UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Jul 22 – Jul 28 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from Jul 22 – Jul 28 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.
Post your scores in the comment section below!
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UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Jul 22 – Jul 28
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to Enforcement Directorate (ED) Director. (Level – Medium)
- The ED director is appointed as per provisions of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act of 2002.
- The ED Director is appointed by the Union government based on the recommendations of a committee chaired by the Union Home Minister and members comprising the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha as well as the Chief Justice of India.
- The ED director has a fixed two-year tenure which can be extended by one year each time, provided the total term does not exceed five years.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, The ED director is appointed as per provisions of the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The Centre appoints the ED director on recommendation of a committee with the Central Vigilance Commissioner as chairperson and other members comprising of Vigilance Commissioners, Home Secretary, Secretary DOPT and Revenue Secretary.
- Statement 3 is correct, The ED director has a fixed two-year tenure which can be extended by one year each time, provided the total term does not exceed five years.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, The ED director is appointed as per provisions of the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The Centre appoints the ED director on recommendation of a committee with the Central Vigilance Commissioner as chairperson and other members comprising of Vigilance Commissioners, Home Secretary, Secretary DOPT and Revenue Secretary.
- Statement 3 is correct, The ED director has a fixed two-year tenure which can be extended by one year each time, provided the total term does not exceed five years.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to forest cover in the North-eastern states of India? (Level – Difficult)
- All the North-eastern states of India have more than 70% of the geographical area under forest cover.
- All the North-eastern states of India have witnessed decline in forest area over the past decade.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, All the North-eastern states of India except Assam (34%) have more than 70% of the geographical area under forest cover.
- Statement 2 is not correct, All the North-eastern states of India except Assam have witnessed decline in forest area over the past decade.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, All the North-eastern states of India except Assam (34%) have more than 70% of the geographical area under forest cover.
- Statement 2 is not correct, All the North-eastern states of India except Assam have witnessed decline in forest area over the past decade.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to the Supreme Court collegium. (Level – Easy)
- This system evolved through judgments of the Supreme Court and has no backing law or provision of the Constitution.
- It consists of the Chief Justice of India and five other senior-most judges.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, the Supreme Court collegium system evolved through judgments of the Supreme Court and not by an Act of Parliament or by a provision of the Constitution.
- Statement 2 is not correct, the Supreme Court collegium consists of the Chief Justice of India and four other senior-most judges of the SC.
Read more about the collegium system.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, the Supreme Court collegium system evolved through judgments of the Supreme Court and not by an Act of Parliament or by a provision of the Constitution.
- Statement 2 is not correct, the Supreme Court collegium consists of the Chief Justice of India and four other senior-most judges of the SC.
Read more about the collegium system.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to Tobacco farming in India. (Level – Difficult)
- Tobacco is a drought tolerant, hardy and short duration crop.
- India is the world’s largest producer and exporter of Tobacco.
- Crop diversification programme, a sub-scheme of Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana, aimed at shifting farmers away from tobacco cultivation is being implemented in all Indian states.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, Tobacco is one of the most economically significant agricultural crops in the world as it is a drought tolerant, hardy and short duration crop which can be grown on soils where other crops cannot be cultivated profitably.
- Statement 2 is not correct, India is the second largest producer and exporter after China and Brazil respectively.
- Statement 3 is not correct, Crop Diversification Programme (CDP), a sub-scheme of Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY) to encourage farmers to shift to alternative crops/cropping systems since 2015-16 has been implemented in 10 tobacco-growing states of Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Gujarat, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Odisha, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, Tobacco is one of the most economically significant agricultural crops in the world as it is a drought tolerant, hardy and short duration crop which can be grown on soils where other crops cannot be cultivated profitably.
- Statement 2 is not correct, India is the second largest producer and exporter after China and Brazil respectively.
- Statement 3 is not correct, Crop Diversification Programme (CDP), a sub-scheme of Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY) to encourage farmers to shift to alternative crops/cropping systems since 2015-16 has been implemented in 10 tobacco-growing states of Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Gujarat, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Odisha, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (Level – Easy)
Correct
- The government has set up the Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) under the NITI Aayog in 2016.
- The objective of establishing AIM is to create a scientific temper and cultivate the spirit of curiosity and innovation among young minds.
Read more about Atal Innovation Mission.
