sanctuary across the country should have a mandatory eco-sensitive zone (ESZ) of a minimum of one km starting from their demarcated boundaries.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Category: International RelationsConsider the following statements with regards to Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA): (Level – Easy)
- China was a part of the JCPOA deal.
- Under the agreement, Iran agreed to implement a protocol that would allow inspectors from the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA).
- After Donald Trump backed out of the deal, the other nations launched a barter system known as INSTEX to facilitate transactions with Iran outside the US banking system.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, The Iran Nuclear Deal, formally known as the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA) is an agreement on the Iranian nuclear program reached in Vienna on 14 July 2015, between Iran and the P5+1 (the five permanent members of the United Nations Security Council—China, France, Russia, United Kingdom, United States—plus Germany).
- Statement 02 is correct, Iran agreed to implement a protocol that would allow inspectors from the International Atomic Energy Agency unrestricted access to its nuclear facilities. This access can also be applied to undeclared sites.
- Statement 03 is correct, after the exit of the United States, the other powers, in an attempt to keep the deal alive, launched a barter system known as INSTEX to facilitate transactions with Iran outside the US banking system.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, The Iran Nuclear Deal, formally known as the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA) is an agreement on the Iranian nuclear program reached in Vienna on 14 July 2015, between Iran and the P5+1 (the five permanent members of the United Nations Security Council—China, France, Russia, United Kingdom, United States—plus Germany).
- Statement 02 is correct, Iran agreed to implement a protocol that would allow inspectors from the International Atomic Energy Agency unrestricted access to its nuclear facilities. This access can also be applied to undeclared sites.
- Statement 03 is correct, after the exit of the United States, the other powers, in an attempt to keep the deal alive, launched a barter system known as INSTEX to facilitate transactions with Iran outside the US banking system.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWho of the following scientists proved that the stars with mass less than 1.44 times the mass of the Sun end up as White Dwarfs when they die? (Level – Medium)
Correct
In the 1930s, using Albert Einstein’s special theory of relativity and the principles of quantum physics, Subramanyan Chandrasekhar proved that it is impossible for a white dwarf star, which is supported solely by a degenerate gas of electrons, to be stable if its mass is greater than 1.44 times the mass of the Sun. This limit is crucial in the evolution of stars. This is known as Chandrasekhar Limit.
Incorrect
In the 1930s, using Albert Einstein’s special theory of relativity and the principles of quantum physics, Subramanyan Chandrasekhar proved that it is impossible for a white dwarf star, which is supported solely by a degenerate gas of electrons, to be stable if its mass is greater than 1.44 times the mass of the Sun. This limit is crucial in the evolution of stars. This is known as Chandrasekhar Limit.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Category: Art and CultureWith respect to Zoroastrianism, which of the following statements is/are correct? (Level – Medium)
- The holy book is Torah.
- Fire and water are regarded as the pure symbol of the Zoroastrian religion
- Dakhma-nashini is a religious practice of voluntarily fasting to death by gradually reducing the intake of food and liquids.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 01 is incorrect, The holy book is Avesta.
- Statement 02 is correct, Fire along with clean water are considered agents of ritual purity. Fire is used as a medium to communicate with God, whom they call Ahura Mazda
- Statement 03 is incorrect, Dakhma-nashini is a method of corpse destruction.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is incorrect, The holy book is Avesta.
- Statement 02 is correct, Fire along with clean water are considered agents of ritual purity. Fire is used as a medium to communicate with God, whom they call Ahura Mazda
- Statement 03 is incorrect, Dakhma-nashini is a method of corpse destruction.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Category: AgricultureConsider the following statements: (Level- Medium)
- Basmati rice is long-grained rice which has its origin in India and some parts of Pakistan.
- India is the largest producer of Basmati rice with about 70 percent share in global production.
- The yield of Basmati rice from the agricultural land is almost half the non-basmati varieties.
- The older basmati gets better flavour and aroma.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, Basmati rice is long slender looking rice that has its origin in India and some parts of Pakistan.
- Statement 02 is correct, India is the leading producer as well as exporter of Basmati rice with about 70 percent share in global production.
- Statement 03 is correct, The yield of Basmati rice from the agricultural land is almost half the non-basmati varieties. This is also the reason for its high cost.
- Statement 04 is correct, Basmati has a characteristic aroma that is not there in non-basmati varieties.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, Basmati rice is long slender looking rice that has its origin in India and some parts of Pakistan.
- Statement 02 is correct, India is the leading producer as well as exporter of Basmati rice with about 70 percent share in global production.
- Statement 03 is correct, The yield of Basmati rice from the agricultural land is almost half the non-basmati varieties. This is also the reason for its high cost.
- Statement 04 is correct, Basmati has a characteristic aroma that is not there in non-basmati varieties.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Category: HistoryWho among the following was convicted in the Titagarh conspiracy case? (Level - Difficult)
Correct
Parul Mukherjee was connected in the Titagarh conspiracy case together with Purnanondo Das Gupta, Sita Nath Dey, Nihar Ranjan Ray, Shyam Benode Pal Chowdhury, and others for making explosives to fight against the British, due to their severe torture in the labours.
Incorrect
Parul Mukherjee was connected in the Titagarh conspiracy case together with Purnanondo Das Gupta, Sita Nath Dey, Nihar Ranjan Ray, Shyam Benode Pal Chowdhury, and others for making explosives to fight against the British, due to their severe torture in the labours.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Category: HistoryConsider the following statements:(Level- Difficult)
- She was shot dead by the British Indian police in front of the Tamluk Police Station
- She was affectionately known as Gandhi buri
- She took part in the Civil Disobedience movement and was arrested for breaking the Salt Act.
The above statements best describe:
Correct
Matangini Hazra (19 October 1870 – 29 September 1942[1]) was an Indian revolutionary who participated in the Indian independence movement until she was shot dead by the British Indian police in front of the Tamluk Police Station (of erstwhile Midnapore District) on 29 September 1942. She was affectionately known as Gandhi Buri, Bengali for old lady Gandhi.
Incorrect
Matangini Hazra (19 October 1870 – 29 September 1942[1]) was an Indian revolutionary who participated in the Indian independence movement until she was shot dead by the British Indian police in front of the Tamluk Police Station (of erstwhile Midnapore District) on 29 September 1942. She was affectionately known as Gandhi Buri, Bengali for old lady Gandhi.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Category: EconomyWhich one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India? (Level - Easy)
Correct
Indirect transfers refer to situations where when foreign entities own shares or assets in India, the shares of such foreign entities are transferred instead of a direct transfer of the underlying assets in India.
Incorrect
Indirect transfers refer to situations where when foreign entities own shares or assets in India, the shares of such foreign entities are transferred instead of a direct transfer of the underlying assets in India.
quetion paper is very useful for further preparation