UPSC 2024: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Feb 03 – Feb 09 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Current Affairs Monthly Magazine (Dec 2023)
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UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from Feb 03 – Feb 09 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.
Post your scores in the comment section below!
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UPSC 2024: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Feb 03 – Feb 09
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Category: GovernanceWhich of the following statements is/are true? (Level – Easy)
- The Indian Army now allows women in frontline combat roles.
- The Indian Army grants women Permanent Commission.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, The Supreme Court in its judgement has upheld an earlier judgement that granted permanent commission and command postings to women officers in all arms and services other than combat.
- Statement 2 is correct, Following a judgment by the Supreme Court, the Army now grants Permanent Commission (PC) to women officers on a par with their male counterparts.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, The Supreme Court in its judgement has upheld an earlier judgement that granted permanent commission and command postings to women officers in all arms and services other than combat.
- Statement 2 is correct, Following a judgment by the Supreme Court, the Army now grants Permanent Commission (PC) to women officers on a par with their male counterparts.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Category: SchemesWhich of the statements are true regarding the FAME Scheme? (Level – Moderate)
- It aims to improve the penetration of EVs in the Indian Automobile market.
- It has been implemented in three phases.
- It emphasizes the development of EV charging stations in the country.
- Phase 1 focused on 4-wheel public transport, while phase 2 focusses on 4-wheel private vehicles.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Hybrid and Electric Vehicles (FAME), is a scheme launched by the Government of India to give a boost to the development of Electric Vehicles.
- Statement 2 is not correct, FAME India Scheme operates in two phases:
- Phase I (2015 to 2019)
- Phase II of FAME (2019 to 2022)
- Statement 3 is correct, The scheme also emphasizes the development of EV charging stations in the country.
- Under Phase II, Rs 1,000 crores was set aside for setting up charging stations for electric vehicles.
- Statement 4 is not correct, The focus areas of the first phase of FAME scheme were Demand Creation, Technology Platform, Pilot Project and Charging Infrastructure.
- The second phase of FAME India Scheme stresses on electrification of public transportation and shared transportation.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Hybrid and Electric Vehicles (FAME), is a scheme launched by the Government of India to give a boost to the development of Electric Vehicles.
- Statement 2 is not correct, FAME India Scheme operates in two phases:
- Phase I (2015 to 2019)
- Phase II of FAME (2019 to 2022)
- Statement 3 is correct, The scheme also emphasizes the development of EV charging stations in the country.
- Under Phase II, Rs 1,000 crores was set aside for setting up charging stations for electric vehicles.
- Statement 4 is not correct, The focus areas of the first phase of FAME scheme were Demand Creation, Technology Platform, Pilot Project and Charging Infrastructure.
- The second phase of FAME India Scheme stresses on electrification of public transportation and shared transportation.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Category: EconomyWhich of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of Indian stock market without registering themselves directly? (Level – Easy) PYQ 2019
Correct
- Participatory notes also referred to as P-Notes, or PNs, are financial instruments required by investors or hedge funds to invest in Indian securities without having to register with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
Incorrect
- Participatory notes also referred to as P-Notes, or PNs, are financial instruments required by investors or hedge funds to invest in Indian securities without having to register with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Category: PolityWhich of the following statements is/are correct with respect to National Green Tribunal (NGT)? (Level – Moderate)
- The Tribunal’s orders are binding and it has power to grant relief in the form of compensation and damages to affected persons.
- The Tribunal has powers to review its own decisions. If this fails, the decision can be challenged before the Supreme Court within ninety days.
- NGT has not been vested with powers to hear any matter relating to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, The National Green Tribunal’s (NGT) orders are binding and it has power to grant relief in the form of compensation and damages to affected persons.
- Statement 2 is correct, The National Green Tribunal has powers to review its own decisions. If this fails, the decision can be challenged before the Supreme Court within 90 days.
