Nov 7th, 2021, CNA:- Download PDF Here
TABLE OF CONTENTS
A. GS 1 Related B. GS 2 Related POLITY AND GOVERNANCE 1. ‘Govt. can’t be adversary when citizens’ rights are under threat’ 2. Solution in sight for A.P.-Odisha water dispute INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS 1. ‘China more active now at Chumbi Valley’ C. GS 3 Related ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY 1. Panel blames sudden low winds for noxious Delhi air SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY 1. The Sun lights up aurorae in high-latitude countries D. GS 4 Related E. Editorials ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY 1. Where does India stand on methane emissions? INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS 1. Why is Delhi holding an NSA meet on Afghanistan? POLITY AND GOVERNANCE 1. Reservation on quota ECONOMY 1. How has RBI tweaked Prompt Corrective Action norms for banks? F. Prelims Facts 1. October witnessed highest power shortage in country in over 5 years 2. Age determination of juvenile offenders shall be completed in 15 days: HC 3. ‘Heroic village’ near the China border 4. Srinagar declared a ‘major airport’ G. Tidbits 1. SC turns focus on mental health issues 2. Ajit Doval holds strategic dialogue with France 3. Silchar to host NE Green Summit from Nov. 16 H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions I. UPSC Mains Practice Questions
A. GS 1 Related
Nothing here for today!!!
B. GS 2 Related
Category: POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
1. ‘Govt. can’t be adversary when citizens’ rights are under threat’
Context:
In the Pegasus case, the Supreme Court emphasised that the government cannot take an “adversarial attitude” when people’ basic rights are threatened.
Details:
Observations in Pegasus Order: –
- The Supreme Court referred to the wisdom of Justice H.R. Khanna’s reasoning in the Kesavananda Bharati case verdict from 1973 in its Pegasus order.
- According to Justice Khanna, the basic responsibility of judges is to “uphold the Constitution and the laws without fear or favour.”
- The Pegasus order refers to the court’s 2011 decision in the Ram Jethmalani case.
- It recommended that, rather than obstructing petitioners, the government should disclose information and assist them in “better articulating” their case.
- In procedures under Article 32, both the petitioner and the state must be the court’s eyes and ears.
- The court’s determination to preserve fundamental rights in the Pegasus order resonates with its decision in the COVID-19 case.
- In that decision, the court refused to be a “silent spectator” when government actions violated citizens’ fundamental rights.
2. Solution in sight for A.P.-Odisha water dispute
Context:
Andhra Pradesh CM Y.S. Jagan Mohan Reddy has scheduled a meeting with Odisha CM Naveen Patnaik to resolve the water conflict.
Details:
- Andhra Pradesh and Odisha states are at dispute over the Vamsadhara Phase-II project in Srikakulam district and the jurisdiction of Kotia villages in Vizianagaram district.
- The Vamsadhara Water Disputes Tribunal has ruled in Andhra Pradesh’s favour.
- However, the area under Odisha’s jurisdiction for the building of the Neradi barrage has yet to be acquired.
Read more on this issue covered in June 23rd, 2021 CNA.
Category: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
1. ‘China more active now at Chumbi Valley’
Context:
The Department of Defense (DoD) has presented to the United States Congress its annual report 2021 on military and security developments involving the People’s Republic of China (PRC).
Details:
- The Department of Defense has delivered to the United States Congress its report on military events involving the People’s Republic of China (PRC).
- According to the assessment, China has continued to take incremental and tactical efforts to assert its claims near the Line of Actual Control.
- China is boosting its connection and depth in the Chumbi Valley, which is near to India’s crucial and sensitive Siliguri corridor.
About Siliguri Corridor: –
- The Siliguri corridor is a swath of terrain that borders Bangladesh, Bhutan, and Nepal.
- It’s a strip of territory that connects the northeast to the rest of the country.
- The demographics, as well as the associated difficulties of radicalization and separatist aspirations, might be detrimental to India’s security interests.
Source: The Hindu
C. GS 3 Related
Category: ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY
1. Panel blames sudden low winds for noxious Delhi air
Context:
The expert sub-committee tasked with recommending pollution control measures under the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) has released the report.
Details:
- Observations of the Subcommittee Report:
- The terrible air quality that seized the Delhi National Capital Region following Deepavali was mostly caused by unexpected low winds.
- A shift in wind direction increased the burden of pollution from stubble burning in Punjab and Haryana.
