UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Sep 02 – Sep 08 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Current Affairs Monthly Magazine (June 2023)
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UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from Sep 02 – Sep 08 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.
Post your scores in the comment section below!
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UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Sep 02 – Sep 08
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: Defence & SecurityConsider the following pairs: (Level-Difficult)
Drones Country of Origin
- MQ-9B USA
- Heron TP France
- SWITCH Russia
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
- Pair 01 is correctly matched, The MQ-9B drone is a variant of the MQ-9 “Reaper” which was used to launch a modified version of the Hellfire missile. India is in an “advanced stage” of negotiations with the U.S. to procure 30 MQ-9B Predator armed drones for over $3 billion.
- Pair 02 is incorrectly matched, The IAI Eitan is an unmanned reconnaissance aircraft developed in Israel in the early 21st century by the Malat division of Israel Aerospace Industries. The aircraft is a newer version of the IAI Heron.
- Pair 03 is incorrectly matched, SWITCH UAV is an indigenous system built to cater to the most demanding surveillance operations of the Indian Forces. It is developed by Indian tech firm Idea Forge.
- It is a Fixed Wing VTOL (Vertical Take-off and Landing) UAV that can be deployed at high altitudes and in harsh environments for day and night surveillance in Intelligence, Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR) missions.
- It is man-portable and has the highest time on target compared to any other UAV in its class.
Incorrect
- Pair 01 is correctly matched, The MQ-9B drone is a variant of the MQ-9 “Reaper” which was used to launch a modified version of the Hellfire missile. India is in an “advanced stage” of negotiations with the U.S. to procure 30 MQ-9B Predator armed drones for over $3 billion.
- Pair 02 is incorrectly matched, The IAI Eitan is an unmanned reconnaissance aircraft developed in Israel in the early 21st century by the Malat division of Israel Aerospace Industries. The aircraft is a newer version of the IAI Heron.
- Pair 03 is incorrectly matched, SWITCH UAV is an indigenous system built to cater to the most demanding surveillance operations of the Indian Forces. It is developed by Indian tech firm Idea Forge.
- It is a Fixed Wing VTOL (Vertical Take-off and Landing) UAV that can be deployed at high altitudes and in harsh environments for day and night surveillance in Intelligence, Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR) missions.
- It is man-portable and has the highest time on target compared to any other UAV in its class.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWith respect to suspension of the Internet, which of the following statements is/are incorrect? (Level-Medium)
- The Rules, issued under the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885, stipulate that only the Director General of Police (DGP) can pass such an order at the State Level.
- Access to the Internet is a fundamental right under Article 19.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 01 is incorrect, In the case of the central government, the review committee comprises the Cabinet Secretary and the Secretaries of the Departments of Legal Affairs and Telecommunications.
- In the case of states, the committee comprises the Chief Secretary, Secretary, Law or Legal Remembrancer In-Charge, Legal Affairs, and a Secretary to the state government (other than the Home Secretary).
- In “unavoidable circumstances”, the order can be issued by an officer of the rank of Joint Secretary or above, authorised by the Centre or the state Home Secretary.
- Statement 02 is correct, The Supreme Court of India has declared access to the internet a fundamental right.
-
- The Supreme Court ruling is also in sync with the United Nations’ recommendation that every country should make access to the Internet a fundamental right.
- In India, Kerala was the first state in 2017 to declare access to the Internet “a basic human right”.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is incorrect, In the case of the central government, the review committee comprises the Cabinet Secretary and the Secretaries of the Departments of Legal Affairs and Telecommunications.
- In the case of states, the committee comprises the Chief Secretary, Secretary, Law or Legal Remembrancer In-Charge, Legal Affairs, and a Secretary to the state government (other than the Home Secretary).
- In “unavoidable circumstances”, the order can be issued by an officer of the rank of Joint Secretary or above, authorised by the Centre or the state Home Secretary.
- Statement 02 is correct, The Supreme Court of India has declared access to the internet a fundamental right.
-
- The Supreme Court ruling is also in sync with the United Nations’ recommendation that every country should make access to the Internet a fundamental right.
- In India, Kerala was the first state in 2017 to declare access to the Internet “a basic human right”.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: HistoryWhich of the following statements with respect to Subhash Chandra Bose is/are correct? (Level-Medium)
- He was influenced by the teachings of Ramakrishna and his disciple Swami Vivekananda.
- While Gandhi was anti-materialistic and hostile to modern technology, Bose saw technology and mass production as essential to survival and dignity.
- Bose wanted a decentralised society.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, Subhash Chandra Bose considered Vivekananda as his spiritual teacher. Bose told, that under the “sacred influence” of Ramakrishna and Vivekananda his own life got awakened.
