CNA 03 Nov 2022:- Download PDF Here
TABLE OF CONTENTS
A. GS 1 Related B. GS 2 Related POLITY 1. Can convicted legislators be disqualified from Assembly? C. GS 3 Related SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY 1. The new hybrid variant of mustard D. GS 4 Related E. Editorials BIODIVERSITY AND ENVIRONMENT 1. The International Day for Biosphere Reserves INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS 1. Russia-Ukraine conflict and the Spiral model F. Prelims Facts G. Tidbits 1. Centre ‘doubles’ fertilizer subsidy as prices see a surge 2. India-U.K. FTA will tighten screws on generic drugs: MSF 3. We want to be India’s defence partner of choice: U.S. official H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions I. UPSC Mains Practice Questions
A. GS 1 Related
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B. GS 2 Related
1. Can convicted legislators be disqualified from Assembly?
Syllabus: Salient features of the Representation of People’s Act
Prelims: About Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951
Mains: Analysis of the provisions for the disqualification of convicted legislators in India and Criminalisation of Indian politics
Context: One of the two Uttar Pradesh legislators who were recently convicted of criminal charges has been disqualified and his seat has been declared vacant by the Legislative Assembly secretariat of the state.
Background
- One of the legislators among the two was sentenced to a three-year jail term for making an inflammatory speech in 2019.
- Since conviction on a criminal charge that results in a prison sentence of two years or more attracts immediate disqualification of the legislator, the Assembly secretariat declared his seat vacant.
- However, one more legislator who was sentenced to two years imprisonment for his role in the Muzaffarnagar riots of 2013 was not disqualified.
Can convicted legislators be disqualified from the Assembly?
- Section 8 of the Representation of the People Act (RP Act), 1951 mentions various provisions which aim to decriminalise electoral politics.
- As per Section 8 of the RP Act, 1951, an individual convicted for any of the mentioned categories of offences shall be disqualified from contesting in elections for a period of 6 years.
- Further, if the punishment is a fine, the six-year period will start from the date of conviction.
- However, if the punishment is a prison sentence, the disqualification will start on the date of conviction and continues till the completion of six years after the date of release from jail.
- Various categories of offences include:
- Promoting enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc. (Section 153A of IPC)
- Influencing elections (Section 171F of IPC)
- Bribery (Section 171E of IPC)
- Offences relating to rape or cruelty towards a woman (sections 376A or 376B or 376C or 376D of IPC)
- Conviction under serious provisions of the below-mentioned special laws also attracts qualifications regardless of the quantum of punishment.
- Protection of Civil Rights Act (the practice of untouchability)
- Customs Act
- Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act
- Foreign Exchange (Regulation) Act
- Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act
- All the other criminal provisions form a separate category under which mere conviction will not entail disqualification but a sentence of imprisonment for not less than two years is required to incur such disqualifications.
Legal protection for legislators against disqualification
- Under the provisions of Section 8(4) of the RP Act, legislators could avoid immediate disqualifications until 2013.
- As per the provision of Section 8(4), convicted Members of Parliament or State legislators could continue in their posts, provided they appealed against their conviction in higher courts within three months of the date of judgment by the trial court.
- i.e the mere filing of an appeal against conviction would act as a stay against the disqualification.
- However, the Supreme Court in the Lily Thomas v/s Union of India case struck down clause (4) as unconstitutional and ultra vires thereby removing the protection extended to lawmakers.
- Further, the Supreme Court has the authority to stay the sentence and also the conviction of a person.
- In a few rare cases, conviction has been stayed to enable the appellant to contest an election.
- However, the SC has clarified that such provisions must be used for very rare and special reasons.
- Additionally, the RP Act itself provides a solution through the Election Commission.
- According to Section 11 of the RP Act, the Election Commission can record reasons and either remove, or reduce the period of, a person’s disqualification.
- For example, the Election Commission exercised this power earlier for Sikkim Chief Minister who had served a one-year sentence for corruption, and reduced his disqualification so as to enable him to contest a byelection and remain in office.
Read more about – Criminalisation of politics
Nut graf: Amidst reports of an increasing rate of criminalisation in Indian politics which poses significant threats to the ideals of democracy and rule of law, it has become crucial that the relevant provisions of the RP Act are implemented stringently and the voters of the country choose their leaders wisely in order to decriminalise the Indian political system.
C. GS 3 Related
Category: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
1. The new hybrid variant of mustard
Syllabus: Awareness in the field of biotechnology
Prelims: About Genetically Modified (GM) mustard and other GM crops
Mains: Significance of hybrid varieties of mustard and the concerns associated with it
Context: The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) which is the country’s apex regulator of genetically modified crops working under the aegis of the Union Environment Ministry has approved the environmental release of a genetically modified (GM) variant of mustard.