Incorrect
- The government has set up the Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) under the NITI Aayog in 2016.
- The objective of establishing AIM is to create a scientific temper and cultivate the spirit of curiosity and innovation among young minds.
Read more about Atal Innovation Mission.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Hellfire R9X missile also known as the "ninja bomb" recently in news was developed by which country? (Level – Easy)
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
The Central Vigilance Commissioner and the Vigilance Commissioners shall be appointed by the President on recommendation of a Committee consisting of the (Level – Medium)
- Prime Minister
- Minister of Home Affairs
- Leader of the Opposition in the Upper House
- Chief justice of India or Judge of Supreme Court
- Leader of the Opposition in the Lower House
Options:
Correct
- The Central Vigilance Commissioner and the Vigilance Commissioners are appointed by the President based on the recommendation of a Committee consisting of:
- Prime Minister
- Minister of Home Affairs (MHA)
- Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha (Lower House)
Incorrect
- The Central Vigilance Commissioner and the Vigilance Commissioners are appointed by the President based on the recommendation of a Committee consisting of:
- Prime Minister
- Minister of Home Affairs (MHA)
- Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha (Lower House)
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Consider the following statements: (Level – Difficult)
- Sultan Quli Qutub-ul-Mulk founded the city of Hyderabad.
- The Qutb Shahi dynasty came to an end when the Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb arrested and jailed Sultan Abul Hasan Qutb Shah for the rest of his life.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah who was the fifth sultan of the Qutb Shahi dynasty of Golkonda founded the city of Hyderabad.
- Statement 2 is correct, the Qutb Shahi dynasty ruled for 171 years until the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb’s army conquered Golconda in 1687 and jailed Sultan Abul Hasan Qutb Shah for the rest of his life.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah who was the fifth sultan of the Qutb Shahi dynasty of Golkonda founded the city of Hyderabad.
- Statement 2 is correct, the Qutb Shahi dynasty ruled for 171 years until the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb’s army conquered Golconda in 1687 and jailed Sultan Abul Hasan Qutb Shah for the rest of his life.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
The Sunderlal Committee, appointed by Jawaharlal Nehru is closely related to (Level – Medium)
Correct
- The Sunderlal Committee, appointed by Jawaharlal Nehru reported about the killings in the Hyderabad region post-Operation Polo.
- Operation Polo was the codename for the police action against the Princely State of Hyderabad which led to the Annexation of Hyderabad.
Incorrect
- The Sunderlal Committee, appointed by Jawaharlal Nehru reported about the killings in the Hyderabad region post-Operation Polo.
- Operation Polo was the codename for the police action against the Princely State of Hyderabad which led to the Annexation of Hyderabad.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Which of the following countries are part of Minerals Security Partnership? (Level – Medium)
- Australia
- India
- Japan
- New Zealand
- Sweden
- United Kingdom
- USA
Options:
Correct
- Minerals Security Partnership is a US-led partnership to secure supply chains of critical minerals, aimed at reducing dependency on China.
- Minerals Security Partnership includes Australia, Canada, Finland, France, Germany, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Sweden, the UK, the US, and the European Commission.
- India is currently not part of the Minerals Security Partnership.
Incorrect
- Minerals Security Partnership is a US-led partnership to secure supply chains of critical minerals, aimed at reducing dependency on China.
- Minerals Security Partnership includes Australia, Canada, Finland, France, Germany, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Sweden, the UK, the US, and the European Commission.
- India is currently not part of the Minerals Security Partnership.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Which amongst the following statements is not correct with respect to Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India? (Level – Medium)
Correct
- CAG compiles and maintains the accounts of state governments.
- In 1976, CAG was relieved of the responsibilities regarding the compilation and maintenance of accounts of the Government of India due to the separation of accounts from audit, through departmentalization of accounts.
Incorrect
- CAG compiles and maintains the accounts of state governments.
- In 1976, CAG was relieved of the responsibilities regarding the compilation and maintenance of accounts of the Government of India due to the separation of accounts from audit, through departmentalization of accounts.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Consider the following statements: (Level – Medium)
- Among the Union Territories Delhi alone has a High Court of its own.
- Parliament with the previous consent of the State may by law extend the jurisdiction of a High court to, or exclude the jurisdiction of a High Court from, any Union territory
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, Among UTs Delhi and Jammu & Kashmir have their own High Courts.
