17 Feb 2024: UPSC Exam Comprehensive News Analysis

17 February 2024 CNA
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TABLE OF CONTENTS

A. GS 1 Related
B. GS 2 Related
INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
1. Use Chabahar port, India tells Central Asian countries
C. GS 3 Related
INTERNAL SECURITY
1. Myanmar's new law may trigger a mass exodus
ECONOMY
1. ED probe finds no FEMA violations in Paytm case
2. RBI must probe loan-to-value norms: gold loan firms
D. GS 4 Related
E. Editorials
INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
1. A chance to stop the laundry cycle of Pakistan’s elections
GOVERNANCE
1. The clear message in the Court’s ‘no’ to electoral bonds
F. Prelims Facts
1. Torpedoes, refueller aircraft in new deals cleared by DAC
G. Tidbits
H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions
I. UPSC Mains Practice Questions
FIP Magazine

Category: GOVERNANCE

1. The clear message in the Court’s ‘no’ to electoral bonds

Syllabus: GS-2, Government Policies and Interventions for Development in various sectors and Issues arising out of their Design and Implementation.

Mains: SC judgment on Electoral bond scheme

Context:

  • The Supreme Court of India’s landmark judgment on February 15, 2024, struck down the electoral bonds scheme, emphasizing the importance of transparency in democracy.
  • The scheme allowed for anonymous funding of political parties, raising concerns about undue influence and lack of accountability in campaign financing.

Lack of Transparency in Campaign Funding:

  • The electoral bonds scheme lacked transparency, preventing voters from knowing who funded political parties and the amounts involved.
  • Transparency in campaign funding is a fundamental aspect of democracy, emphasized by the Supreme Court’s decision.

Legal Issues and Concerns:

  • The scheme removed funding limits for corporate houses, potentially allowing for undue influence on the government.
  • Electoral bonds enabled companies, including loss-making ones, to donate to political parties, raising concerns about the formation of shell companies for fund channelling.

Impact on Democracy and Governance:

  • The judgment prevents the potential abuse of political power through crony capitalism, where laws and policies are influenced by big money.
  • The amendment to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, allowing scheduled banks to issue electoral bonds, was also struck down by the Court.

Challenges to Democratic Principles:

  • The introduction of electoral bonds raised concerns about the legislative process, highlighting the lack of public consultation and parliamentary debate.
  • The judgment reaffirms fundamental rights enshrined in the Indian Constitution, including the right to information (Article 19) and the right to equality (Article 14).

Essence of the Supreme Court’s Judgment:

  • The electoral bonds scheme has been invalidated, along with related amendments to the Representation of the People Act, Finance Act 2017, and Companies Act 2013.
  • The State Bank of India (SBI) is directed to cease issuing electoral bonds, and details of all bonds issued must be submitted to the Election Commission of India (ECI) for public disclosure.

Conclusion:

  • The Supreme Court’s decision underscores the importance of upholding democratic principles and transparency in governance.
  • The judgment represents a victory for democracy, with constitutional bodies like the ECI and the judiciary acting in the interest of citizens’ rights and democratic integrity.

Also read: Important Supreme Court Judgements

Nut Graf: The Supreme Court’s invalidation of the electoral bonds scheme underscores the necessity for transparency in political financing, reinforcing democratic principles and constitutional rights. This decision marks a pivotal moment in safeguarding electoral integrity and promoting accountability within governance.

F. Prelims Facts

1. Torpedoes, refueller aircraft in new deals cleared by DAC

Context: The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) has approved Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) for several procurement proposals, including long-pending deals for defence equipment worth ₹84,560 crore.

Key Procurement Proposals:

  • AoN granted heavyweight torpedoes (HWT) for the Navy’s Scorpene-class submarines and flight refueller aircraft (FRA) for the Indian Air Force (IAF), among others.

Enhanced Capabilities:

  • Procurement includes medium-range maritime reconnaissance and multi-mission maritime aircraft to strengthen the surveillance and interception capabilities of the Navy and Coast Guard.
  • Active-towed array sonar and HWT acquisition aim to bolster naval ships’ capabilities against adversary submarines.

Addressing Delays and Modernization:

  • Deals for HWTs, FRAs, and towed-array sonars, which faced delays due to corruption allegations, are being restarted to modernize defence capabilities.
  • Amendments in Defence Acquisition Procedure (DAP) 2020 approved for benchmarking, cost computation, and procurement quantity.

Significance:

  • Procurement of new equipment aims to enhance operational capabilities and readiness of the armed forces, addressing gaps in defence preparedness.
  • The adoption of modern technologies and equipment aligns with India’s strategic objectives and national security imperatives.

Conclusion:

  • The DAC’s approval of several procurement proposals signifies the government’s commitment to modernize and strengthen India’s defence capabilities. 
  • Addressing delays and streamlining acquisition processes are crucial steps in ensuring timely procurement of essential equipment for the armed forces, enhancing national security preparedness in line with evolving threats and challenges.