Dhara Mustard Hybrid-11 (DMH-11)
- Dhara Mustard Hybrid-11 (DMH-11) is a genetically-engineered variant of mustard.
- It is also regarded as hybrid mustard and has been developed by researchers at the Centre for Genetic Manipulation of Crop Plants at the University of Delhi.
- The number “11” in DMH-11 refers to the number of generations required after which the desirable traits manifest.
- Efforts to develop hybrid mustard in India have been made for decades and DMH-1 was regarded as a breakthrough in this context.
- The DMH-1 hybrid variant was developed without the use of transgenic technology and was approved for commercial release in northwest India in 2005-2006.
- However, researchers said that this technology wasn’t feasible or capable of consistently producing hybrid mustard.
- Mustard is a self-pollinating plant and hence it has been a challenge for plant breeders to cross different mustard varieties to induce desirable traits.
- Genetically modified mustards are produced by switching off their natural self-pollinating trait to enable crossings and restoring the trait later to enable seed production.
- The DMH-11 is produced as a result of a crossing between two varieties of mustard namely the Varuna and Early Heera-2.
- To facilitate such crossing, genes from two soil bacterium called Barnase and Barstar were introduced.
- Barnase in Varuna induces temporary sterility and restricts its natural self-pollination traits and tendencies.
- On the other hand, Barstar limits the effects of Barnase on Heera thereby allowing seeds to be produced.
- Therefore, DMH-11 is said to be a transgenic crop as foreign genes from different species are used in its production.
Significance of hybrid varieties of mustard
- The DMH-11 has a lot of benefits as it not just produces a better yield but is also fertile.
- As per the studies conducted by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), DMH-11 produced 28% higher yields than its parent Varuna and 37% better yield than various local varieties that are considered the best in different agro-climatic zones.
- DMH-11 also highlights the potential of the Barnase-Barstar system and opens up new prospects for using this system as a platform technology to develop newer hybrids.
- As per the experts, better hybrids help meet India’s rising edible-oil import bill.
- Mustard (Brassica juncea) is mainly cultivated as a Rabi crop in states such as Rajasthan, Haryana, Punjab and Madhya Pradesh but India still imports about 55-60% of its domestic edible-oil requirement.
- According to the National Academy of Agricultural Sciences, about 13.3 million tonnes of edible oil were imported which cost around ₹1,17,000 crores in 2020-21 on account of low productivity that has remained stagnant for over two decades.
- Further, India is also importing hybrid varieties of oil seed such as mustard and rapeseed from Canada, China and Europe.
- Mustard (Brassica juncea) is mainly cultivated as a Rabi crop in states such as Rajasthan, Haryana, Punjab and Madhya Pradesh but India still imports about 55-60% of its domestic edible-oil requirement.
Key causes of concern
- The development of transgenic varieties of mustard has often been controversial because of the use of foreign genes from different species.
- Activists have also raised concerns about the model of preparation of mustard hybrids which uses another gene known as the “bar gene” that makes the crop tolerant to a herbicide called glufosinate-ammonium.
- Activists opine that GM mustard is not evaluated as a herbicide-tolerant crop thereby posing potential risks.
- Further, there have also been concerns about the potential of GM mustard plants dissuading bees from pollinating the plant which can cause environmental catastrophes.
Way forward
- The GEAC had earlier approved the environmental release of GM mustard in 2017 too but the process was halted as a case was registered against it in the Supreme Court.
- Additionally, the government led by the Union Environment Ministry has still not supported GM mustard officially despite the approvals from GEAC.
- This was seen even in the case of Bt Brinjal which was the first transgenic food crop that was cleared by the GEAC in 2009 but was stalled by the then government which felt that more tests were required.
- At present, Bt-cotton is the only transgenic crop cultivated in India.
- The GEAC approval allows the cultivation of DMH-11 only under the supervision of the ICAR and the ICAR has held that the GM mustard would be commercially available only after “three seasons” after due evaluation.
Know more about – Genetically Modified (GM) Crops
Nut graf: The GEAC has approved the environmental release of a hybrid variety of mustard named DMH-11 which is endorsed by experts as a key to improving India’s productivity. However, stakeholders must take into account the concerns and the possible environmental hazards before moving for the large-scale introduction of the variety.
D. GS 4 Related
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E. Editorials
Category: BIODIVERSITY AND ENVIRONMENT
1. The International Day for Biosphere Reserves
Syllabus: Biodiversity conservation
Mains: Importance of Biosphere Reserves
Context: The first ‘International Day for Biosphere Reserves’ will be celebrated on November 03, 2022.
