11 Jun 2023: UPSC Exam Comprehensive News Analysis

CNA 11 June 2023:- Download PDF Here

TABLE OF CONTENTS

A. GS 1 Related
B. GS 2 Related
C. GS 3 Related
SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
1. Hydrogen generation from seawater
AGRICULTURE
1. Transgenic Cotton
D. GS 4 Related
E. Editorials
POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
1. India looks at devising own standards to assess socio-economic progress
F. Prelims Facts
1. Army Air Defence (AAD)
G. Tidbits
1. Massive Carrier Battle Group (CBG) Operation
2. Diamond League
H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions
I. UPSC Mains Practice Questions
FIP Magazine

Category: AGRICULTURE

1. Transgenic Cotton

Syllabus: E-Technology in the Aid of Farmers, Technology Missions

Mains: Concerns and challenges associated with GM crops.

Context: Proposal to test transgenic cotton rejected by three States.

Introduction:Β 

  • The proposal endorsed by the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC), which aimed to conduct field tests for a new type of transgenic cotton seed, has been rejected by Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Telangana.
  • Bioseed Research India, based in Hyderabad, has developed a transgenic cotton seed containing the cry2Ai gene, which is believed to confer resistance to the pink bollworm, a significant pest.Β 
    • However, Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Telangana have declined the GEAC’s recommendation to test this seed in farmer’s fields.
  • According to the existing regulations, transgenic seeds must undergo field testing before obtaining clearance from the GEAC for commercial development.Β 
  • Bioseed sought permission from four states for conducting these tests, but only Haryana granted approval.

Educating the States:Β 

  • The GEAC has requested the Department of Biotechnology and the Indian Council of Agricultural Research to collaborate in organising capacity-building activities.Β 
  • These activities aim to inform State/UT Governments about the technology and regulatory framework associated with evaluating genetically modified (GM) crops.
  • In India, transgenic cotton is the sole GM crop that has received approval and is currently being cultivated in fields.

Process of approval of GM Crops in India:

  • RCGM (Review Committee on Genetic Manipulation) assesses and decides on the applications regarding the testing of GM crops. (conducts Biosafety Research Level 1 trial)
  • GEAC (Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee) then assesses the applications for field trials. (Biosafety Research Level 2 Trial)
  • If approved, field trial assessment is done to decide if the crop can be commercialised.Β 
  • The developers of GM crops conduct field trials to assess their performance, agronomic traits, and potential environmental impacts.Β 
    • These trials are carried out under strict containment and biosafety guidelines, ensuring that the GM crops do not escape into the environment.
  • MEC (Monitoring and Evaluation Committee) monitors small-scale trials on behalf of GEAC and reports them.
  • The GEAC forms a sub-committee of scientific experts, known as the Institutional Biosafety Committee (IBC), to review the data submitted by the developers. The IBC examines the safety, efficacy, and environmental impact of the GM crop and prepares a report.
  • Following the IBC review, the GEAC invites public comments and suggestions on the GM crop. This step allows stakeholders, including farmers, NGOs, scientists, and concerned citizens, to voice their opinions and concerns regarding the potential release of the GM crop.
  • After considering the IBC report and public comments, the GEAC makes a decision on the approval or rejection of the GM crop. If approved, specific conditions, restrictions, or monitoring requirements may be imposed to ensure the safe use and cultivation of the GM crop.
  • The Union Ministry of Agriculture, after checking the seed act, allows for the seed to be released in the market.
  • Once a GM crop is approved, post-approval monitoring and surveillance are conducted to monitor its performance, potential impacts, and compliance with the prescribed conditions.

Nut Graf: Three states, Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Telangana, have rejected the proposal endorsed by the GEAC for field tests of a transgenic cotton seed developed by Bioseed Research. Only Haryana granted approval, highlighting the need for educating states about GM crop evaluation and regulations.

D. GS 4 Related

Nothing here for today!!!

E. Editorials

Category: POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

1. India looks at devising own standards to assess socio-economic progress

Syllabus: Government policies and intervention.