- Statement 3 is correct, The NGT has the power to hear any matter relating to the following Acts or Statutes:
- The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
- The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977
- The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
- The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
- The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
- The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
- The Biological Diversity Act, 2002
- The NGT thus does not have the powers to hear matters relating to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, The National Green Tribunal’s (NGT) orders are binding and it has power to grant relief in the form of compensation and damages to affected persons.
- Statement 2 is correct, The National Green Tribunal has powers to review its own decisions. If this fails, the decision can be challenged before the Supreme Court within 90 days.
- Statement 3 is correct, The NGT has the power to hear any matter relating to the following Acts or Statutes:
- The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
- The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977
- The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
- The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
- The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
- The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
- The Biological Diversity Act, 2002
- The NGT thus does not have the powers to hear matters relating to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Category: Defence & SecurityWith respect to INS Vagir, which of the following statements is/are incorrect? (Level – Easy)
- It is a hydrographic survey ship in the Indian Navy, under the Southern Naval Command.
- It has the distinction of being associated with relief work in the wake of the Gujarat earthquake, Tsunami 2004, as well as Operation Vijay during the Kargil war.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, INS Vagir is the fifth diesel-electric Scorpene-class submarine.
- Six Scorpene-class submarines are being constructed under Project-75 by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd with the help of technology transfer from the Naval Group of France under a $3.75-billion deal signed in October 2005.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The INS Jamuna ship (J16) is a hydrographic survey ship in the Indian Navy, under the Southern Naval Command which has the distinction of being associated with relief work in the wake of the Gujarat earthquake, Tsunami 2004, as well as Operation Vijay during the Kargil war.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, INS Vagir is the fifth diesel-electric Scorpene-class submarine.
- Six Scorpene-class submarines are being constructed under Project-75 by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd with the help of technology transfer from the Naval Group of France under a $3.75-billion deal signed in October 2005.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The INS Jamuna ship (J16) is a hydrographic survey ship in the Indian Navy, under the Southern Naval Command which has the distinction of being associated with relief work in the wake of the Gujarat earthquake, Tsunami 2004, as well as Operation Vijay during the Kargil war.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Category: G KWhich amongst the following statements is the best description of Madrid Protocol (Level – Moderate)
Correct
- The Madrid Protocol is a convenient and cost-effective solution for registering and managing trademarks worldwide.
- Madrid Protocol is the primary international system for facilitating the registration of trademarks in multiple jurisdictions around the world
- The Madrid Protocol provides the trademark owners the chance of having their trademarks protected in several countries by filing just one application.
Incorrect
- The Madrid Protocol is a convenient and cost-effective solution for registering and managing trademarks worldwide.
- Madrid Protocol is the primary international system for facilitating the registration of trademarks in multiple jurisdictions around the world
- The Madrid Protocol provides the trademark owners the chance of having their trademarks protected in several countries by filing just one application.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Category: HistoryConsider the following statements with respect to Lambanis: (Level – Difficult)
- They were once nomadic tribes who arrived from Afghanistan to India
- They are believed to have assisted the Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb to carry goods to the southern part of the country in the 17th century
- The Lambadi Language belongs to Dravidian group of languages and the language does not have a native script
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, Lambanis, or Lambadis or Banjaras, were a nomadic tribal group who arrived from Afghanistan to Rajasthan and are now spread across Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra
- Statement 2 is correct, It is believed that In the 17th century, Lambanis were believed to have been assisted by the Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb to carry goods to southern India.
- Statement 3 is not correct, Lambanis belong to the Indo-Aryan group of languages and their language does not have a native script.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, Lambanis, or Lambadis or Banjaras, were a nomadic tribal group who arrived from Afghanistan to Rajasthan and are now spread across Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra
- Statement 2 is correct, It is believed that In the 17th century, Lambanis were believed to have been assisted by the Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb to carry goods to southern India.
- Statement 3 is not correct, Lambanis belong to the Indo-Aryan group of languages and their language does not have a native script.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyIn human body, which one of the following hormone regulates blood calcium and phosphate? (Level – Difficult) PYQ (2007)
Correct
- Parathyroid Hormone is a hormone secreted by the parathyroid gland.