Introduction:
- November 03, 2022, will be observed as the first International Day for Biosphere Reserves. It was proclaimed by the UNESCO General Conference in its 41st session in 2021.
- The event will be organised at UNESCO Headquarters in Paris and in collaboration with all the regions of the World Network of Biosphere Reserves.
- This will also mark the end of the two years celebration of the 50th anniversary of the Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme.
- The purpose of the International Day for Biosphere Reserves is to provide an annual wake-up call on the sustainable development approach to modern life and the leading and exemplary role that the World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR) can play in this regard.
Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme:
- The MAB programme is an intergovernmental scientific programme launched in 1971 by UNESCO that aims to establish a scientific basis for enhancing the relationship between people and their environments.
- It combines the natural and social sciences with a view to improving human livelihoods and safeguarding natural and managed ecosystems, thus promoting innovative approaches to economic development that are socially and culturally appropriate and environmentally sustainable.
- The World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR) of the MAB Programme consists of a dynamic and interactive network of sites of excellence which fosters the harmonious integration of people and nature for sustainable development through participatory dialogue; knowledge sharing; poverty reduction and human well-being improvements; respect for cultural values and society’s ability to cope with change – thus contributing to achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
- The World Network of Biosphere Reserves currently counts 738 sites in 134 countries all over the world, including 22 transboundary sites.
- More than 260 million people live in biosphere reserves across the world.
- 12 of the 18 biosphere reserves in India have become part of the World Network of Biosphere Reserves.
- Sri Lanka has 04 and Maldives has 03 biospheres.
- Bangladesh, Bhutan, and Nepal do not have any notified biospheres yet.
Significance of Biosphere Reserves:
- The World Network of Biosphere Reserves promotes North-South and South-South collaboration and represents a unique tool for international cooperation through sharing knowledge, exchanging experiences, building capacity and promoting best practices.
- This gains significance as the ecological carrying capacity of the planet earth has been exceeded.
- Ecosystem and theme-specific networks provide valuable insights into sustainable development models and climate change mitigation and adaptation possibilities.
- In the more than 700 UNESCO biosphere reserves, a different relationship between humans and their environment– a relationship founded on ethics and respect, with a great emphasis on indigenous and local knowledge is being created and put into practice on a daily basis.
Opportunities in South Asia:
- Over 30 biosphere reserves have been established so far in South Asia.
- The first one was the Hurulu Biosphere Reserve, in Sri Lanka, with 25,500 hectares of tropical dry evergreen forest.
- The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was the first biosphere reserve in India established in 1986. It is located in the Western Ghats and includes 2 of the 10 biogeographical provinces of India.
- South Asia offers numerous options for biosphere reserves considering the massive long-term threats to human survivability such as biodiversity loss, climate change, pollution and population dynamics.
- South Asia has a very diverse set of ecosystems, with Bhutan, India, and Nepal combined having thousands of glaciers, surrounded by lakes and alpine ecosystems.
- With a focus on north-eastern states, India also provides unlimited opportunities for biosphere reserves.
Way Forward:
- Strong political will in South Asian countries towards having biosphere reserves is necessary.
- To address the issues of lack of know-how and financial resources, more financial support from the richer nations and the private sector would be desirable.
- The existence of the new World Network of Mountain Biosphere Reserves provides a welcome opportunity for Bhutan and Nepal to establish their first biosphere reserves and participate in the world network.
- At least one biosphere reserve per country in Bangladesh, Bhutan and Nepal until 2025 (with additional biosphere reserves in India’s North-East and along the coasts) will give realisation to millions of people for a better future where we will truly live in harmony with nature.
Nut Graf: November 03, 2022, will be observed as the first International Day for Biosphere Reserves to showcase the contribution of the biosphere reserves to sustainable development. Expanding biosphere reserves across the world, especially in Asia, will help realise the objectives and goals of the MAB Programme and SDGs.
Category: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
1. Russia-Ukraine conflict and the Spiral model
Syllabus: Regional & Global Groupings
Mains: Wider implications of the ongoing Russia-Ukraine war
Context: Recently, Russian President Vladimir Putin hinted that Russia might be forced to use a tactical nuclear weapon against Ukraine.
Introduction:
- Russian President Vladimir Putin has said multiple times in the ongoing Ukraine War that he would use “all means available” to defend Russia.
- In 2014, after the Crimean annexation, Russia changed its military doctrine to open up the possibility of a nuclear first strike in response to a threat from NATO.