Mains: Assessing the socio-economic progress of the country.

Context: Release of a working paper titled β€œRe-examining the estimates of India’s development indicators by international organizations” by the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister.

Introduction:

  • The Union Government has discarded the one-size-fits-all international data parameters used to measure the socioeconomic progress of the country. It has proposed to devise its own strategy.
  • However, health activists are divided on this move of the Government.
    • One group favours international norms as aspirational standards.
    • While others support the government’s decision.

Details:

  • India is redrawing its assessment approach to accommodate its national diversity and local anthropometric measurements.
  • In March 2023, the Union Health Ministry released its own mechanism for estimating the tuberculosis burden in India.
  • India has also questioned the WHO’s mathematical modelling for COVID-19 deaths estimation and called it β€œunscientific”.
  • India has dropped questions relating to anaemia and disability from the National Family Health Survey-6 (NFHS).
  • It is suggested that the three widely used development indicators (child stunting, female labour force participation rate, and life expectancy at birth) often present a misleading picture of overall development.
  • Experts highlight that improper adjustments using modelling procedures end up skewing data for India. For example, the United Nations Population Division sharply reduced the estimates for calculating life expectancy at birth for India from 70.19 in 2019 to 67.24 in 2021.
  • It is also said that the growing use of environmental, social, and governance (ESG) norms in investment and trade decisions increases the need for accurate data.
  • It is pointed out that the issue of misappropriation is well-known in the medical field and countries like the U.S., U.K., and Indonesia have developed their own growth chart for reference by medical practitioners.
  • There is a growing concern about the universal applicability of these standards leading some countries to adopt their own country-specific growth benchmarks.
  • It is suggested by some health experts that utilizing the WHO 2006 standards results in overestimating stunting and wasting cases in India.
    • Currently, using these standards would translate into approximately 10 million and 12 million more children being classified as stunted and wasted.
    • The overall data from 21 developing countries demonstrated that the prevalence of severe wasting in infants under six months increased by 3.5 times, whereas severe child wasting increased by 1.7 times after applying the WHO standard.
image 55

Source: The Hindu

Conclusion:

  • Despite WHO 2006 growth standards proving invaluable for global growth comparisons, India should exercise caution in modifying clinical protocols and formulating recommendations.
  • India should also engage in transparent and informed discussion, particularly for achieving national targets of stunting and wasting.Β 

Related Link:Β Social Progress Index (SPI) 2020 – Rankings, Major Findings, & Criticisms

Nut Graf: It is found that improper adjustments using international standards like WHO 2006 Standards end up skewing data for India. Thus, the government of India is actively engaged in redrawing and devising its own standards to assess its socio-economic progress.Β 

F. Prelims Facts

1. Army Air Defence (AAD)

Syllabus: GS03- Security-Various Security Forces & Agencies & Their Mandate

Context: This article discusses the present transformation of the Army Air Defence (AAD).

Introduction:Β 

  • The Indian Army has shifted its focus from the western borders to the northern borders following the 2020 standoff with China.Β 
  • The Army Air Defence (AAD) is undergoing a transformation with the induction of new systems, many of which are indigenous. These new technologies are tailored to address the current realities and challenges.
  • Lessons from the Ukraine conflict have prompted the Army to consider new threats to air defence, including unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs), loitering munitions, swarm drones, and cruise missiles.
  • The Ukrainian conflict highlighted the effectiveness of Man Portable Air Defence Systems (MANPADS) equipped with night vision capabilities.Β 

Project Akashteer:

  • Project Akashteer is an automation initiative aimed at creating a comprehensive air defence system for monitoring, tracking, and neutralising air defence assets.Β 
    • It draws inspiration from the Indian Air Force’s Integrated Air Command and Control System network.
  • The contract for Akashteer, valued at nearly β‚Ή2,000 crore, was signed in March 2023. It is expected to be implemented by March 2024, making it one of the fastest projects in the Army.
  • Akashteer will connect all radars and control centres of AAD, streamlining the air defence picture by eliminating duplications and overlaps.Β 
  • Additionally, it will integrate all weapons, providing a much-needed comprehensive air defence solution.
  • Akashteer will possess the capability to establish communication with the Indian Air Force’s network, enhancing coordination between the two branches.