- Parathyroid Hormone regulates the amount of calcium by keeping a balance between calcium in our bones and the extracellular fluid.
- It also regulates the excretion of phosphates through urine.
Incorrect
- Parathyroid Hormone is a hormone secreted by the parathyroid gland.
- Parathyroid Hormone regulates the amount of calcium by keeping a balance between calcium in our bones and the extracellular fluid.
- It also regulates the excretion of phosphates through urine.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyWith respect to Sambar deer, which of the following statements is/are correct? (Level-Medium)
- It is a large deer native to the Indian subcontinent and Southeast Asia.
- It is listed as a vulnerable species on the IUCN Red List.
Options:
Correct
The sambar (Rusa unicolor ) is a large deer native to the Indian subcontinent and Southeast Asia that is listed as a vulnerable species on the IUCN Red List since 2008. Populations have declined substantially due to severe hunting, local insurgency, and industrial exploitation of habitat.
Incorrect
The sambar (Rusa unicolor ) is a large deer native to the Indian subcontinent and Southeast Asia that is listed as a vulnerable species on the IUCN Red List since 2008. Populations have declined substantially due to severe hunting, local insurgency, and industrial exploitation of habitat.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Category: Art and CultureConsider the following Pairs: (Level-Difficult)
Mudras: Meaning
- Abhaya mudra: It symbolises the Buddha’s enlightenment under the Bodhi tree
- Bhumisparsha Mudra: It symbolises protection, peace and dispelling of fear
- Karana Mudrā: A gesture to keep away from evil and other negative influences.
- Varada mudra: It symbolises charity, compassion and boon-granting.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
- Pair 01 is incorrect, Abhaya in Sanskrit means fearlessness. The Mudra of Fearlessness or the Abhaya Mudra symbolises the dispelling of fear. The mudra is made by raising the right hand to shoulder height, with the arm bent and the palm facing outward.
- Pair 02 is incorrect, Bhumisparsha Mudra is also known as “touching the Earth” which represents the moment of the Buddha’s awakening as he claims the earth as the witness of his enlightenment. It is performed with the help of the right hand, which is held above the right knee, reaching toward the ground with the palm inward while touching the lotus throne.
- Pair 03 is correct, Karana mudra is a sacred hand gesture or “seal” used during yoga and meditation practice as a means of channelling the flow of vital life force energy known as prana.
- The Karana mudra helps to dispel negativity, anxiety, fear and depression whilst enhancing feelings of happiness and contentment.
- It stimulates Fire and Ether elements within the body, represented by the thumb and middle finger respectively.
- Pair 04 is correct, Varada mudra represents the offering, welcome, charity, giving, compassion and sincerity. It is performed with the help of both the hands with the palm of the right hand facing forward and fingers extended and the left-hand palm placed near omphalos with extended fingers.
Incorrect
- Pair 01 is incorrect, Abhaya in Sanskrit means fearlessness. The Mudra of Fearlessness or the Abhaya Mudra symbolises the dispelling of fear. The mudra is made by raising the right hand to shoulder height, with the arm bent and the palm facing outward.
- Pair 02 is incorrect, Bhumisparsha Mudra is also known as “touching the Earth” which represents the moment of the Buddha’s awakening as he claims the earth as the witness of his enlightenment. It is performed with the help of the right hand, which is held above the right knee, reaching toward the ground with the palm inward while touching the lotus throne.
- Pair 03 is correct, Karana mudra is a sacred hand gesture or “seal” used during yoga and meditation practice as a means of channelling the flow of vital life force energy known as prana.
- The Karana mudra helps to dispel negativity, anxiety, fear and depression whilst enhancing feelings of happiness and contentment.
- It stimulates Fire and Ether elements within the body, represented by the thumb and middle finger respectively.