- Russia has also recently informed the US that it plans to carry out annual drills of its nuclear stockpile and forces. The US estimates that Russia will carry out nuke weapon tests during its annual ‘Grom’ exercises of the strategic nuclear forces.
- Russia has also accused Ukraine of plotting to use a bomb laced with radioactive material in the Russia-occupied town of Kherson.
- Responding to the Russian tactical nuclear threat, US President Joe Biden said any nuke attack would be a “serious mistake”.
- Experts have viewed the development as a potential threat to the US and its allies as Putin declared the chances of using nuclear weapons.
- Indian Defence Minister Rajnath Singh told his Russian counterpart Sergei Shoigu that the nuclear option should not be resorted to by any side and the crisis should be resolved through dialogue and diplomacy.
Similarities between the Cuban missile crisis and the Ukraine war:
- The similarities begin with the origins of both crises.
- The Cuban missile crisis began when the Soviet Union pledged to protect Cuba with Soviet weapons and sent advanced and medium-range missile systems to be stationed in Cuba. The U.S. found the presence of nuclear missiles on an island 145 km off the coast of Florida as a security threat and a challenge to its hegemony in the western hemisphere.
- The origins of the Ukraine crisis can be traced to NATO’s eastward expansion. The Ukrainian Constitution was amended in 2019, with NATO membership becoming enshrined as the state’s primary geopolitical ambition. Once again, Russia was faced with the very real threat of western weapons and militaries deployed directly across its frontiers.
- NATO also argued that the former Soviet allies and the republics were independent entities that could take sovereign decisions on military alliances.
- Yet, like the US, which did not accept the Soviet argument that the Cuban missiles were for defensive purposes, Russia did not recognise NATO’s similar arguments.
- The Cuban missile crisis was resolved before it actually slid into war, whereas the outcome was different in the case of the Russia-Ukraine conflict.
The spiral model:
- The current phase of the Ukraine war is an example of a spiral model, where parties treat each other with matching hostility, sharply escalating an existing conflict.
- With the Russian strategic nuclear forces on alert and Russia’s invasion of Ukraine continuing, weapons from the West are flooding into Ukraine and the sanctions are threatening to damage the Russian economy, just a single spark may ignite a disastrous nuclear threat.
- There is also a serious risk that the conflict in Ukraine might spill over its borders.
Way Forward:
- The spiral must be broken to keep the conflict from deteriorating, as seen in Russia’s recent attacks on Ukraine’s infrastructure and the Ukrainian drone attack in Sevastopol, Crimea.
- To break the spiral, the parties must look beyond their personalist view of the conflict and understand the structural conditions which their rivals operate from.
- This would allow the leaders to empathise with their rivals, irrespective of their moral positions and take difficult decisions to make peace.
- Meaningful negotiations shall be undertaken to address the security concerns of both countries.
- Perceiving itself as a leader of the developing world, India can also try to negotiate with Russia and Ukraine to resolve the conflict through dialogue and diplomacy.
Nut Graf: Eight months after Russia’s invasion of Ukraine began, the war has entered a spiral model, which makes the crisis even more complex. This demands more urgent calls for enhanced diplomatic efforts to end the conflict. In all previous nuclear crises since 1945, the leaders of great powers have drawn back from the brink. The knowledge that a nuclear war could cause millions of deaths has kept the world from sliding into a nuclear conflict.
F. Prelims Facts
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G. Tidbits
1. Centre ‘doubles’ fertilizer subsidy as prices see a surge
- The Union Government has “doubled” the fertiliser subsidy for the ongoing rabi season due to the huge increase in the prices of fertilisers in the global market.
- The commercial prices of fertilisers have increased by two times on account of the Ukraine-Russia war and the logistics issues caused due to the COVID-19 pandemic.
- The Union Cabinet approved a subsidy of ₹51,875 crores for nitrogen, phosphorus and potash (NPK) and sulphur for phosphatic and potassium fertilisers from the budget estimate of ₹21,000 crores of nutrient-based subsidy.
- The total fertiliser subsidy for the rabi season, including the ₹80,000 crores for urea would now amount to ₹1,38,875 crores and the subsidy for both the rabi and Kharif together would be ₹2.25 lakh crores.
- Further, the government is also undertaking measures to increase the production of urea in India and efforts to absorb the volatility in the international prices of fertilizers and raw materials.
2. India-U.K. FTA will tighten screws on generic drugs: MSF
- According to the Médecins Sans Frontières (Doctors Without Borders or MSF), the proposals on intellectual property (IP) rights in the draft India-U.K. Free Trade Agreement (FTA) will impact the global supply of generic medicines.