- Statement 02 is correct, Gandhi was anti-materialistic and hostile to modern technology, Bose saw technology and mass production as essential to survival and dignity.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, Gandhi wanted a decentralised society and disliked the modern state, Bose wanted a strong central government and saw the modern state as the only solution to India’s problems.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, Subhash Chandra Bose considered Vivekananda as his spiritual teacher. Bose told, that under the “sacred influence” of Ramakrishna and Vivekananda his own life got awakened.
- Statement 02 is correct, Gandhi was anti-materialistic and hostile to modern technology, Bose saw technology and mass production as essential to survival and dignity.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, Gandhi wanted a decentralised society and disliked the modern state, Bose wanted a strong central government and saw the modern state as the only solution to India’s problems.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: HistoryWith respect to All India Forward Bloc, which of the following statements is/are correct? (Level-Difficult)
- It emerged in 1939 as a faction of the Indian National Congress (INC).
- The objective was to bring the radical-left elements of INC together.
- The initial committee of the Forward Bloc had Subhash Chandra Bose as president, Khurshed Nariman from Punjab as its vice-president.
Options:
Correct
- Statements 01 and 02 are correct, The All India Forward Bloc is a left-wing nationalist political party that emerged as a faction within the Indian National Congress in 1939, led by Subhash Chandra Bose.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, In July 1939 Subhash Chandra Bose announced the Committee of the Forward Bloc. It had Subhash Chandra Bose as president, S.S. Kavishar from Punjab as its vice-president, Lal Shankarlal from Delhi, as its general secretary and Vishwambhar Dayalu Tripathi and Khurshed Nariman from Bombay as secretaries.
Incorrect
- Statements 01 and 02 are correct, The All India Forward Bloc is a left-wing nationalist political party that emerged as a faction within the Indian National Congress in 1939, led by Subhash Chandra Bose.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, In July 1939 Subhash Chandra Bose announced the Committee of the Forward Bloc. It had Subhash Chandra Bose as president, S.S. Kavishar from Punjab as its vice-president, Lal Shankarlal from Delhi, as its general secretary and Vishwambhar Dayalu Tripathi and Khurshed Nariman from Bombay as secretaries.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWith reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements: (Level-Difficult)(UPSC Prelims-2022)
- Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
- When a wild animal is declared protected, such an animal is entitled to equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
- Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 states that every Wild Animal shall be the property of the State Government, and, where such animal is hunted in a sanctuary or National Park declared by the Central Government, such animal shall be the property of the Central Government.
- Statement 02 is correct, Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, does not discriminate between animals found in protected areas and outside. It provides for equal protection for wild animals irrespective of where they are found.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 states that only if the wild animal becomes a danger to human life or is diseased or disabled beyond recovery can it be allowed to be captured or killed by the competent authority, the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 states that every Wild Animal shall be the property of the State Government, and, where such animal is hunted in a sanctuary or National Park declared by the Central Government, such animal shall be the property of the Central Government.
- Statement 02 is correct, Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, does not discriminate between animals found in protected areas and outside. It provides for equal protection for wild animals irrespective of where they are found.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 states that only if the wild animal becomes a danger to human life or is diseased or disabled beyond recovery can it be allowed to be captured or killed by the competent authority, the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements with regards to Electric vehicles: (Level – Medium)
- Hydrogen is a source of energy, and not an energy carrier.
- A fuel cell converts chemical energy into electrical energy using oxidizing agents through an oxidation-reduction reaction.
- Since fuel cell vehicles use electricity to run, they are considered EVs.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 01 is incorrect, Hydrogen is an energy carrier, not an energy source and can deliver or store a tremendous amount of energy. Hydrogen can be used in fuel cells to generate electricity, or power and heat.
- Statement 02 is correct, A fuel cell is an electrochemical cell that converts the chemical energy of a fuel (often hydrogen) and an oxidizing agent (often oxygen) into electricity through a pair of redox reactions.
- Statement 03 is correct, Fuel Cell Vehicles use a propulsion system similar to that of electric vehicles, where energy stored as hydrogen is converted to electricity by the fuel cell.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is incorrect, Hydrogen is an energy carrier, not an energy source and can deliver or store a tremendous amount of energy. Hydrogen can be used in fuel cells to generate electricity, or power and heat.
- Statement 02 is correct, A fuel cell is an electrochemical cell that converts the chemical energy of a fuel (often hydrogen) and an oxidizing agent (often oxygen) into electricity through a pair of redox reactions.