- Pair 04 is correct, Varada mudra represents the offering, welcome, charity, giving, compassion and sincerity. It is performed with the help of both the hands with the palm of the right hand facing forward and fingers extended and the left-hand palm placed near omphalos with extended fingers.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Category: International RelationsWhich Amendment was a consequence of the Indian intervention in Sri Lanka? (Level-Difficult)
Correct
The 13th Amendment was a consequence of the Indian intervention in Sri Lanka between 1987-1990. It flowed from the India-Sri Lanka Accord of July 29, 1987. Under the terms of the Accord (also known as the Jayawardene-Rajiv Gandhi agreement), the Sri Lankan parliament brought in the 13th Amendment, which provided for a system of elected provincial councils across Sri Lanka.
Incorrect
The 13th Amendment was a consequence of the Indian intervention in Sri Lanka between 1987-1990. It flowed from the India-Sri Lanka Accord of July 29, 1987. Under the terms of the Accord (also known as the Jayawardene-Rajiv Gandhi agreement), the Sri Lankan parliament brought in the 13th Amendment, which provided for a system of elected provincial councils across Sri Lanka.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Category: HistoryWith respect to All India Kisan Sabha, which of the following statements is/are correct? (Level-Difficult)
- It was founded in 1936 at Indian National Congress (INC) Meerut Session as All India Kisan Congress.
- Swami Sahajanand Saraswati was the head of the Sabha.
- It wanted to abolish landlordism and to distribute the land free of cost to agricultural and other rural labourers.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 01 is incorrect, All India Kisan Sabha is a peasant front working for the rights of the farmers and anti-feudal movement in India. It was founded in 1936 at Indian National Congress (INC) Lucknow Session as All India Kisan Congress.
- Statement 02 is correct, Sahajanand Saraswati was the founder of Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha (BPKS) and was the first President of the All India Kisan Sabha.
- Statement 03 is correct, All India Kisan Sabha works as the forum representing peasants and agricultural and other rural labourers. The following are the objectives of the All India Kisan Sabha:
-
- To abolish landlordism and to distribute the land free of cost to agricultural and other rural labourers.
- To improve the standard of living of rural masses and to develop agriculture and industry.
- To end exploitation meted out to the agricultural and other rural labourers.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is incorrect, All India Kisan Sabha is a peasant front working for the rights of the farmers and anti-feudal movement in India. It was founded in 1936 at Indian National Congress (INC) Lucknow Session as All India Kisan Congress.
- Statement 02 is correct, Sahajanand Saraswati was the founder of Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha (BPKS) and was the first President of the All India Kisan Sabha.
- Statement 03 is correct, All India Kisan Sabha works as the forum representing peasants and agricultural and other rural labourers. The following are the objectives of the All India Kisan Sabha:
-
- To abolish landlordism and to distribute the land free of cost to agricultural and other rural labourers.
- To improve the standard of living of rural masses and to develop agriculture and industry.
- To end exploitation meted out to the agricultural and other rural labourers.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements: (Level-Difficult)
- They live in the rainforests and mountains of northern Brazil and southern Venezuela
- They are the largest relatively isolated tribe in South America.
- They consider all people to be equal, and do not have a chief.
The above statements best describe:
Correct
The Yanomami are the largest relatively isolated tribe in South America. They live in the rainforests and mountains of northern Brazil and southern Venezuela.
- The Yanomami do not recognize themselves as a united group, but rather as individuals associated with their politically autonomous villages.
- Yanomami communities are grouped together because they have similar ages and kinship, and militaristic coalitions interweave communities together.
- A tuxawa (headman) acts as the leader of each village, but no single leader presides over the whole of those classified as Yanomami as they consider all people to be equal.
Incorrect
The Yanomami are the largest relatively isolated tribe in South America. They live in the rainforests and mountains of northern Brazil and southern Venezuela.
- The Yanomami do not recognize themselves as a united group, but rather as individuals associated with their politically autonomous villages.