- Concerns with the Report of sub-committee: –
- The committee opted to disregard a scientific report issued by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and the India Meteorological Department (IMD).
- The significance of crackers, biomass burning, and unfavourable meteorological conditions in raising the AQI to severe levels has been overlooked.
- In light of the ongoing concerns, the subcommittee recommends no additional steps.
Category: SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY
1. The Sun lights up aurorae in high-latitude countries
Context:
The Indian scientists had predicted a magnetic storm will arrive at the Earth in the early hours of November 4.
Details:
- A solar flare on the Sun generated a magnetic storm of enough amplitude to cause stunning aurora displays in high-latitude and polar locations.
- This prediction was based on models developed by them as well as data from NASA’s observatories.
- Aurora : – Aurora are the coloured bands of light seen in the North and South poles.
- Sunspots : – The solar magnetic cycle that works in the deep interior of the Sun creates regions that rise to the surface and appear like dark spots. These are the sunspots.
Solar flares
- Solar flares are very energetic events that occur within sunspots.
- The energy contained in the Sun’s magnetic structures is turned into light and heat energy during a solar flare.
- Coronal Mass Ejection(CME) occurs when solar flares force heated plasma to be expelled from the Sun, resulting in a solar storm.
Impact of the Solar Flares
- Sharp increase in transverse magnetic fields, density, and plasma wind velocity.
- The flares can have an impact on Earth-bound items and life.
- Coronal mass ejections can disrupt electrical systems as well as oil pipelines and deep-sea cables.
- They may also produce beautiful auroras in high-latitude and polar regions.
D. GS 4 Related
Nothing here for today!!!
E. Editorials
Category: ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY
1. Where does India stand on methane emissions?
Context:
- Global Methane Pledge and Glasgow Leaders’ Declaration on Forests and Land Use have been two of the most prominent outcomes so far of the ongoing UN Climate Change Conference (the 26th Conference of Parties-COP26) in Glasgow.
Global Methane pledge:
- The Global Methane pledge first announced in September by the US and EU is essentially an agreement to reduce global methane emissions.
- One of the central aims of this agreement is to cut down methane emissions by up to 30 per cent from 2020 levels by the year 2030.
- At least 90 countries have signed the Global Methane Pledge.
Significance:
- Methane is a potent greenhouse gas with Global Warming Potential (GWP) of around 20-25 (for a 100-year timeframe GWP). According to the latest Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change report, methane accounts for about half of the 1.0 degrees Celsius net rise in global average temperature since the pre-industrial era.
- Methane is the second-most abundant greenhouse gas in the atmosphere, after carbon dioxide, and accounting for about 20 percent of global emissions.
- In the last two centuries, methane concentrations in the atmosphere have more than doubled.
- Methane has a much shorter atmospheric lifetime (12 years as compared to centuries for CO2).
- Notably as per a report of the IEA, more than 75 per cent of methane emissions can be mitigated with the technology that exists today, and that up to 40 per cent of this can be done at no additional costs.
- Thus rapidly reducing methane emissions is regarded as the single most effective strategy to reduce global warming in the near term and keep the goal of limiting warming to 1.5 degrees Celsius within reach.
Glasgow Leaders’ Declaration on Forests and Land Use:
- The Glasgow Leaders’ Declaration on Forests and Land Use, initiated by the United Kingdom aims to halt deforestation and land degradation by 2030.
- The Glasgow declaration is a successor to the 2014 New York Declaration for Forests that sought to reduce emissions from deforestation by 15%-20% by 2020 and end it by 2030.
- The pledge includes $19 bn of public and private funds to invest in protecting and restoring forests.
- The pledge aims to ensure that natural forests aren’t cleared out for commercial plantations. It also aims to halt industrial logging. The declaration also seeks to strengthen the rights of indigenous tribes and communities to forestland.
- The Glasgow Declaration has been signed by 133 countries, which represent 90% of the globe’s forested land.
Significance:
- Deforestation has increased over the years and is responsible for about 20% of the total carbon emissions.
For detailed information on the above topics refer to the following article:
UPSC Exam Comprehensive News Analysis of 03rd Nov 2021
India’s stance:
- Notably India has stayed away from both the methane pledge and the forest conservation declaration at Glasgow.
- India is the third largest emitter of methane, primarily because of the size of its rural economy and by virtue of having the largest cattle population. It was not sure about committing to steep methane emissions.
- India has independent plans to reduce methane emissions. India plans to deploy technology and capture methane that can be used as a source of energy. It plans to adopt a national strategy to increase biogas production and reduce methane emissions.