- Statement 2 is not correct, According to Article 230 of the Constitution, Parliament may by law extend the jurisdiction of a High Court to, or exclude the jurisdiction of a High Court from, any Union territory.
- There is no need for the Parliament to take the consent of the State.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, Among UTs Delhi and Jammu & Kashmir have their own High Courts.
- Statement 2 is not correct, According to Article 230 of the Constitution, Parliament may by law extend the jurisdiction of a High Court to, or exclude the jurisdiction of a High Court from, any Union territory.
- There is no need for the Parliament to take the consent of the State.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Consider the following pairs: (Level – Difficult)
Freedom Fighters Tribe
- Tilka Majhi Pahadia tribe
- Thalakkal Chanthu Kurichiyar tribe
- Budhu Bhagat Oraon tribe
- Raghoji Bhangre Mahadeo Koli tribe
- Laxman Naik Bhuyan tribe
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Correct
- Tilka Majhi rebelled against the atrocities of the British East India Company. He mobilised the Pahadia tribe to which he belonged and raided the Company treasury.
- Thalakkal Chanthu of the Kurichiyar tribe was an invaluable part of Pazhassi Raja’s war against the East India Company.
- Budhu Bhagat of the Oraon tribe was shot down in one of his many encounters with the British, along with his brother, seven sons and 150 men from his tribe.
- Raghoji Bhangre belonged to the Mahadeo Koli tribe. He revolted against the British and continued his struggle even though his mother was imprisoned.
- Laxman Naik of the Bhuyan tribe, was also inspired by Gandhi and campaigned extensively to get tribes to join the freedom movement.
Incorrect
- Tilka Majhi rebelled against the atrocities of the British East India Company. He mobilised the Pahadia tribe to which he belonged and raided the Company treasury.
- Thalakkal Chanthu of the Kurichiyar tribe was an invaluable part of Pazhassi Raja’s war against the East India Company.
- Budhu Bhagat of the Oraon tribe was shot down in one of his many encounters with the British, along with his brother, seven sons and 150 men from his tribe.
- Raghoji Bhangre belonged to the Mahadeo Koli tribe. He revolted against the British and continued his struggle even though his mother was imprisoned.
- Laxman Naik of the Bhuyan tribe, was also inspired by Gandhi and campaigned extensively to get tribes to join the freedom movement.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
With respect to NavIC, which of the following statements is/are incorrect? (Level – Difficult)
- It can help in navigation on land, air, sea and also in disaster management.
- NavIC satellites are placed at a higher orbit than the GPS of United States.
- It is designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 2500 km from its boundary
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, NavIC helps in
- Navigation (Aerial, marines and terrestrial)
- Maps (Charting, Plotting and Geodetic data capture)
- Disaster Management
- Fleet Management and Vehicle Tracking (important during mining and transport operations)
- Mobile phone integration
- Precise timing (useful for power grids and ATMs)
- Statement 2 is correct, NavIC satellites are placed at a higher orbit than the GPS of the US.
- NavIC satellites are placed in geostationary orbit (GEO) & geosynchronous orbit (GSO) with an altitude of about 36,000 km. Whereas the GPS satellites are placed in medium earth orbit (MEO) with an altitude of about 20,000 km.
- Statement 3 is not correct, It is designed to give precise position data service to users located in India and also to users in the area out-spreading up to 1500 Km from India’s boundary.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, NavIC helps in
- Navigation (Aerial, marines and terrestrial)
- Maps (Charting, Plotting and Geodetic data capture)
- Disaster Management
- Fleet Management and Vehicle Tracking (important during mining and transport operations)
- Mobile phone integration
- Precise timing (useful for power grids and ATMs)
- Statement 2 is correct, NavIC satellites are placed at a higher orbit than the GPS of the US.
- NavIC satellites are placed in geostationary orbit (GEO) & geosynchronous orbit (GSO) with an altitude of about 36,000 km. Whereas the GPS satellites are placed in medium earth orbit (MEO) with an altitude of about 20,000 km.
