30 Dec 2022: UPSC Exam Comprehensive News Analysis

CNA 30 Dec 2022:- Download PDF Here

TABLE OF CONTENTS

A. GS 1 Related
B. GS 2 Related
POLITY
1. The Karnataka-Maharashtra border row
C. GS 3 Related
D. GS 4 Related
E. Editorials
SECURITY
1. Voice technology to combat cyber-fraud
INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
1. India-Maldives
2. India’s Position on Taliban
F. Prelims Facts
1. Kalasa-Banduri drinking water project
G. Tidbits
1. Study shows T.N. is worst performing in RTI responsiveness
2. Remote EVM ready to help migrants vote outside States: EC
3. IAF test-fires extended range BrahMos cruise missile
H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions
I. UPSC Mains Practice Questions
FIP Magazine

 

G. Tidbits

1. Study shows T.N. is worst performing in RTI responsiveness

Report Card

Image Source: The Hindu

  • As per a report card on the performance of Information Commissions in India for the year 2021-22 by the Satark Nagrik Sangathan, the State Information Commission of Tamil Nadu is said to be worst performing in responsiveness under the Right to Information (RTI) Act, furnishing only 14% of the information sought.
  • Tamil Nadu was followed by Maharashtra which shared only 23% of the information sought.
  • According to the report, only 10 Information Commissions provided full information in response to the RTI applications filed which include the Information Commissions of Andhra Pradesh, Haryana, Jharkhand, Sikkim, Nagaland and Tripura.
  • The report further points out that a large number of Information Commissions across the country were returning cases without passing orders.Β 
  • It was also seen that several Information Commissions had a very low rate of disposal per commissioner.
  • Out of the 29 Information Commissions i.e. 28 State Information Commissions (SICs) and the Central Information Commission (CIC), only the CIC has adopted a norm on the number of appeals or complaints to be disposed of by each commissioner in one year.

2. Remote EVM ready to help migrants vote outside States: EC

An RVM

Image Source: The Hindu

  • The Election Commission of India (ECI) has announced the development of a prototype of a Multi-constituency Remote Electronic Voting Machine (RVM) which facilitates remote voting by migrant voters.
  • According to ECI, RVMs can handle multiple constituencies i.e. up to 72 multiple constituencies from a single remote polling booth.
  • The EC invited all recognised political parties which include eight national and 57 State parties to a demonstration of the prototype.
  • The existing laws and rules that would require amendments to implement RVMs include the Representation of the Peoples Act of 1950 and 1951, the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961 and the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960.
  • Opposition parties feel that the move could undermine trust in the electoral system.

3. IAF test-fires extended range BrahMos cruise missile

  • The Indian Air Force (IAF) has successfully completed the test fire of the Extended Range (ER) version of BrahMos air-launched supersonic cruise missile from a SU-30MKI fighter aircraft.
  • The test has provided a significant boost to the capabilities of the IAF to carry out precision strikes from SU-30MKI aircraft against land/sea targets over a long range.
  • The extended range capability of the BrahMos missile and the high performance of the SU-30MKI aircraft give the IAF a strategic edge and helps it to dominate future battlefields.
  • Further, the development of BrahMos-NG (Next Generation) will make sure that the current weight of the air-launched missile would come down from 2.65 tonnes to 1.33 which will enable SU-30MKI to carry up to four BrahMos-NG missiles, while the Light Combat Aircrafts (LCA) would be able to carry two missiles
  • BrahMos is a joint venture between the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) of India and Russia’s NPO Mashinostroyeniya.Β 
    • BrahMos missile derives its name from the two major rivers of India and Russia namely Brahmaputra and Moskva.
    • The missile can be launched from land, sea, sub-sea and air against surface- and sea-based targets.