Surface-to-air missile (SAM) systems:

  • In March 2023, the Defence Ministry signed a contract with Bharat Dynamics Limited for two regiments of upgraded Akash surface-to-air missile (SAM) systems.Β 
  • These modified Akash regiments are specifically designed for mountainous regions and have undergone extensive trials.Β 
  • However, the global shortage of components and hardware for air defence systems, stemming from the Ukrainian conflict, could potentially hinder the pace of inductions.
    • For example, the scarcity of radar chips, predominantly imported, may slow down manufacturing and deliveries.

Army Air Defence (AAD):

  • The Corps of Army Air Defence (abbreviated as AAD), is an active corps of the Indian Army and a major combat support arm tasked with air defence of the country from foreign threats.Β 
  • The AAD is responsible for the protection of Indian air space from enemy aircraft and missiles, especially below 5,000 feet.
  • The origins of AAD can be traced back to 1939 during the era of British Raj in India. The corps actively served in the Second World War on behalf of the British Empire.Β 
  • Following India’s independence, the corps played a significant role in all subsequent wars involving the country, beginning with the 1947 Indo-Pakistani War and extending to the 1999 Kargil conflict.
  • In 1994, the AAD achieved autonomous status when it was separated from the Army’s Regiment of Artillery, resulting in the formation of the Corps of Air Defence Artillery as a distinct entity.Β 

G. Tidbits

1. Massive Carrier Battle Group (CBG) Operation

  • The Indian Navy conducted an extensive operation in the Arabian Sea, showcasing its operational capabilities involving more than 35 aircrafts.
  • A Carrier Battle Group (CBG) comprises an aircraft carrier accompanied by multiple escort vessels. It serves as a formidable naval fleet capable of various missions.
  • Recent exercise on June 10,2023 featured a twin CBG operation, highlighting the participation of both of India’s aircraft carriers, INS Vikramaditya and INS Vikrant.Β 
    • These carriers were accompanied by a diverse fleet of escort ships, submarines, and aircraft, creating a robust and coordinated force.
  • The exercise emphasised India’s commitment to safeguarding national interests and maintaining regional stability. It also marked a significant milestone in the Indian Navy’s efforts to enhance maritime security and extend its power-projection capabilities in the Indian Ocean and beyond.Β 
  • The operation highlighted the pivotal role of sea-based air power in maintaining maritime superiority, aiming to demonstrate India’s preparedness in the face of increased Chinese activities in the Indian Ocean.

2. Diamond League

  • The Diamond League is a yearly series of prestigious track and field athletic competitions, consisting of fourteen top-tier invitational meetings.Β 
  • These competitions are considered among the best in the world and are part of the World Athletics organisation’s one-day meeting competitions.
  • The Diamond League was introduced in 2010 as a replacement for the International Association of Athletics Federations (IAAF) Golden League, which had been held annually since 1998.Β 
  • While the Golden League mainly focused on elevating the prominence of European athletics competitions, the Diamond League aims to increase the international allure of the sport.Β 
  • In pursuit of this objective, the series expanded its reach beyond Europe for the first time, incorporating events in China, Qatar, Morocco, and the United States, in addition to the original Golden League members (excluding Berlin) and other traditional European competitions.
  • Following the 2022 Russian invasion of Ukraine, the Diamond League made the decision to exclude athletes from Russia and Belarus from participating in all its track and field meetings.Β 
  • Paris, France is hosting the 2023 Diamond league.
  • 3 Indians have received medals in the League until now:
    • Vikas Gowda: discus throw
    • Neeraj Chopra: javelin throw
    • M. Sreeshankar: long jump

H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions

Q1. Consider the following statements: (Level-Difficult)
  1. Elephants and prairie dogs are found in African savannas but not in the temperate grasslands of the United States.
  2. Savannas maintain an open canopy despite a high tree density.
  3. Savannas are also characterised by seasonal water availability, with the majority of rainfall confined to one season.