- Statement 3 is not correct, It is designed to give precise position data service to users located in India and also to users in the area out-spreading up to 1500 Km from India’s boundary.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Consider the following statements: (Level – Medium)PYQ (2022)
- The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
- The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, The Indian Constitution does not categorize ministers into ranks, however, in practice seen in India, ministers are of four types:
- Statement 2 is correct, According to the 91st Constitutional Amendment the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, The Indian Constitution does not categorize ministers into ranks, however, in practice seen in India, ministers are of four types:
- Statement 2 is correct, According to the 91st Constitutional Amendment the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Consider the following statements: (Level-Medium)
- MPs cannot be arrested during the session of Parliament and 40 days before the beginning and 40 days after the end of a session. This privilege is available in civil cases and in criminal cases.
- According to the Constitution, courts can inquire into the proceedings of a House or its committees in exceptional circumstances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is incorrect, This privilege is only granted in civil matters and not in criminal or preventive detention situations.
- Statement 2 is incorrect, courts are not empowered to inquire into any proceedings that happen inside the Parliament.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is incorrect, This privilege is only granted in civil matters and not in criminal or preventive detention situations.
- Statement 2 is incorrect, courts are not empowered to inquire into any proceedings that happen inside the Parliament.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
With respect to Private Member’s Bill introduced in the Parliament, which of the statements is/are correct?
- A member of the ruling dispensation who is not a minister is also considered a Private Member.
- Government bills and private members’ bills are governed by the same general procedure and pass through the same stages in the House.
- Its introduction in the House requires seven days’ notice.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, Any MP who is not a Minister is referred to as a private member.
- Statement 2 is correct, both kinds of bills are governed by the same general procedure and stages in both houses.
- Statement 3 is incorrect, the introduction of a private member’s bill requires one month’s notice whereas a public bill can be introduced with 7 days’ notice.
Read more on the Private Member Bill.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, Any MP who is not a Minister is referred to as a private member.
- Statement 2 is correct, both kinds of bills are governed by the same general procedure and stages in both houses.
- Statement 3 is incorrect, the introduction of a private member’s bill requires one month’s notice whereas a public bill can be introduced with 7 days’ notice.
Read more on the Private Member Bill.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Which of the following statements with respect to Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) is/are incorrect?
- PMFBY is optional for the farmers who have not availed of institutional credit, while all the farmers who have borrowed institutional loans from banks are covered under the scheme mandatorily.
- Under PMFBY, farmers have to pay a uniform maximum premium of 1.5% for crops that they cultivate in any season.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is incorrect, PMFBY provides a comprehensive insurance cover against crop failure. It is optional for the farmers who have not availed of institutional credit and mandatory for those who have borrowed institutional loans from banks
- Statement 2 is incorrect, farmers have to pay a 2% premium for all Kharif crops and 1.5% for all rabi crops. It is 5% for annual commercial and horticultural crops.
Read more on Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is incorrect, PMFBY provides a comprehensive insurance cover against crop failure. It is optional for the farmers who have not availed of institutional credit and mandatory for those who have borrowed institutional loans from banks
- Statement 2 is incorrect, farmers have to pay a 2% premium for all Kharif crops and 1.5% for all rabi crops. It is 5% for annual commercial and horticultural crops.
Read more on Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Mission Raftaar recently seen in news is
Correct
- ‘Mission Raftaar’ was announced in the Railway Budget 2016-17 with a view to increasing the speed of trains in Indian Railways.
- The mission envisages a target of doubling the average speed of freight trains and increasing the average speed of all non-suburban passenger trains by 25 kmph in the next 5 years.
Incorrect
- ‘Mission Raftaar’ was announced in the Railway Budget 2016-17 with a view to increasing the speed of trains in Indian Railways.
- The mission envisages a target of doubling the average speed of freight trains and increasing the average speed of all non-suburban passenger trains by 25 kmph in the next 5 years.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Consider the following pairs:
King Dynasty
- Nannuka Chandela
- Jayashakti Paramara
- Nagabhata II Gurjara-Pratihara
- Bhoja Rashtrakuta
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, Nannuka was the founder of the Chandela dynasty of India. He ruled in the Jejakabhukti region, present-day Madhya Pradesh.
- Statement 2 is incorrect, Jayashakti was a 9th-century ruler from the Chandela dynasty of Central India.
- The Paramara dynasty was an Indian dynasty that ruled Malwa and surrounding areas in west-central India between the 9th and 14th centuries. They belonged to the Parmara clan of Rajputs.
- Statement 3 is correct, Nagabhata II was an Indian emperor from the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty.