- Yanomami communities are grouped together because they have similar ages and kinship, and militaristic coalitions interweave communities together.
- A tuxawa (headman) acts as the leader of each village, but no single leader presides over the whole of those classified as Yanomami as they consider all people to be equal.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following types of light are strongly absorbed by plants? (PYQ-CSE-2007)(Level-Medium)
Correct
Out of the seven colours of light, only red and blue are absorbed by plants. Because the colour of chlorophyll is green, it strongly absorbs blue and red colours of the electromagnetic spectrum of the Sun.
Incorrect
Out of the seven colours of light, only red and blue are absorbed by plants. Because the colour of chlorophyll is green, it strongly absorbs blue and red colours of the electromagnetic spectrum of the Sun.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Category: Defence & SecurityConsider the following pairs: (Level-Difficult)
Battle Tanks Country
- Challenger 2 tanks Britain
- Leclerc tanks Russia
- Leopard 2 tanks Germany
- M1 Abrams tanks USA
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
- Pair 01 is correctly matched, The Challenger 2 is a third generation British main battle tank in service with the armies of the United Kingdom and Oman. It was designed and built by the British company Vickers Defence Systems, now known as BAE Systems Land & Armaments.
- Pair 02 is incorrectly matched, The Leclerc is a third generation French main battle tank developed and manufactured by Nexter Systems.
- The Leclerc is in service with the French Army, Jordanian Army and the United Arab Emirates Army.
- Pair 03 is correctly matched, The Leopard 2 is a German-manufactured main battle tank with a range of about 500 km (311 miles). It first came into service in 1979. Equipped with a 120mm smooth bore gun as its main armament, it is also armed with two coaxial light machine guns.
- As well as being used by the German military, Leopard 2 has been in wide service in Europe, with more than a dozen countries using the tank, as well as a number of other countries including Canada.
- The tanks have been deployed in Kosovo, Bosnia, Afghanistan and Syria (by Turkey).
- Pair 04 is correctly matched, The M1 Abrams is a third-generation American main battle tank.
- The M1 Abrams entered service in 1980 and currently serves as the main battle tank of the United States Army and formerly in the Marine Corps. The export version is used by the armies of Egypt, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, Australia, and Iraq.
Incorrect
- Pair 01 is correctly matched, The Challenger 2 is a third generation British main battle tank in service with the armies of the United Kingdom and Oman. It was designed and built by the British company Vickers Defence Systems, now known as BAE Systems Land & Armaments.
- Pair 02 is incorrectly matched, The Leclerc is a third generation French main battle tank developed and manufactured by Nexter Systems.
- The Leclerc is in service with the French Army, Jordanian Army and the United Arab Emirates Army.
- Pair 03 is correctly matched, The Leopard 2 is a German-manufactured main battle tank with a range of about 500 km (311 miles). It first came into service in 1979. Equipped with a 120mm smooth bore gun as its main armament, it is also armed with two coaxial light machine guns.
- As well as being used by the German military, Leopard 2 has been in wide service in Europe, with more than a dozen countries using the tank, as well as a number of other countries including Canada.
- The tanks have been deployed in Kosovo, Bosnia, Afghanistan and Syria (by Turkey).
- Pair 04 is correctly matched, The M1 Abrams is a third-generation American main battle tank.
- The M1 Abrams entered service in 1980 and currently serves as the main battle tank of the United States Army and formerly in the Marine Corps. The export version is used by the armies of Egypt, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, Australia, and Iraq.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Category: AgricultureWhich among the following is/are the Rabi Crops? (Level-Medium)
- Bajra
- Maize
- Gram
- Rapeseeds
- Wheat
Options:
Correct
Rabi crops are also known as Winter crops. They grow during the winter season which starts in October and March. Types of Rabi crops include wheat, barley, pulses, gram, mustard, cumin, sunflower, Rapeseed etc. Bajra and Maize are Kharif Crops. Read more on Major Cropping Seasons in India.