How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All three
  4. None
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:Β 

  • Statement 01 is incorrect, Elephants are found in African savannas but not in the temperate grasslands of the United States. In contrast, burrowing animals, such as prairie dogs, are commonly found in temperate grasslands.Β 
  • Statement 02 is correct, Savannas maintain an open canopy despite a high tree density. In many savannas, tree densities are higher and trees are more regularly spaced than in forests.
  • Statement 03 is correct,Β  Savannas are characterised by seasonal water availability, with the majority of rainfall confined to one season; they are associated with several types of biomes, and are frequently in a transitional zone between forest and desert or grassland.Β 
Q2. Consider the following Pairs: (Level-Difficult)

Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β Village/TownΒ  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Country

  1. KarzokΒ  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Iran
  2. HanleΒ  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β India
  3. La RinconadaΒ  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β Β  Argentina

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All three
  4. None
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: a

Explanation:Β 

  • KarzokΒ  is a village in the Leh district of Ladakh. It is located close to the shores of the Tso Moriri lake.Β 
  • La Rinconada is a town in the Peruvian Andes near a gold mine. At up to 5,100 m (16,700 ft) above sea level, it is the highest permanent settlement in the world.
Q3. Consider the following statements with respect to Bharatnatyam:(Level-Difficult)
  1. The Abhinaya Darpana by Nandikesvara is one of the main sources of textual material, for the study of the technique and grammar of body movement in Bharatnatyam Dance.
  2. Bharatnatyam dance is known to be ekaharya, where one dancer takes on many roles in a single performance
  3. The first dance item is the jatiswaram, literally meaning – to adorn with flowers. It is an abstract piece combining pure dance with the recitation of sound syllables.

How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All three
  4. None
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:Β Β 

  • Statement 01 is correct, The Abhinaya Darpana by Nandikesvara is one of the main sources of textual material, for the study of the technique and grammar of body movement in Bharatnatyam Dance. There is also a great deal of visual evidence of this dance form in paintings and stone and metal sculptures of ancient times.
  • Statement 02 is correct, Bharatanatyam dance is known to be ekaharya, where one dancer takes on many roles in a single performance.Β 
    • In the early 19th century, the famous Tanjore Quartette, under the patronage of Raja Serfoji are said to have been responsible for the repertoire of Bharatnatyam dance as we see it today.
    • The style was kept alive by the devadasis, who were young girls β€˜gifted’ by their parents to the temples and who were married to the gods.
  • Statement 03 is incorrect, The first dance item is the alarippu, literally meaning – to adorn with flowers. It is an abstract piece combining pure dance with the recitation of sound syllables.
Q4. Consider the following statements: (Level-Medium)

Statement- I

The World Air Quality Report prepared by IQAir is based on the annual average level of pollutant PM2.5 in air.

Statement-II

IQAir is a Swiss air quality technology company that prepares annual world air quality reports based on IPCC reports.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. Both Statementβ€”I and Statementβ€”II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statementβ€”I
  2. Both Statementβ€”I and Statementβ€”II are correct and Statementβ€”II is not the correct explanation for Statementβ€”I
  3. Statementβ€”I is correct but Statementβ€”II is incorrect
  4. Statementβ€”I is incorrect but Statementβ€”II is correct
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation: IQAir, a Swiss air quality technology company, prepares the annual world air quality reports based on data from monitoring stations operated by governments and other institutions and organisations across the world. The 2022 report is based on PM2. 5 data from 7,323 cities and 131 countries.

Q5. The lowering of Bank Rate by the Reserve Bank of India leads to (Level-Easy)
  1. More liquidity in the market
  2. Less liquidity in the market
  3. No change in the liquidity in the market
  4. Mobilization of more deposits by commercial banks
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: a

Explanation:Β  A decrease in bank rate will make borrowing from RBI cheap which will eventually lead to an increase in the money supply in the market i.e. higher liquidity.Β 

CNA 11 June 2023:- Download PDF Here

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