- Statement 03 is correct, Fuel Cell Vehicles use a propulsion system similar to that of electric vehicles, where energy stored as hydrogen is converted to electricity by the fuel cell.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: AgricultureConsider the following statements with respect to rubber and rubber plantations: (Level – Difficult)
- Natural rubber is preferred over synthetic rubber due to its high tensile strength and vibration dampening properties, along with tear resistance.
- According to FAOStat (Food and Agricultural Organisation Corporate Statistical Database) of 2019, Thailand is the largest Producer of Rubber in the World followed by Indonesia, Malaysia, India, China etc.
- Karnataka is the largest producer of natural rubber in India.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, Natural rubber is known for its properties as a strong, flexible and heat-resistant material used to create latex products. It is preferred over synthetic rubber due to its high tensile strength and vibration dampening properties, along with tear resistance.
- Statement 02 is correct, Thailand is the largest Producer of Rubber in the World followed by Indonesia, Malaysia, India, China etc.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, India’s natural rubber production (NR) increased to a nine-year high in the 2021-22 fiscal. Kerala is the largest producer of natural rubber in India.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, Natural rubber is known for its properties as a strong, flexible and heat-resistant material used to create latex products. It is preferred over synthetic rubber due to its high tensile strength and vibration dampening properties, along with tear resistance.
- Statement 02 is correct, Thailand is the largest Producer of Rubber in the World followed by Indonesia, Malaysia, India, China etc.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, India’s natural rubber production (NR) increased to a nine-year high in the 2021-22 fiscal. Kerala is the largest producer of natural rubber in India.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements with regards to the Cooperatives in India: (Level – Easy)
- The Constitution (97th Amendment) Act, 2011 added a new Part IXB right after Part IXA (Municipals) regarding the cooperatives working in India.
- The word “cooperatives” was added after “unions and associations” in Article 19(1)(c) under Part III of the Constitution.
- A new Article 39B was added in the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) regarding the “promotion of cooperative societies”.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, The Constitution (97th Amendment) Act, 2011 provides constitutional status and protection to the co-operative societies.
- It added Part IXB regarding cooperative working in India right after Part IXA.
- Statement 02 is correct, The word “cooperatives” was added after “unions and associations” in Article 19(1)(c) under Part III of the Constitution.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, A new Article 43B was added in the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) regarding the “promotion of cooperative societies”.
Read more on Cooperatives in India.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, The Constitution (97th Amendment) Act, 2011 provides constitutional status and protection to the co-operative societies.
- It added Part IXB regarding cooperative working in India right after Part IXA.
- Statement 02 is correct, The word “cooperatives” was added after “unions and associations” in Article 19(1)(c) under Part III of the Constitution.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, A new Article 43B was added in the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) regarding the “promotion of cooperative societies”.
Read more on Cooperatives in India.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: HistoryConsider the following statements with regards to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre: (Level – Easy)
- Because of the massacre, Nobel laureate Rabindranath Tagore renounced the Nobel prize that he had received in 1913.
- The then government of India ordered an investigation of the incident (the Hunter Commission), which in 1920 censured Dyer for his actions and ordered him to resign from the military.
- The Rowlatt Act 1919 was passed on the recommendations of the Sedition Committee chaired by Sir Sidney Rowlatt.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 01 is incorrect, Rabindranath Tagore renounced his knighthood in protest against the massacre. He was the first Indian to receive this award in 1915 for his contribution to literature.
- Statement 02 is correct, The government of India formed a commission called the Hunter Commission to inquire into the massacre and other events in Punjab. It was officially called ‘Disorders Inquiry Committee’.
- The commission found that Colonel Reginald Dyer was guilty of ‘a mistaken notion of duty’. He was relieved of his command although no penal or disciplinary action was recommended.
- Statement 03 is correct, The Rowlatt Act was passed by the British government to increase their grip on power over the common folk. This law was passed in March 1919 by the Imperial Legislative Council based on the report of Justice S.A.T. Rowlatt’s committee of 1918.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is incorrect, Rabindranath Tagore renounced his knighthood in protest against the massacre. He was the first Indian to receive this award in 1915 for his contribution to literature.
- Statement 02 is correct, The government of India formed a commission called the Hunter Commission to inquire into the massacre and other events in Punjab. It was officially called ‘Disorders Inquiry Committee’.
- The commission found that Colonel Reginald Dyer was guilty of ‘a mistaken notion of duty’. He was relieved of his command although no penal or disciplinary action was recommended.
- Statement 03 is correct, The Rowlatt Act was passed by the British government to increase their grip on power over the common folk. This law was passed in March 1919 by the Imperial Legislative Council based on the report of Justice S.A.T. Rowlatt’s committee of 1918.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyWith reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/ differences between LTE (Long Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)? (Level – Easy) (CSE Prelims-2019)
- LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.
- LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
- Statement 01 is incorrect, LTE stands for Long Term Evolution. It is a model for high-speed data communication systems, also called 4G. This means you can utilise internet service at the 4G speed. It has the capacity to provide a download speed of 100 Mbps and an uploading speed of 50 Mbps.
- VoLTE stands for Voice over Long Term Evolution. Like LTE, it also holds 4G networks, and you can enjoy the high-speed internet service with it. Even with VoLTE, you can enjoy voice calling with data service.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, under LTE, the infrastructure of telecom players only allows transmission of data while voice calls are routed to their older 2G or 3G networks.
-
- VoLTE is both data and voice technology. Basically VoLTE systems convert voice into the data stream, which is then transmitted using the data connection.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is incorrect, LTE stands for Long Term Evolution. It is a model for high-speed data communication systems, also called 4G. This means you can utilise internet service at the 4G speed. It has the capacity to provide a download speed of 100 Mbps and an uploading speed of 50 Mbps.
- VoLTE stands for Voice over Long Term Evolution. Like LTE, it also holds 4G networks, and you can enjoy the high-speed internet service with it. Even with VoLTE, you can enjoy voice calling with data service.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, under LTE, the infrastructure of telecom players only allows transmission of data while voice calls are routed to their older 2G or 3G networks.
-
- VoLTE is both data and voice technology. Basically VoLTE systems convert voice into the data stream, which is then transmitted using the data connection.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsWhich amongst the following statements is the best description of Project 17A? (Level-Difficult)
Correct
- Project 17A was designed to launch a series of guided-missile frigates to strengthen the marine defence system of the country.
- Taragiri, the third stealth frigate of Project 17A, was launched recently.
- The first ship of Project 17A, Nilgiri, was launched on September 28, 2019, and is expected to begin sea trials in 2024.
Incorrect
- Project 17A was designed to launch a series of guided-missile frigates to strengthen the marine defence system of the country.
- Taragiri, the third stealth frigate of Project 17A, was launched recently.
- The first ship of Project 17A, Nilgiri, was launched on September 28, 2019, and is expected to begin sea trials in 2024.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: Current AffairsConsider the following statements with respect to eligibility criteria for prospective adoptive parents: (Level-Difficult)
- A single female/male can adopt a child of any gender
- The age criteria for prospective adoptive parents shall not be applicable in case of relative adoptions and adoption by a step-parent.
- Couples with three or more children shall not be considered for adoption under all circumstances
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 01 is incorrect, Any prospective adoptive parents, irrespective of his marital status and whether or not he has biological son or daughter, can adopt a child subject to following, namely,
- the consent of both the spouses for the adoption shall be required, in case of a married couple;
- a single female can adopt a child of any gender;
- a single male shall not be eligible to adopt a girl child;
- Statement 02 is correct, The age of prospective adoptive parents, as on the date of registration, shall be counted for deciding the eligibility.
-
- In case of a couple, the composite age of the prospective adoptive parents shall be counted.
- The minimum age difference between the child and either of the prospective adoptive parents shall not be less than twenty-five years.
- The age criteria for prospective adoptive parents shall not be applicable in case of relative adoptions and adoption by step-parent.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, Couples with three or more children shall not be considered for adoption except in case of special need children , hard to place children and in case of relative adoption and adoption by step-parent.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is incorrect, Any prospective adoptive parents, irrespective of his marital status and whether or not he has biological son or daughter, can adopt a child subject to following, namely,
- the consent of both the spouses for the adoption shall be required, in case of a married couple;
- a single female can adopt a child of any gender;
- a single male shall not be eligible to adopt a girl child;
- Statement 02 is correct, The age of prospective adoptive parents, as on the date of registration, shall be counted for deciding the eligibility.
-
- In case of a couple, the composite age of the prospective adoptive parents shall be counted.
- The minimum age difference between the child and either of the prospective adoptive parents shall not be less than twenty-five years.
- The age criteria for prospective adoptive parents shall not be applicable in case of relative adoptions and adoption by step-parent.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, Couples with three or more children shall not be considered for adoption except in case of special need children , hard to place children and in case of relative adoption and adoption by step-parent.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following statements with respect to Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) is/are correct? (Level-Medium)
- If any case has been assigned by the Central Government to the SFIO for investigation under Companies Act, 2013 no other investigating agency of the Central Government or any State Government can proceed with investigation in such cases.
- SFIO does not have the powers to arrest people for violations of companies law.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, SFIO starts an investigation only after receiving an order from the Union government in this respect and it cannot take up cases on their own initiative.