Incorrect
Rabi crops are also known as Winter crops. They grow during the winter season which starts in October and March. Types of Rabi crops include wheat, barley, pulses, gram, mustard, cumin, sunflower, Rapeseed etc. Bajra and Maize are Kharif Crops. Read more on Major Cropping Seasons in India.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Category: HistoryWhich of the following is the correct chronological order of the given dynasties? (Level-Difficult)
Correct
- Nanda Dynasty (c. 345-322 BCE)
- Mauryan Empire (c. 321-185 BCE)
- Shunga Empire (c. 185 to 73 BCE)
- Kushana Empire (c. First–Third Centuries AD)
Incorrect
- Nanda Dynasty (c. 345-322 BCE)
- Mauryan Empire (c. 321-185 BCE)
- Shunga Empire (c. 185 to 73 BCE)
- Kushana Empire (c. First–Third Centuries AD)
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Category: PolityThe Supreme Court, struck down Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000, in the case of (Level-Medium)
Correct
Judgement by two-judge bench of the Supreme Court of India in Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, 2015 case struck down Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000, relating to restrictions on online speech, as unconstitutional on grounds of violating the freedom of speech guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India.
Incorrect
Judgement by two-judge bench of the Supreme Court of India in Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, 2015 case struck down Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000, relating to restrictions on online speech, as unconstitutional on grounds of violating the freedom of speech guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWhich one of the following non- metals is not a poor conductor of electricity? (PYQ-CSE-2007) (Level-Difficult)
Correct
Selenium is a chemical element with the symbol Se and atomic number 34. It is a nonmetal (more rarely considered a metalloid) with properties that are intermediate between the elements above and below in the periodic table, sulfur and tellurium, and also has similarities to arsenic. Selenium is not a poor conductor of electricity. It is a semiconductor and is used in photocells.
Incorrect
Selenium is a chemical element with the symbol Se and atomic number 34. It is a nonmetal (more rarely considered a metalloid) with properties that are intermediate between the elements above and below in the periodic table, sulfur and tellurium, and also has similarities to arsenic. Selenium is not a poor conductor of electricity. It is a semiconductor and is used in photocells.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Category: G KWhich of the following is true regarding Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puruskar? (Level – Moderate)
- They are given only to Indian nationals and institutions.
- Odisha State Disaster Management Authority was the only winner for 2023.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, The Union government has instituted an annual award known as “Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar” to recognise and honour the contribution and service rendered by individuals and organisations in India in the field of disaster management.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The Union government has selected the Odisha State Disaster Management Authority (OSDMA) and the Lunglei Fire Station (LFS), Mizoram, for the Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar for 2023.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, The Union government has instituted an annual award known as “Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar” to recognise and honour the contribution and service rendered by individuals and organisations in India in the field of disaster management.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The Union government has selected the Odisha State Disaster Management Authority (OSDMA) and the Lunglei Fire Station (LFS), Mizoram, for the Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar for 2023.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Category: Defence & SecurityWhich of the following is the highest military honour in India? (Level – Easy)
- Param Vir Chakra
- Ashok Chakra
Options:
Correct
- The Param Vir Chakra (PVC) is India’s highest military decoration, awarded for displaying distinguished acts of valour during wartime.
- The Ashoka Chakra is India’s highest peacetime military decoration awarded for valor, courageous action, or self-sacrifice away from the battlefield.
Incorrect
- The Param Vir Chakra (PVC) is India’s highest military decoration, awarded for displaying distinguished acts of valour during wartime.
- The Ashoka Chakra is India’s highest peacetime military decoration awarded for valor, courageous action, or self-sacrifice away from the battlefield.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Category: Defence & SecurityWhich of the following are true regarding Scorpene class submarines? (Level – Difficult)
- They are being built in collaboration with France.
- They are stealth submarines.
- 5 such submarines have been inducted into navy till date
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, Scorpene-class submarines are being built under Project 75 by Mazagon Dock Limited (MDL) with technical assistance from the Naval Group of France.