- He was designated with imperial titles – Parama Bhattaraka, Maharajadhiraja, and Paramesvara after the conquest of Kannauj.
- He finds a mention in the Gwalior inscription.
- Statement 4 is incorrect,Mihira Bhoja or Bhoja I was a king belonging to the Gurjara Pratihara Dynasty in the 9th century. He adopted the title of Adivaraha as he was a devotee of Lord Vishnu.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, Nannuka was the founder of the Chandela dynasty of India. He ruled in the Jejakabhukti region, present-day Madhya Pradesh.
- Statement 2 is incorrect, Jayashakti was a 9th-century ruler from the Chandela dynasty of Central India.
- The Paramara dynasty was an Indian dynasty that ruled Malwa and surrounding areas in west-central India between the 9th and 14th centuries. They belonged to the Parmara clan of Rajputs.
- Statement 3 is correct, Nagabhata II was an Indian emperor from the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty.
- He was designated with imperial titles – Parama Bhattaraka, Maharajadhiraja, and Paramesvara after the conquest of Kannauj.
- He finds a mention in the Gwalior inscription.
- Statement 4 is incorrect,Mihira Bhoja or Bhoja I was a king belonging to the Gurjara Pratihara Dynasty in the 9th century. He adopted the title of Adivaraha as he was a devotee of Lord Vishnu.
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Consider the following statements: (Level-Medium )
- According to the law, life imprisonment means incarceration for a term not exceeding fourteen years.
- When any person has been sentenced to punishment for an offense, the appropriate Government may, at any time, without Conditions or upon any conditions which the person sentenced accepts, suspend the execution of his sentence or remit the whole or any part of the punishment to which he has been sentenced.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 01 is incorrect, Life imprisonment was added to Indian Penal Code (IPC) through an amendment in 1955.
- It applies to serious crimes. Compared with legal alternatives to the death penalty, life imprisonment is generally considered more humane and less harsh.
- Life imprisonment means staying in prison until the offender dies, that is, until the offender stops breathing and it is not just 14 years.
- Statement 02 is correct, Section 432 in The Code Of Criminal Procedure, 1973 gives government the power to suspend or remit sentences.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is incorrect, Life imprisonment was added to Indian Penal Code (IPC) through an amendment in 1955.
- It applies to serious crimes. Compared with legal alternatives to the death penalty, life imprisonment is generally considered more humane and less harsh.
- Life imprisonment means staying in prison until the offender dies, that is, until the offender stops breathing and it is not just 14 years.
- Statement 02 is correct, Section 432 in The Code Of Criminal Procedure, 1973 gives government the power to suspend or remit sentences.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
With respect to the Right to Information Act, which of the following statements is/are Correct? (Level-Hard)
- RTI Act mandates every public authority to disclose information on a suo motu basis to the public at regular intervals.
- If information sought concerns the life or liberty of a person, it shall be supplied within four weeks.
- The Act will not apply to the intelligence and security organizations under all circumstances
Options:
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, Public authorities which includes all authorities and bodies under the union government, state government or local bodies. The civil societies that are substantially funded, directly or indirectly, by the public funds also fall within the ambit of RTI and they have to maintain and proactively disclose information on suo moto basis.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, information in normal course is to be given within 30 days from the receipt of application by the public authority.
- If information sought concerns the life or liberty of a person, it shall be supplied within 48 hours.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, according to section 24 , the act does not apply to the intelligence and security organizations specified in the Second Schedule of the act. But, information regarding allegations of corruption and human rights violations shall not be excluded under this sub‑section.
Read more on RTI ACT.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, Public authorities which includes all authorities and bodies under the union government, state government or local bodies. The civil societies that are substantially funded, directly or indirectly, by the public funds also fall within the ambit of RTI and they have to maintain and proactively disclose information on suo moto basis.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, information in normal course is to be given within 30 days from the receipt of application by the public authority.
- If information sought concerns the life or liberty of a person, it shall be supplied within 48 hours.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, according to section 24 , the act does not apply to the intelligence and security organizations specified in the Second Schedule of the act. But, information regarding allegations of corruption and human rights violations shall not be excluded under this sub‑section.