- Once a case has been assigned by the Central Government to the SFIO for investigation under the Indian Companies Act, 2013 no other investigating agency of the Central Government or any State Government can commence the investigation in such cases.
- In case any such investigation has already been initiated, it cannot be proceeded further with, and the concerned agency has to transfer the relevant documents and records in respect of such offences to the Serious Fraud Investigation Office.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, SFIO have the powers to arrest people for violations of companies law
Read more on Serious Fraud Investigation Office.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, SFIO starts an investigation only after receiving an order from the Union government in this respect and it cannot take up cases on their own initiative.
- Once a case has been assigned by the Central Government to the SFIO for investigation under the Indian Companies Act, 2013 no other investigating agency of the Central Government or any State Government can commence the investigation in such cases.
- In case any such investigation has already been initiated, it cannot be proceeded further with, and the concerned agency has to transfer the relevant documents and records in respect of such offences to the Serious Fraud Investigation Office.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, SFIO have the powers to arrest people for violations of companies law
Read more on Serious Fraud Investigation Office.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: SchemesMAARG Portal recently seen in news (Level-Medium)
Correct
- The MAARG Portal by Startup India is a one-stop mentorship platform to facilitate mentorship for startups across diverse sectors, functions, stages, geographies, and backgrounds.
- Startups can connect with academicians, industry experts, successful founders, seasoned investors, and others to get personalised advice on growth strategy, seek clarity, and get practical advice.
- All Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade recognized startups, from all sectors and stages of the startup lifecycle, are eligible to apply for mentorship on the platform all year-round.
Incorrect
- The MAARG Portal by Startup India is a one-stop mentorship platform to facilitate mentorship for startups across diverse sectors, functions, stages, geographies, and backgrounds.
- Startups can connect with academicians, industry experts, successful founders, seasoned investors, and others to get personalised advice on growth strategy, seek clarity, and get practical advice.
- All Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade recognized startups, from all sectors and stages of the startup lifecycle, are eligible to apply for mentorship on the platform all year-round.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWith reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following Statements: (Level-Medium) (UPSC CSE-2022)
- Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
- Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
- Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, Writ of Mandamus is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It won’t be granted against private individuals and companies that have no public duty to perform.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, it can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal, or a government.
- Statement 03 is correct, Quo Warranto is issued by the court to enquire into the legality of the claim of a person to a public office. Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person.
- Unlike the other writs, this can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person.
Read more on Types of Writs in India.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, Writ of Mandamus is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It won’t be granted against private individuals and companies that have no public duty to perform.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, it can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal, or a government.
- Statement 03 is correct, Quo Warranto is issued by the court to enquire into the legality of the claim of a person to a public office. Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person.
- Unlike the other writs, this can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person.
Read more on Types of Writs in India.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyWhich of the following national park/s has/have been identified for the Cheetah reintroduction project by the Indian Government? (Level – Medium)
- Simlipal National Park
- Kuno National Park
- Panna National Park
- Ranthambore National Park
Options:
Correct
- Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh has been identified for the Cheetah reintroduction project by the Indian Government.
Incorrect
- Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh has been identified for the Cheetah reintroduction project by the Indian Government.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: Current AffairsConsider the following statements with respect to UN World Food Programme (WFP): (Level – Medium)
- It was launched along with the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) in 1945.
- FAO and WFP are both members of the United Nations Sustainable Development Group.
- It won the 2020 Nobel Prize for Peace, for its work in the field of combating hunger and ‘its efforts to prevent the use of hunger as a weapon of war and conflict’.
How many of these statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, UN World Food Programme (WFP) was established in 1961.
- Statement 2 is correct, FAO and WFP are both members of the United Nations Sustainable Development Group.
- Statement 3 is correct, The World Food Programme (WFP) won the 2020 Nobel Prize for Peace, for its work in the field of combating hunger and ‘its efforts to prevent the use of hunger as a weapon of war and conflict’.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, UN World Food Programme (WFP) was established in 1961.
- Statement 2 is correct, FAO and WFP are both members of the United Nations Sustainable Development Group.
- Statement 3 is correct, The World Food Programme (WFP) won the 2020 Nobel Prize for Peace, for its work in the field of combating hunger and ‘its efforts to prevent the use of hunger as a weapon of war and conflict’.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyIn a Hydrogen Fuel Cell, which of the following is/are continuously replaced? (Level – Medium)
Correct
- Both fuel (Hydrogen), as well as Oxidiser, are continuously replaced in a Hydrogen Fuel Cell.
- Read more about – Fuel Cell.