- India has been unhappy with the wording of the Glasgow Leaders’ Declaration on Forests and Land Use that suggests not meeting the obligations under the pledge could also mean restrictions in international trade. India’s line of argument has been that trade and climate action should not be related as trade falls under the ambit of the World Trade Organization.
- India is also considering changes to its forest conservation laws that seek to encourage commercial tree plantation as well as infrastructure development in forestland to meet its development goals. These initiatives might seem contradictory to the proposed provisions of the forest declaration at Glasgow.
Recommendations:
- Sources of methane can be harnessed for energy. This has the dual advantage of mitigating methane emission while also reducing dependence on other energy sources.
- The lack of incentives and efficient energy markets act as major impediments to harnessing methane as a source of energy. The government should focus on these aspects to mainstream methane capture and usage.
Category: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
1. Why is Delhi holding an NSA meet on Afghanistan?
Context:
- Indian National Security Adviser will be hosting a meeting of NSAs from China, Iran, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Russia, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan on the Afghanistan issue.
- Pakistan NSA has rejected the invitation for participation and China has not yet confirmed its participation.
Agenda of the meeting:
- The meeting will discuss Afghanistan’s future and is expected to seek a common understanding of how to approach the Taliban regime, especially on seeking an inclusive government in Afghanistan, with rights for women and minorities.
- The meeting will also discuss on how to deal with security threats emanating from the Taliban takeover of Afghanistan– Increase in terror groups operating within Afghanistan, increase in drug trafficking, the possible inflow of refugees due to the humanitarian crisis.
Significance for India:
- The NSA meeting is an attempt to find a solution to the Afghanistan crisis from the region itself. Finding a peaceful solution to the Afghanistan issue is in India’s interests as well given the regional influence of the Afghanistan developments.
- Previously, most discussion formats on Afghanistan have not included India, mostly due to Pakistan’s opposition to inclusion of India. The NSA meeting in Delhi will seek to project India as a necessary and integral part of the Afghan dialogue.
- Also the meeting offers India an opportunity to re-enforce its claims as a “boundary neighbour”, given that Afghanistan abuts Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK).
- Despite India’s opposition to the Taliban regime replacing the democratically elected government in Afghanistan, India has been engaging with Taliban at various levels recently. India also seeks to remain an important figure in Afghanistan’s future as a development, aid and trade partner and a builder of connectivity infrastructure with its involvement in Chabahar port project, Turkmenistan-Afghanistan-Pakistan-India gas pipeline. The NSA meeting will help India understand the stance of other countries in the region and recalibrate its approach towards the Afghan issue.
Category: POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
Background:
- The Madras High Court has declared the Tamil Nadu government law providing separate reservation of 10.5% of jobs in public services and seats in educational institutions for the Vanniyar community as being
- The concerned state government law had provided for an internal reservation among the backward communities itself. It had divided the ‘Most Backward Classes/Denotified Communities’ category into three parts and 10.5% of the Backward community seats were specified as exclusive to the Vanniyakula Kshatriya and its various sub-castes.
Reasons for the court’s judgment:
- The Bench ruled that the Act was unconstitutional mainly on the ground that the Assembly had no legislative competence to pass the law on the date of the enactment. The 102nd Amendment to the Constitution was in force in February 2021 according to which only the President was empowered to notify the backward classes list for each State. This observation was upheld by the Supreme Court in the Maratha reservation case.
- Also the bench held that the separate reservation for one caste amounted to discrimination against all the other castes in the same MBC category.
- The bench also noted that the State had no quantifiable data to show the relative backwardness of the Vanniyars as compared to the other MBCs to justify the exclusive treatment for the community. In the absence of such quantifiable data the bench held that the legislation seemed based solely on the ground of caste and hence goes against well grounded principles set out for affirmative action in the Indian Constitution.
- The judgment also notes that any law making changes to the distribution of quotas under various categories would require an amendment to the State’s 1994 Act protecting the overall reservation level. As that Act contains quotas allotted to the SC, ST, BC and MBC/DNC categories, any change would require an amendment to that law, as well as the President’s assent. These steps have not been taken up while passing the concerned state law.
1. How has RBI tweaked Prompt Corrective Action norms for banks?
Context:
- The Reserve Bank of India recently issued a notification revising norms for commercial banks to be placed under the Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) framework.
- The new framework takes effect from January 1, 2022.
Prompt Corrective Action:
- The PCA framework was first notified in December 2002. Several banks have been placed under the framework since then.