Read more on RTI ACT.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Which of the following statements with respect to Kondapalli Toys is/are correct? (Level-Medium)
- The Toys are made of wood in Kondapalli in the state of Telangana
- They have been granted the Geographical Indications (GI) tag
Options:
Correct
- Statement 01 is incorrect, Kondapalli Toys, made of wood belongs to Kondapalli village in the state of Andhra Pradesh.
- These toys are decorated in the households during the festivals of Navratri and Sankranti and are referred as Bommala Koluvu.
- Statement 02 is correct, they have been granted the Geographical Indications (GI) tag.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is incorrect, Kondapalli Toys, made of wood belongs to Kondapalli village in the state of Andhra Pradesh.
- These toys are decorated in the households during the festivals of Navratri and Sankranti and are referred as Bommala Koluvu.
- Statement 02 is correct, they have been granted the Geographical Indications (GI) tag.
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to Amicus curiae:
- The decision whether to admit the information given by the Amicus curiae lies with the discretion of the court.
- Amicus curiae can be appointed in both civil and criminal cases
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, An amicus curiae literally translates to “friend of the court”. He/She is an individual or organization who is not a party to a legal case, but who is permitted to assist a court by offering expertise that has a bearing on the issues in the case.
- The decision on whether to consider an amicus brief lies within the discretion of the court.
- Statement 02 is correct, The most common area of need of amicus curiae is in cases that are under appeal, or issue of public interest litigation and they can be appointed in both civil and criminal cases.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, An amicus curiae literally translates to “friend of the court”. He/She is an individual or organization who is not a party to a legal case, but who is permitted to assist a court by offering expertise that has a bearing on the issues in the case.
- The decision on whether to consider an amicus brief lies within the discretion of the court.
- Statement 02 is correct, The most common area of need of amicus curiae is in cases that are under appeal, or issue of public interest litigation and they can be appointed in both civil and criminal cases.
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements:
- The UN General Assembly can grant observer status in the non-member States.
- Inter-governmental organizations can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly.
- Permanent Observes in the UN General Assembly can maintain missions at the UN headquarters.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
- Statement 01 and 02 is correct, The UNGA may grant international organizations, non-member states and other entities Permanent Observer Status.
- Statement 03 is correct, Permanent Observers may participate in the sessions and workings of the UNGA and maintain missions at the UN Headquarters.
Read more on UNGA.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 and 02 is correct, The UNGA may grant international organizations, non-member states and other entities Permanent Observer Status.
- Statement 03 is correct, Permanent Observers may participate in the sessions and workings of the UNGA and maintain missions at the UN Headquarters.
Read more on UNGA.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Consider the following pairs: (Level-Hard)
Caves State
- Borra Andhra Pradesh
- Lomas Rishi Bihar
- Mawsmai Meghalaya
- Mandapeshwar Himachal Pradesh
- Tabo Maharashtra
Which of the pairs given above are correct?
Correct
- Pair 01 is correct, The Borra Caves are located on the East Coast of India, in the Ananthagiri hills of the Araku Valley in Andhra Pradesh. They distinctly exhibit irregularly shaped stalactites and stalagmites and are considered the deepest caves in India.
- Pair 02 is correct, The Lomas Rishi Cave is one of the man-made in the Barabar and Nagarjuni hills of Bihar. It was built in the 3rd century BC, as part of the sacred architecture of the Ajivikas sect.
- Pair 03 is correct, Mawsmai Cave is a limestone cave found near Cherrapunji, Meghalaya.
- Pair 04 is incorrect, The Mandapeshwar Caves is an 8th Century rock-cut shrine dedicated to lord Shiva located in Maharashtra.
- Pair 04 is incorrect, Tabo Caves are located in Spiti Valley, Himachal Pradesh.
Incorrect
- Pair 01 is correct, The Borra Caves are located on the East Coast of India, in the Ananthagiri hills of the Araku Valley in Andhra Pradesh. They distinctly exhibit irregularly shaped stalactites and stalagmites and are considered the deepest caves in India.
- Pair 02 is correct, The Lomas Rishi Cave is one of the man-made in the Barabar and Nagarjuni hills of Bihar. It was built in the 3rd century BC, as part of the sacred architecture of the Ajivikas sect.
- Pair 03 is correct, Mawsmai Cave is a limestone cave found near Cherrapunji, Meghalaya.
- Pair 04 is incorrect, The Mandapeshwar Caves is an 8th Century rock-cut shrine dedicated to lord Shiva located in Maharashtra.