Incorrect
- Both fuel (Hydrogen), as well as Oxidiser, are continuously replaced in a Hydrogen Fuel Cell.
- Read more about – Fuel Cell.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: Environment and EcologyThis breed of buffaloes is usually bred and preserved by a local community found in Kutch, called the ‘Maldharis’. These buffaloes are well-adapted to survive extreme weather conditions such as water scarcity, frequent droughts, low humidity and high temperatures. Which of the following breeds is being talked about? (Level – Difficult)
Correct
- The Banni buffaloes are acclimatized to the desert conditions and are bred and preserved by a local community called “Maldharis” found in the Kutch region.
- Banni buffaloes are also known as “Kutchi” or “Kundi”.
- Banni buffaloes are trained to graze on Banni grassland during the night as the days are very hot and sunny and are brought to the villages in the morning for milking.
- Banni buffaloes have unique qualities of adaptation such as the ability to survive water scarce conditions, to cover long distances during periods of drought and disease resistance.
Incorrect
- The Banni buffaloes are acclimatized to the desert conditions and are bred and preserved by a local community called “Maldharis” found in the Kutch region.
- Banni buffaloes are also known as “Kutchi” or “Kundi”.
- Banni buffaloes are trained to graze on Banni grassland during the night as the days are very hot and sunny and are brought to the villages in the morning for milking.
- Banni buffaloes have unique qualities of adaptation such as the ability to survive water scarce conditions, to cover long distances during periods of drought and disease resistance.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: SchemesThe Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of (Level – Difficult) PYQ-2019
Correct
- The Service area approach (SAA) introduced in April 1989 is a developed version of the ‘area approach’ structure of the Lead Bank Scheme.
- SAA aims to bring about an orderly and planned development of rural and semi-urban areas of the country.
Incorrect
- The Service area approach (SAA) introduced in April 1989 is a developed version of the ‘area approach’ structure of the Lead Bank Scheme.
- SAA aims to bring about an orderly and planned development of rural and semi-urban areas of the country.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: Defence & SecurityConsider the following statements about Exercise Kakadu. (Level – Medium)
- It is a bilateral maritime exercise between the Indian and Australian Navies.
- The upcoming 2022 edition would be the first iteration under this exercise.
- It is being held in Australian maritime waters.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, Exercise Kakadu is a multinational naval exercise hosted by the Royal Australian Navy.
- Statement 2 is not correct, Exercise Kakadu has been conducted since 1993.
- Exercise Kakadu derives its name from Kakadu National Park, in the northern territory of Australia.
- Statement 3 is correct, The exercise is held biennially in Darwin and the Northern Australian Exercise Areas (NAXA).
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, Exercise Kakadu is a multinational naval exercise hosted by the Royal Australian Navy.
- Statement 2 is not correct, Exercise Kakadu has been conducted since 1993.
- Exercise Kakadu derives its name from Kakadu National Park, in the northern territory of Australia.
- Statement 3 is correct, The exercise is held biennially in Darwin and the Northern Australian Exercise Areas (NAXA).
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements about the National List of Essential Medicine (NLEM) 2022. (Level – Difficult)
- This is the first ever such list being released in India.
- This list has been prepared based on the recommendations of the independent Standing National Committee on Medicines constituted by the Union Health Ministry.
- Vaccines included in the Universal Immunization Program are listed under the NLEM, 2022.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, The first NLEM was compiled in 1996 and has been revised thrice earlier in 2003, 2011, and 2015 before the NLEM 2022
- Statement 2 is correct, This list has been prepared based on the recommendations of the independent Standing National Committee on Medicines constituted by the Union Health Ministry.
- Statement 3 is not correct, Vaccines included in the Universal Immunization Program is one of the criteria for inclusion of drugs in NLEM.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, The first NLEM was compiled in 1996 and has been revised thrice earlier in 2003, 2011, and 2015 before the NLEM 2022
- Statement 2 is correct, This list has been prepared based on the recommendations of the independent Standing National Committee on Medicines constituted by the Union Health Ministry.
- Statement 3 is not correct, Vaccines included in the Universal Immunization Program is one of the criteria for inclusion of drugs in NLEM.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: Schemes‘SRIJAN Portal’ is associated with which of the following? (Level – Medium)
Correct
- SRIJAN is the Ministry of Defence’s portal which acts as a one-stop-shop online portal that provides access to the vendors to take up items that can be taken up for indigenization.
- The Department of Defence Production has developed the SRIJAN Portal.
Incorrect
- SRIJAN is the Ministry of Defence’s portal which acts as a one-stop-shop online portal that provides access to the vendors to take up items that can be taken up for indigenization.