G. Tidbits

Nothing here for today!!!

H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions

Q1. Consider the following statements with regard to Cartosat-2 series:
  1. Cartosat-2 is a series of remote-sensing satellites.
  2. Since 2005, ISRO has launched Cartosat-2 satellites that were primarily used for mapping purposes with image resolution capacities ranging from coarse, medium, and high resolution.
  3. Seventeen years after its launch, Cartosat-2, the first of ISRO’s second generation of high-resolution imaging satellites primarily used in urban planning has been deorbited.

How many of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Any 1
  2. Any 2
  3. All 3
  4. None of the above
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Cartosat-2 is a series of remote-sensing satellites, launched by  PSLV-C40 for earth observation.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Since 2005, ISRO has launched Cartosat-2 satellites that were primarily used for mapping purposes with image resolution capacities ranging from coarse, medium, and high resolution.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The imagery sent by the satellite will be useful for cartographic applications, urban and rural applications, coastal land use and regulation, utility management like road network monitoring, water distribution, creation of land use maps, change detection to bring out geographical and manmade features and various other Land Information System (LIS) as well as Geographical Information System (GIS) applications.
Q2. Consider the following statements with regard to National Youth Parliament 
Festival (NYPF):
  1. NYPF is based on the idea given by the Prime Minister in his Mann Ki Baat Address in 2017.
  2. The 1st edition of NYPF was organised in 2018, with the theme “Be the Voice of New India and Find Solutions and Contribute to Policy ”.
  3. Only government-run educational institutions of the country are eligible to participate in this programme.
  4. To hear the voice of youth in this age bracket of 18-25 who are allowed to vote but cannot contest in elections.

How many of these statements is/are correct?

  1. Any one
  2. Any two
  3. Any three
  4. All four
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The National Youth Parliament Festival is based on the idea given by the Prime Minister in his Mann Ki Baat Address on 31st December 2017.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The 1st edition of NYPF 2019 was organised with the theme “Be the Voice of New India and Find Solutions and Contribute to Policy” with the participation of 88,000 youth in physical mode.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: All recognized educational institutions of the country are eligible to participate in the ‘Portal-Based Youth Parliament Programme’.
  • Statement 4 is correct: Youth in the age bracket of 18-25 years are invited to participate in the District Youth Parliaments. This is done to hear the voice of youth in this age bracket who are allowed to vote but cannot contest in elections.
Q3. Consider the following statements with regard to Swaminathan Commission: 
  1. On November 18, 2004, the Ministry of Agriculture constituted a National Commission on Farmers (NCF) under Prof Swaminathan.
  2. The Swaminathan Commission recommended fixing of MSP based on C2 (actual cost of production) plus 50 per cent, as demanded by the protesting farmers.
  3. Swaminathan Commission also recommended a legal guarantee for MSP.

How many of these statements is/are correct?

  1. Any 1
  2. Any 2
  3. All 3
  4. None of the above
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: a

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The National Commission on Farmers (NCF) was constituted on November 18, 2004, under the chairmanship of Professor M.S. Swaminathan.  The Terms of Reference reflected the priorities listed in the Common Minimum Programme.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Swaminathan Commission did not recommend the fixing of MSP based on C2 (actual cost of production) plus 50 per cent, as demanded by the protesting farmers. In its second report, the NCF made just two recommendations relating to MSP.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Swaminathan Commission did not recommend a legal guarantee for MSP.
Q4. Consider the following statements with regard to National Commission for 
Scheduled Castes: 
  1. Initially, the Constitution provided for the appointment of a Special Officer under Article 338.
  2. The NCSC comprises a Chairperson, a Vice-Chairperson, and three additional Members.
  3. Till 2018, the commission was also required to discharge similar functions with regard to the other backward classes (OBCs).

How many of these statements is/are correct?

  1. Any 1
  2. Any 2
  3. All 3
  4. None of the above
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Originally, Article 338 of the Constitution provided for the appointment of a Special Officer for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) to investigate all matters relating to the constitutional safeguards for the SCs and STs and to report to the President on their working.
  • Statement 2 is correct: NCSC consists of a chairperson, a vice-chairperson and three other members. They are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. Their conditions of service and tenure of office are also determined by the President.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Until 2018, the NCSC was responsible for discharging similar functions for the other backward classes (OBCs) as well. However, the 102nd Amendment Act of 2018 relieved this responsibility from the NCSC and provided constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC).
Q5. Which one of the following countries of South-West Asia does not open 
out to the Mediterranean Sea? [PYQ 2015]
  1. Syria
  2. Jordan
  3. Lebanon
  4. Israel
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

The Mediterranean Sea is bordered by 21 countries. They are Albania, Algeria, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Croatia, Cyprus, Egypt, France, Greece, Israel, Italy, Lebanon, Libya, Malta, Monaco, Montenegro, Morocco, Slovenia, Spain, Syria, Tunisia, and Turkey. Jordan does not border the Mediterranean Sea.

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