- MSF has said that the intellectual property chapter of the India-U.K. FTA contains “harmful IP provisions” which include controversial provisions proposed by the U.K. to “tighten the screws on producing, supplying and exporting affordable generic medicines from India”.
- MSF has also argued saying that the demand for “harmonisation” of Indian patent law with the U.K.’s laws will cause dilution of key provisions in the Indian patent system which are necessary for manufacturing generics.
- Article E.10 of the leaked IP chapter suggests that both parties shall not make patent opposition proceedings available before the grant of a patent.
- However, practically this provision would apply only to India as the U.K. does not have a pre-grant opposition system and this directly goes against the current Indian patent law, which allows patent opposition proceedings both before and after the grant of a patent.
3. We want to be India’s defence partner of choice: U.S. official
- A defence official from the US has said that the US wants to be the partner of choice for India and that the US has been the best partner for India with respect to sharing high-end technology and next-generation equipment as India looks to diversify its military arsenal and end its heavy dependence on Russia.
- While answering a question about the recent submarine-launched ballistic missile (SLBM) test by INS Arihant, the US official said that India has done the tests in a responsible way within its lawful and sovereign capabilities.
- He also said that the US will work closely with India and exchange their views on the continuing stand-off in eastern Ladakh and the situation along the LAC.
- Further, he said that meetings have been conducted to discuss the future steps of the Defence Technology Trade Initiative (DTTI).
H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions
Q1. With respect to National Green Tribunal, which of the following statements is/are correct? (Level – Medium)
- It has the power to take Suo Motu Cognizance of Environmental Issues.
- The Tribunal shall be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
- NGT has not been vested with powers to hear any matter relating to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Options:
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
CHECK ANSWERS:-
Answer: c
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct, NGT has the power to take Suo Motu cognizance of Environmental Issues.
- Statement 2 is not correct, NGT is not bound by the procedure under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 or the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 and is guided by principles of natural justice.
- Statement 3 is correct, NGT has not been vested with powers to hear any matter relating to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, the Indian Forest Act, 1927 and various laws enacted by States relating to forests, tree preservation, etc.
Q2. Which of the following qualifications is/are laid down by the Constitution for the appointment of a person as a Governor? (Level – Easy)
- He should be a citizen of India.
- He should have completed the age of 35 years.
- He should not belong to the state where he is appointed so that he is free from local politics.
Options:
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
CHECK ANSWERS:-
Answer: a
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct, An individual to be eligible for appointment as Governor should be a citizen of India.
- Statement 2 is correct, The individual must have completed the age of 35 years.
- Statement 3 is not correct, The practice of appointing a person from an outside state as the governor is a parliamentary convention and is not mentioned in the Constitution.
Q3. Consider the following statements with respect to Nutrient Based Subsidy Scheme: (Level – Difficult)
- Under the scheme, a fixed amount of subsidy decided on an annual basis is provided on each grade of subsidized Phosphatic and Potassic (P&K) fertilizers, except for Urea, based on the nutrient content present in them.
- The scheme is administered by the Department of Fertilizers under the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both
- None
CHECK ANSWERS:-
Answer: a
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct, Under the scheme, a fixed amount of subsidy decided on an annual basis is provided on each grade of subsidized Phosphatic and Potassic (P&K) fertilizers, except for Urea, based on the nutrient content present in them.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The scheme is administered by the Department of Fertilizers under the Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers.
Q4. The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes is a constitutional body. It was established by which constitutional amendment? (Level – Medium)
- 87th Amendment Act
- 88th Amendment Act
- 89th Amendment Act
- 90th Amendment Act
CHECK ANSWERS:-
Answer: c
Explanation:
- The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes is a constitutional body that was established by the 89th Constitution Amendment Act, 2003.
- The Commission is an authority working for the economic development of Scheduled Tribes in India.
Q5. With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (Level – Difficult) PYQ (2022)
- They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as marketplaces.
- The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
CHECK ANSWERS:-
Answer: b
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is not correct, E-commerce companies must ensure none of their “related parties and associated enterprises” are listed as sellers on their shopping websites, and no related entity should sell goods to an online seller operating on the same platform.
- Statement 2 is correct, The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.
I. UPSC Mains Practice Questions
- Elaborate on some of the initiatives taken by the Union Government to improve the efficiency of fertilizers in India and boost its local production. (250 words; 15 marks) (GS-3; Agriculture)
- What are the possible reasons behind the increasing criminalization of politics in India? (250 words; 15 marks) (GS-2; Governance)
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CNA 03 Nov 2022:- Download PDF Here
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