- Pair 04 is incorrect, Tabo Caves are located in Spiti Valley, Himachal Pradesh.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
With respect to Mullaperiyar Dam, which of the following statements is/are correct? (Level-Medium)
- It is a masonry gravity dam on the Periyar River.
- It is located in Kerala but is operated by the government of Tamil Nadu.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, It is a 126-year-old masonry gravity dam located on the confluence of the Mullayar and Periyar rivers in Kerala’s Idukki district.
- Statement 02 is correct, The dam is owned, operated and maintained by Tamil Nadu.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, It is a 126-year-old masonry gravity dam located on the confluence of the Mullayar and Periyar rivers in Kerala’s Idukki district.
- Statement 02 is correct, The dam is owned, operated and maintained by Tamil Nadu.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Which of the following statements with respect to Nalanda University is/are correct? (Level-Medium)
- It was founded by Kumaragupta I of the Gupta dynasty in the 5th century CE.
- The archaeological site of Nalanda University in Bihar has been included in UNESCO’s World Heritage List
- Xu Beihong was a Chinese Buddhist monk who travelled to India during the reign of King Harsha Vardhan and studied at Nalanda.
- Nalanda was ransacked and destroyed by Turkic invaders under Muhammad Ghori
Options:
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, Nalanda University was founded by Kumaragupta – I of the Gupta Dynasty in the 5th Century C.E. It was also supported by the famous ruler King Harshavardhana of Kannauj.
- Statement 02 is correct, Nalanda University got inscribed as a World Heritage Site by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) in 2016.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, Hiuen Tsang or Xuanzang, a Buddhist monk is said to have visited Nalanda in the 7th century.He studied for about 05 years at Nalanda.During his time at Nalanda, Hiuen Tsang studied logic, grammar, Sanskrit, and the Yogacara school of Buddhism.
- Statement 04 is incorrect, in 1193, Nalanda was destroyed by a military general of the Ghurid Dynasty from Turk called Bakhtiyar Khilji.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, Nalanda University was founded by Kumaragupta – I of the Gupta Dynasty in the 5th Century C.E. It was also supported by the famous ruler King Harshavardhana of Kannauj.
- Statement 02 is correct, Nalanda University got inscribed as a World Heritage Site by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) in 2016.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, Hiuen Tsang or Xuanzang, a Buddhist monk is said to have visited Nalanda in the 7th century.He studied for about 05 years at Nalanda.During his time at Nalanda, Hiuen Tsang studied logic, grammar, Sanskrit, and the Yogacara school of Buddhism.
- Statement 04 is incorrect, in 1193, Nalanda was destroyed by a military general of the Ghurid Dynasty from Turk called Bakhtiyar Khilji.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to Hansen’s Disease:(Level-Easy)
- It is an infection caused by Dhori virus
- It can affect the nerves, skin, eyes, and lining of the nose (nasal mucosa).
- Hansen’s disease is not passed on from a mother to her unborn baby during pregnancy and it is also not spread through sexual contact.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 01 is incorrect, Hansen’s disease/leprosy is an infection caused by bacteria called Mycobacterium leprae.
- Statement 02 is correct, it affects the skin, nerves, and mucous membranes (the soft, moist areas just inside the body’s openings).
- Statement 03 is correct, It is not transmitted from a casual contact with a person who has Hansen’s disease.
- Hansen’s disease is also not passed on from a mother to her unborn baby during pregnancy and it is also not spread through sexual contact.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is incorrect, Hansen’s disease/leprosy is an infection caused by bacteria called Mycobacterium leprae.
- Statement 02 is correct, it affects the skin, nerves, and mucous membranes (the soft, moist areas just inside the body’s openings).
- Statement 03 is correct, It is not transmitted from a casual contact with a person who has Hansen’s disease.
- Hansen’s disease is also not passed on from a mother to her unborn baby during pregnancy and it is also not spread through sexual contact.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
The “Miyawaki method” is well known for (Level-Medium) (CSE Prelims-2022)
Correct
- The Miyawaki Method is one of the most effective tree planting methods for creating forest cover quickly on degraded land that has been used for other purposes such as agriculture or construction.
Incorrect
- The Miyawaki Method is one of the most effective tree planting methods for creating forest cover quickly on degraded land that has been used for other purposes such as agriculture or construction.
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