- The Department of Defence Production has developed the SRIJAN Portal.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Registered Unrecognized Political Parties (RUPPs). (Level – Medium)
- The register of RUPPs is maintained by the Election Commission under section 29A of Representation of People Act, 1950.
- The party must contest an election conducted by the Election Commission within five years of its registration and thereafter should continue to contest barring which it is liable to be taken off the list of registered parties.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, The register of RUPPs is maintained by the Election Commission under section 29A of Representation of People Act, 1951
- Statement 2 is correct, According to the guidelines for registration of political parties issued by the Election Commission, a party must contest an election conducted by the Election Commission within five years of its registration and thereafter should continue to contest barring which the Party shall be taken off the list of registered parties.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, The register of RUPPs is maintained by the Election Commission under section 29A of Representation of People Act, 1951
- Statement 2 is correct, According to the guidelines for registration of political parties issued by the Election Commission, a party must contest an election conducted by the Election Commission within five years of its registration and thereafter should continue to contest barring which the Party shall be taken off the list of registered parties.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: Science and TechnologyIn the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ mentioned? (Level – Medium) (UPSC 2019)
Correct
- Pyrolysis is the chemical decomposition of organic compounds in the absence of oxygen.
- Plasma gasification is a high-temperature thermal process that uses plasma to transform organic materials into a syngas (synthesis gas) largely composed of hydrogen and carbon monoxide. Pyrolysis transforms organic materials into a solid residue including ash and carbon, as well as minor amounts of liquid and gases.
- Plasma gasification is used commercially as a waste-to-energy system, converting municipal solid trash, tyres, hazardous waste, and sewage sludge into synthesis gas (syngas), which contains hydrogen and carbon monoxide and this may be used to create electricity.
Incorrect
- Pyrolysis is the chemical decomposition of organic compounds in the absence of oxygen.
- Plasma gasification is a high-temperature thermal process that uses plasma to transform organic materials into a syngas (synthesis gas) largely composed of hydrogen and carbon monoxide. Pyrolysis transforms organic materials into a solid residue including ash and carbon, as well as minor amounts of liquid and gases.
- Plasma gasification is used commercially as a waste-to-energy system, converting municipal solid trash, tyres, hazardous waste, and sewage sludge into synthesis gas (syngas), which contains hydrogen and carbon monoxide and this may be used to create electricity.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsCategory: Art and CultureConsider the following statements about Hoysaleshwara temple of Halebid, Karnataka. (Level-Medium)
- It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
- The construction of the temple was sponsored by King Vishnuvardhana of the Hoysala Empire.
- The major material used in its construction is soapstone.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
- Statement 01 is incorrect, The Hoysala temple structure is an aspirant for the tag of World Heritage Site given by UNESCO.
- Statement 02 is correct, Hoysaleswara temple is a 12th-century temple dedicated to Lord Shiva built on the banks of a large man-made lake and sponsored by King Vishnuvardhana of the Hoysala Empire.
- Statement 03 is correct, The temple was carved from soapstone.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is incorrect, The Hoysala temple structure is an aspirant for the tag of World Heritage Site given by UNESCO.
- Statement 02 is correct, Hoysaleswara temple is a 12th-century temple dedicated to Lord Shiva built on the banks of a large man-made lake and sponsored by King Vishnuvardhana of the Hoysala Empire.
- Statement 03 is correct, The temple was carved from soapstone.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsCategory: G KWhich of the following statements about Sir M. Visvesvaraya are correct? (Level-Difficult)
- Being a civil engineer, he is credited with the development of notable dams, reservoirs, and hydropower projects in India and the invention of the block system in irrigation technology.
- He served as the Dewan of Hyderabad under the Nizams.
- Some of his notable literary works include ‘Reconstructing India’ and ‘Planned Economy for India’.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, Sir Mokshagundam Visvesvaraya was a civil engineer and statesman.
- He was responsible for significant engineering projects in India, including the Krishna Raja Sagara dam in Mandya, Laxmi Talav dam in Kolhapur.
- He patented and installed an irrigation system with water floodgates at the Khadakvasla reservoir near Pune to raise the food supply level and storage to the highest levels known as the ‘block system’ in 1903.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, He served as the 19th Diwan of Mysore and not Hyderabad.
- Statement 03 is correct, Some of the books authored by Sir M Visvesvaraya include,
- Planned Economy for India
- Memoirs of My Working Life, Bangalore (1954)
- Unemployment in India: Its Causes and Cure
- Reconstructing India
- Nation Building: A Five-Year Plan for the Provinces
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, Sir Mokshagundam Visvesvaraya was a civil engineer and statesman.