- Statement 2 is correct, Scorpene-class submarines have superior stealth features, such as low radiated noise levels, advanced acoustic silencing techniques and the ability to attack with precision-guided weapons on board.
- Statement 3 is correct, Five Scorpene-class submarines have been inducted into navy till date:
- The first submarine, INS Kalvari, was commissioned in December 2017
- The second INS Khanderi in September 2019
- The third INS Karanj in March 2021
- The fourth INS Vela in November 2021.
- The fifth INS Vagir was commissioned into service on 23rd January 2023.
- The sixth and the last, INS Vagsheer, will be delivered to the Navy in 2024.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, Scorpene-class submarines are being built under Project 75 by Mazagon Dock Limited (MDL) with technical assistance from the Naval Group of France.
- Statement 2 is correct, Scorpene-class submarines have superior stealth features, such as low radiated noise levels, advanced acoustic silencing techniques and the ability to attack with precision-guided weapons on board.
- Statement 3 is correct, Five Scorpene-class submarines have been inducted into navy till date:
- The first submarine, INS Kalvari, was commissioned in December 2017
- The second INS Khanderi in September 2019
- The third INS Karanj in March 2021
- The fourth INS Vela in November 2021.
- The fifth INS Vagir was commissioned into service on 23rd January 2023.
- The sixth and the last, INS Vagsheer, will be delivered to the Navy in 2024.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWhat do you understand by Immune Imprinting? (Level – Difficult)
Correct
- Immune imprinting is a tendency of the body to repeat its immune response based on the first variant it encountered through infection or vaccination when it comes across a newer or slightly different variant of the same pathogen.
- Immune basically imprinting acts as a database for the immune system, helping it put up a better response to repeat infections.
Incorrect
- Immune imprinting is a tendency of the body to repeat its immune response based on the first variant it encountered through infection or vaccination when it comes across a newer or slightly different variant of the same pathogen.
- Immune basically imprinting acts as a database for the immune system, helping it put up a better response to repeat infections.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWhich one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (Level – Easy) PYQ 2021
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, The doppler effect proves that universe is expanding
- Statement 2 is not correct, The Gravitational power is dependent on the mass of the object. With change in Mass, there is change in Gravity
- Statement 3 is not correct, Although light travels in a straight line, Gravity can bend the light.
- Statement 4 is correct, As the speed of light does not change in vacuum and a light-year is the distance light travels in one Earth year in vacuum. Therefore, the speed of light is a constant that can be used to measure astronomical distances.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, The doppler effect proves that universe is expanding
- Statement 2 is not correct, The Gravitational power is dependent on the mass of the object. With change in Mass, there is change in Gravity
- Statement 3 is not correct, Although light travels in a straight line, Gravity can bend the light.
- Statement 4 is correct, As the speed of light does not change in vacuum and a light-year is the distance light travels in one Earth year in vacuum. Therefore, the speed of light is a constant that can be used to measure astronomical distances.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWhat is AMPHEX? (Level – Moderate)
Correct
- APHEX is a biennial Tri-Services Amphibious Exercise of India.
- AMPHEX is aimed at joint training of elements of all three services in various facets of amphibious operations to enhance interoperability and synergy.
Incorrect
- APHEX is a biennial Tri-Services Amphibious Exercise of India.
- AMPHEX is aimed at joint training of elements of all three services in various facets of amphibious operations to enhance interoperability and synergy.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Category: HealthWhich statements are true regarding Norovirus? (Level – Moderate)
- It spreads through sharing of food.
- It causes gastroenteritis.
- It is more common during winters.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, Norovirus mainly spreads through faecal-oral routes such as:
- Direct contact with an infected person
- Consuming contaminated water or food
- Touching contaminated surfaces and using unwashed hands
- Statement 2 is correct, Norovirus is a human enteric pathogen that causes acute gastroenteritis.