- The objective of the framework is to enable supervisory intervention at appropriate time and require the supervised entity to initiate and implement remedial measures in a timely manner so as to restore its financial health.
- The PCA framework is envisaged as also a tool to ensure effective market discipline.
- Banks would be evaluated on the basis of capital, asset quality, profitability and leverage.
- The PCA framework has different risk thresholds with increasing restrictions on banks if they are unable to arrest their financial deterioration. RBI can impose curbs on dividend distribution/remittance of profits, branch expansion and on capital expenditure.
- In 2021, UCO Bank, IDBI Bank and Indian Overseas Bank exited the framework on improved performance. Only Central Bank of India remains under the PCA framework now.
Details:
- The new revision removes return on assets as an indicator to qualify for PCA. Hence Capital, Asset Quality and Leverage will be the key areas for monitoring in the revised framework. Indicators to be tracked for Capital, Asset Quality and Leverage would be CRAR/ Common Equity Tier I Ratio, Net NPA Ratio and Tier I Leverage Ratio
- The new version excludes Small Finance Banks and Payment Banks in addition to the Regional Rural Banks from the purview of the PCA framework.
- The PCA Framework would apply to all banks operating in India including foreign banks operating through branches or subsidiaries based on breach of risk thresholds of identified indicators.
- As per the new framework, the exit of bank from the PCA would be based on four continuous quarterly results of the Audited Annual Financial Statement apart from Supervisory Comfort of RBI, including an assessment on sustainability of profitability of the bank.
F. Prelims Facts
1. October witnessed highest power shortage in country in over 5 years
Context:
India recorded a power supply shortage of 1,201 million units in October 2021.
Details:
- The power supply constraint is the worst in 5.5 years as a result of a scarcity of coal inventories at thermal units.
- At the same time, power demand had increased by more than 24%.
Coal in India:
- Coal accounts for 70% of the country’s electricity generation.
- The ash level in Indian coal is high while the sulphur concentration is low.
- It may be categorised into three varieties based on its carbon content:
- Anthracite: It is the coal with 80 to 95% carbon content found in small quantities in Jammu and Kashmir.
- Bituminous: It has a 60 to 80% carbon content and is found in Jharkhand, West Bengal, Odisha, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh.
- Lignite carries 40 to 55% carbon content and is found in Rajasthan, Lakhimpur (Assam) and Tamil Nadu.
- Peat is a coal with low calorific value and less than 40% carbon content.
2. Age determination of juvenile offenders shall be completed in 15 days: HC
Context:
The Delhi High Court has ordered that the procedure of determining the age of a juvenile be completed within 15 days of the filing of documents.
Details:
- According to the Delhi High Court, the Investigating Officer must ensure that the Ossification test for the juvenile is done and filed with the Juvenile Justice Board (JJB) within 15 days.
- The JJB must guarantee that the juvenile’s age determination process is completed within 15 days after the submission of papers.
Who is Juvenile?
- The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 addresses children in conflict with law and children in need of care and protection.
- According to the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act of 2015, any person who is less than eighteen years of age is considered a Juvenile.
Juvenile Justice Board (JJB)
- Juveniles accused of or imprisoned for committing a crime are brought before the JJB constituted under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act of 2015.
- The JJB is made up of a Metropolitan Magistrate or a Judicial Magistrate of the First Class, as well as two Social Workers, one of whom must be a woman.
3. ‘Heroic village’ near the China border
Context:
Arunachal Pradesh aims to make a documentary on Kaho village located near the Chinese border.
Details:
- Kaho is one of seven settlements that make up the Kibithoo block, which is divided by the Lohit River.
- Kaho survived a Chinese onslaught in 1962.
- According to the 2011 census, Kaho has just 65 inhabitants and a literacy rate of 64.15 percent,
- Meyor community: – The people of Kaho village belong to the Meyor community.
4. Srinagar declared a ‘major airport’
Context:
The Union Ministry of Civil Aviation designated Srinagar Airport as a “major airport”.
Details:
- According to the rules of the Airports Economic Authority Act of 2008, the Centre recognises an airport as a major airport.
- The ruling would empower the AERA to set the cost for aeronautical services at the Srinagar airport, including the development charge and passenger service fee.
G. Tidbits
1. SC turns focus on mental health issues
- Recently, the Supreme Court has raised concerns over mental health issues.
- The observation is made in a recent ruling based on an appeal filed by Karnataka against a High Court order to dismiss a case of abetment of suicide against a government worker.