- He was responsible for significant engineering projects in India, including the Krishna Raja Sagara dam in Mandya, Laxmi Talav dam in Kolhapur.
- He patented and installed an irrigation system with water floodgates at the Khadakvasla reservoir near Pune to raise the food supply level and storage to the highest levels known as the ‘block system’ in 1903.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, He served as the 19th Diwan of Mysore and not Hyderabad.
- Statement 03 is correct, Some of the books authored by Sir M Visvesvaraya include,
- Planned Economy for India
- Memoirs of My Working Life, Bangalore (1954)
- Unemployment in India: Its Causes and Cure
- Reconstructing India
- Nation Building: A Five-Year Plan for the Provinces
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsCategory: GeographyConsider the following rivers. (Level-Medium)
- Teesta
- Feni
- Kushiyara
- Umngot
How many of the above rivers are transboundary rivers between India and Bangladesh?
Correct
- All four rivers are transboundary rivers between India and Bangladesh.
- India and Bangladesh share 54 common rivers of which agreement has been reached only on sharing of waters of the river Ganga.
- Teesta River rises in the Pauhunri Mountain of eastern Himalayas, flows through the Indian states of Sikkim and West Bengal through Bangladesh and enters the Bay of Bengal. It joins the Brahmaputra River in Bangladesh. It is the largest river of Sikkim and the second largest river in West Bengal after the Ganges.
- Feni River is a transboundary river in Tripura state and Bangladesh. The Feni River originates in the South Tripura district and flows through Sabroom town and then enters Bangladesh.
- The Kushiyara River is a distributary river in Assam and Bangladesh. It forms on the India-Bangladesh border as a branch of the Barak River when the Barak separates into the Kushiyara and Surma.
- The Umngot River, also known as the Dawki River and Wah Umngot, is a river which flows through Dawki, a little town located at the bottom of the Jaintia Hills in Meghalaya. The town serves as a trade route between India and Bangladesh.
Incorrect
- All four rivers are transboundary rivers between India and Bangladesh.
- India and Bangladesh share 54 common rivers of which agreement has been reached only on sharing of waters of the river Ganga.
- Teesta River rises in the Pauhunri Mountain of eastern Himalayas, flows through the Indian states of Sikkim and West Bengal through Bangladesh and enters the Bay of Bengal. It joins the Brahmaputra River in Bangladesh. It is the largest river of Sikkim and the second largest river in West Bengal after the Ganges.
- Feni River is a transboundary river in Tripura state and Bangladesh. The Feni River originates in the South Tripura district and flows through Sabroom town and then enters Bangladesh.
- The Kushiyara River is a distributary river in Assam and Bangladesh. It forms on the India-Bangladesh border as a branch of the Barak River when the Barak separates into the Kushiyara and Surma.
- The Umngot River, also known as the Dawki River and Wah Umngot, is a river which flows through Dawki, a little town located at the bottom of the Jaintia Hills in Meghalaya. The town serves as a trade route between India and Bangladesh.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityThe Shoonya campaign of NITI Aayog deals with which of the following aspects? (Level-Difficult)
Correct
- NITI Aayog, with Rocky Mountain Institute (RMI) and RMI India’s support, on September 15, 2021, launched the Shoonya Campaign.
- It is an initiative to promote zero-pollution delivery vehicles by working with consumers and the industry.
- The campaign aims to accelerate the adoption of electric vehicles (EVs) in the urban deliveries segment and create consumer awareness about the benefits of zero-pollution delivery.
Incorrect
- NITI Aayog, with Rocky Mountain Institute (RMI) and RMI India’s support, on September 15, 2021, launched the Shoonya Campaign.
- It is an initiative to promote zero-pollution delivery vehicles by working with consumers and the industry.
- The campaign aims to accelerate the adoption of electric vehicles (EVs) in the urban deliveries segment and create consumer awareness about the benefits of zero-pollution delivery.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsCategory: HistoryWith reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements: (Level- Medium)(CSE Prelims-2019)
- It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.
- The National Council of Education was established as a part of the Swadeshi Movement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, Swadeshi Movement focused on self-reliance thus contributing to the revival of indigenous artisans’ crafts and industries.
- Statement 02 is correct, In August 1906 the National Council of Education was established to provide an impetus to the program of national education.
Read more on Swadeshi Movement.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, Swadeshi Movement focused on self-reliance thus contributing to the revival of indigenous artisans’ crafts and industries.
- Statement 02 is correct, In August 1906 the National Council of Education was established to provide an impetus to the program of national education.
Read more on Swadeshi Movement.
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