- Statement 3 is correct, Norovirus is also known as “winter vomiting bug” and is common during winters.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, Norovirus mainly spreads through faecal-oral routes such as:
- Direct contact with an infected person
- Consuming contaminated water or food
- Touching contaminated surfaces and using unwashed hands
- Statement 2 is correct, Norovirus is a human enteric pathogen that causes acute gastroenteritis.
- Statement 3 is correct, Norovirus is also known as “winter vomiting bug” and is common during winters.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Category: PolityWhich of these statement(s) is/are correct? (Level – Easy)
- DGCA is an independent agency of the Government of India.
- It enforces the civil air safety standards in the country.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is an attached office of the Ministry of Civil Aviation, Government of India.
- Statement 2 is correct, DGCA is the regulatory body in the field of Civil Aviation mainly dealing with safety issues.
- DGCA is also responsible for regulation of air transport services within India and for enforcement of civil air regulations, air safety and airworthiness standards.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is an attached office of the Ministry of Civil Aviation, Government of India.
- Statement 2 is correct, DGCA is the regulatory body in the field of Civil Aviation mainly dealing with safety issues.
- DGCA is also responsible for regulation of air transport services within India and for enforcement of civil air regulations, air safety and airworthiness standards.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Category: Current AffairsWhich of the statements are true? (Level – Easy)
- 2024 has been declared the “International Year of Millet” by the United Nations.
- India is the largest producer of millet in the world.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, In March 2021, the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) declared 2023 as the International Year of Millets
- Statement 2 is correct, India is the largest producer of millets in the world.
- The major millet producing States in India are Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, In March 2021, the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) declared 2023 as the International Year of Millets
- Statement 2 is correct, India is the largest producer of millets in the world.
- The major millet producing States in India are Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Category: HistoryWith reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct? (Level – Difficult) PYQ 2019
Correct
- Vishti was considered as a source of income for the state, a sort of tax by the people.
- Junagarh inscription mentions Vishti as one form of tax, which indicates that it was extracted from Gujarat and Malwa region.
- Anyone could be sent as a labourer for Vishti, not necessarily the eldest son of the labourer.
- The forced labourers were not entitled to any weekly wages.
- Therefore option a is correct.
Incorrect
- Vishti was considered as a source of income for the state, a sort of tax by the people.
- Junagarh inscription mentions Vishti as one form of tax, which indicates that it was extracted from Gujarat and Malwa region.
- Anyone could be sent as a labourer for Vishti, not necessarily the eldest son of the labourer.
- The forced labourers were not entitled to any weekly wages.
- Therefore option a is correct.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyWhich of these statements are not true? (Level – Moderate)
- The Green Railway Station Certificate is given by the Ministry of Environment and Forest.
- Visakhapatnam Railway Station is the first station in India to receive this certification.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, The Green Railway Station Certificate is given by the Indian Green Building Council (IGBC) for adopting green concepts thereby reducing the adverse environmental impact.
- The Environment Directorate of Indian Railways, along with the support of the IGBC, has developed the Green Railway Station rating system.
- Statement 2 is not correct, Visakhapatnam Railway station is one of the few railway stations to get this prestigious certificate.
- In 2022, Bhagalpur railway station (BGP) of Malda division, Eastern Railway (ER) received Green Railway Station Certification
- In 2021, Central Railways’s Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus Railway Station (CSMT) was awarded IGBC Green Railway Station Certification.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, The Green Railway Station Certificate is given by the Indian Green Building Council (IGBC) for adopting green concepts thereby reducing the adverse environmental impact.
- The Environment Directorate of Indian Railways, along with the support of the IGBC, has developed the Green Railway Station rating system.
- Statement 2 is not correct, Visakhapatnam Railway station is one of the few railway stations to get this prestigious certificate.
- In 2022, Bhagalpur railway station (BGP) of Malda division, Eastern Railway (ER) received Green Railway Station Certification
- In 2021, Central Railways’s Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus Railway Station (CSMT) was awarded IGBC Green Railway Station Certification.
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