- The Supreme Court Observed that Individual personality differences manifest as a variation in the behaviour of people.
2. Ajit Doval holds strategic dialogue with France
- Recently, Ajit Doval, the National Security Assistant (NSA), met with French President Emmanuel Macron’s diplomatic adviser Emmanuel Bonne in Paris for the annual strategic discussion.
- India and France are committed to increasing information sharing and boosting bilateral maritime exercises in the Indo-Pacific region.
- The two sides also reviewed the ongoing threat of terrorism, as well as growing challenges in the maritime, cyber, and space domains.
3. Silchar to host NE Green Summit from Nov. 16
- A three-day Northeast Green Summit will be held at Silchar.
- Theme:-
- The sixth edition of the summit will focus on the theme “Greening after Covid: Regional Cooperation, Innovation, and Entrepreneurship.”
- A green cyclothon will be held to raise public awareness about the fast decreasing resources.
H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions
Q1. Consider the following statements with respect to Vamsadhara River:
- Mahendratanaya River is a major tributary of Vamsadhara.
- Vamsadhara River Water Dispute is between Telangana, Andhra Pradesh and Odisha.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both
- None
CHECK ANSWERS:-
Answer: a
Explanation:
- River Vamsadhara is an important east flowing river between Rushikulya and Godavari, in Odisha and Andhra Pradesh states in India.
- Mahendratanaya River is a major tributary river of Vamsadhara. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- The Vamsadhara water dispute is between the states of Andhra Pradesh and Odisha. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
Q2. With respect to the SOHO satellite, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is a joint mission of the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA).
- It is a mission to explore the planet Mercury.
Options:
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both
- None
CHECK ANSWERS:-
Answer: d
Explanation:
- SOHO was launched on December 2, 1995.
- SOHO, the Solar & Heliospheric Observatory, is a project of international collaboration between ESA and NASA. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
- SOHO aims to study the Sun from its deep core to the outer corona and the solar wind. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
Q3. Consider the following statements:
- Tigray Region the Northernmost regional state in Ethiopia is bordered by Eritrea to the north and Djibouti to the East.
- Ethiopia is the largest landlocked country in the world.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both
- None
CHECK ANSWERS:-
Answer: d
Explanation:
- The Tigray Region in Ethiopia borders Eritrea and Sudan (Not Djibouti). Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
- Ethiopia is the sixth largest landlocked country in the world. The largest landlocked country in the world is Kazakhstan followed by Mongolia, Chad, Niger, Mali. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
Q4. With reference to the Advocate General of the State, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- The Advocate General is appointed by the President.
- Article 165 has provided for the office of Advocate general for the States.
Options:
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both
- None
CHECK ANSWERS:-
Answer: b
Explanation:
- The Advocate General of the State is the highest law officer of the state.
- The Governor(Not President) appoints the advocate general of state on the advice of the council of ministers of the state. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
- Article 165 of the Indian Constitution is related to the office of Advocate General of State. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
Q5. Under the Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India Act, the Centre can designate an airport as a ‘Major Airport’ if it has an annual passenger traffic of at least
- 20 Lakhs
- 25 lakhs
- 30 lakhs
- 35 lakhs
CHECK ANSWERS:-
Answer: d
Explanation:
- According to the rules of the Airports Economic Authority Act of 2008, the Centre has the power to recognise an airport as a major airport.
- Under the AERA, the Centre can designate an airport as a major airport if it has an annual passenger traffic of at least 35 lakh. Hence Option D is correct.
Q6. ‘Doctors without Borders (Medecins Sans Frontieres)’, often in the news, is
- A division of World Health Organization
- A non-governmental international organization
- An inter-governmental agency sponsored by European Union
- A specialized agency of the United Nations
CHECK ANSWERS:-
Answer: b
Explanation:
- Médecins Sans Frontières, is also rendered in English as Doctors Without Borders.
- It is an international humanitarian medical non-governmental organisation of French origin. Hence Option B is correct.
- It is best known for its projects in conflict zones and in countries affected by endemic diseases.
I. UPSC Mains Practice Questions
- Explain why India has stayed away from committing to both the methane pledge and the forest conservation declaration adopted at the 26th UNFCCC COP at Glasgow? (15 Marks, 250 Words) [GS-3, Environment & Ecology]
- States should base reservation policies on data, not political expediency. Comment. (10 Marks, 150 Words) [GS-2, Polity & Governance]
Read the previous CNA here.
Nov 7th, 2021, CNA:- Download PDF Here
Comments