Read more about – BrahMos Missile

H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions

Q1. β€˜Operation Greens scheme’ is being carried out under: (Level - Difficult)
  1. National Green Hydrogen Mission
  2. Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi
  3. Pradhan Mantri Kisan SAMPADA Yojana
  4. National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation:

  • Operation Greens is a Central Sector Scheme announced on the lines of β€œOperation Flood” in the Union Budget of 2018-19.
  • The Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI) has been implementing the Operation Greens scheme under the Pradhan Mantri Kisan SAMPADA Yojana since November 2018.
  • The scheme aims to promote Farmer Producers Organizations (FPOs), processing facilities, agri-logistics, and professional management of agricultural produce.Β 
Q2. Which of the following statements best describes Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Protsahan 
Yojana: (Level - Medium)
  1. It is a scheme to incentivise employers registered with the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) for job creation.
  2. It is a Skill Certification Scheme launched to enable Indian youth to take up industry-relevant skill training that will help them in securing a better livelihood.
  3. It is a scheme launched to provide 100 days of guaranteed wage employment to rural unskilled labour.
  4. It is a scheme launched to create up to 500 time-limited jobs of different skill sets in the private sector amid the COVID-19 pandemic.
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: a

Explanation:

  • The Government of India formulated the Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Protsahan Yojana (PMRPY) Scheme in order to incentivise employers for new employment generation.Β 
  • Under the scheme, the employers would be paid the EPS contribution of 8.33% for every new employment created, by the government.Β 
  • The scheme has been operational since August 2016 and is being implemented by the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
Q3. Consider the following statements with respect to James Webb Telescope: 
(Level - Medium)
  1. It is a joint project of the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA), ESA (European Space Agency), the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) and the Canadian Space Agency.
  2. It is an infrared observatory orbiting in the Low Earth Orbit.
  3. It was formerly known as the β€œNext Generation Space Telescope” (NGST).

How many of the given statements are correct?

  1. One only
  2. Two only
  3. All three
  4. None of the above
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: a

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is not correct, The James Webb Space Telescope is an international collaboration between NASA, the European Space Agency (ESA), and the Canadian Space Agency (CSA).
  • Statement 2 is not correct, The James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) is an infrared space telescope which conducts infrared astronomy and is deployed in a solar orbit near the Sun-Earth L2 Lagrange point.
  • Statement 3 is correct, The James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) was formerly known as the “Next Generation Space Telescope” (NGST) and it was renamed in September 2002 after James Webb who was a former NASA administrator.
Q4. Consider the following statements: (Level - Difficult)
  1. The Dhebar Commission created Primitive Tribal Groups as a separate category, that are less developed among the tribal groups.
  2. Odisha has the highest number of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).
  3. Jarawas and Onges are some of the PVTGs in Odisha.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 only
  4. 1 and 2 only
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: d

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct, In 1973, the Dhebar Commission created Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs) as a separate category, who are less developed among the tribal groups.Β 
    • In 2006, the Government of India renamed the PTGs as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).
  • Statement 2 is correct, Odisha has the highest number of PVTGs in India.Β 
  • Statement 3 is not correct, Great Andamanese, Jarawas, Onges, Sentinelese, and Shorn Pens areΒ  PVTGs in Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Q5. β€œ3D printing” has applications in which of the following? (Level-Difficult)
(PYQ-2018)
  1. Preparation of confectionery items
  2. Manufacture of bionic ears
  3. Automotive industry
  4. Reconstructive surgeries
  5. Data processing technologies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1, 3 and 4 only
  2. 2, 3 and 5 only
  3. 1 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: d

Explanation:

  • 3D printing has applications in:
    • Preparation of confectionery items: 3D printing food has become a reality and 3D printed food is now seen in restaurants and kitchens.
    • Manufacture of bionic ears: Engineers in the US have created a bionic ear that can be manufactured using a 3D printer.
    • Automotive industry: The automotive industry has made significant progress in the adoption of 3D Printing technology.
    • Reconstructive surgeries: 3D Printing in Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery has helped surgeons to visualise how components interact with one another while in motion.
    • Data processing technologies: 3D Printing is revolutionising the various data processing technologies.

I. UPSC Mains Practice Questions

  1. With rising cyber frauds in India, explain how voice biometrics technology can help financial institutions provide higher levels of protection for customers and data. (10 Marks; 150 Words) (GS-3; Internal security)
  2. Should India review its position on the Taliban? Critically comment. (10 Marks; 150 Words) (GS-2; International Relations)

Read the previous CNA here.

CNA 30 Dec 2022:- Download PDF Here

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