22 May 2023: UPSC Exam Comprehensive News Analysis

CNA 22 May 2023:- Download PDF Here

TABLE OF CONTENTS

A. GS 1 Related
B. GS 2 Related
GOVERNANCE
1. What is the ‘Open Network for Digital Commerce’?
C. GS 3 Related
D. GS 4 Related
E. Editorials
INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
1. India as a Quad-led biomanufacturing hub
SOCIAL ISSUES
1. One in seven Indian primary schools run by a lone teacher
F. Prelims Facts
1. Human pangenome map
2. India, U.S. to hike technology cooperation
G. Tidbits
1. Stalemate over sharing of Krishna water to continue
2. G-7 wants to de-risk, not decouple from China: Biden
3. SBI’s u-turn: No slip, ID proof needed to swap ₹2,000 notes
H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions
I. UPSC Mains Practice Questions
FIP Magazine

2. India, U.S. to hike technology cooperation

Syllabus: GS-2; International Relations – Bilateral groupings and agreements involving India

Prelims: About Initiative on Critical and Emerging Technologies (iCET), INDUS-X initiative and India-U.S. Defence Policy Group (DPG)

Context

India and the U.S. discuss the possibilities of co-producing jet engines, long-range artillery and infantry vehicles.

Details

  • Under the Initiative on Critical and Emerging Technologies (iCET), India and the U.S. are discussing possibilities of co-producing jet engines, long-range artillery and infantry.
  • Ahead of the Prime Minister of India’s visit to the U.S., INDUS-X initiative will be launched with an aim to promote partnerships between the two countries’ defence innovation ecosystems.
  • Significant focus has been given to the means to improve defence industrial cooperation which include technology partnership, long-term research and development, and improving supply chain security.
  • Various proposals that are being discussed also include discussions to jointly manufacture a jet engine for India’s future indigenous jets for which General Electric is competing with Safran of France and Rolls-Royce of the U.K.
  • Ahead of the visit, such discussions were held at the 17th meeting of the India-U.S. Defence Policy Group (DPG).
    • The DPG is the apex official-level mechanism between the Ministry of Defence, India and the U.S. Department of Defence.
    • The DPG reviews and guides all aspects of bilateral defence cooperation.

G. Tidbits

1. Stalemate over sharing of Krishna water to continue

  • The stalemate over sharing of Krishna water between Telangana and Andhra Pradesh continues as there is no resolution in sight.
  • During the recent meeting of the Krishna River Management Board (KRMB), Telangana strongly held that it would, under no circumstances, agree to the 34:66 (Telangana : Andhra Pradesh) ratio.
    • Telangana has also said that the judicious sharing of river water was one of the main planks of the Statehood movement.
  • The Special Chief Secretary (Irrigation) of Telangana has held that “Telangana is entitled to 70% share in 811 tmc ft allocated to combined Andhra Pradesh by the Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal (KWDT-I) Award, but the erstwhile A.P. had apportioned it in 512:299 tmc ft (A.P.:Telangana) ratio.
  • There have been claims that Andhra Pradesh is diverting about 300 tmc ft water out of 512 tmc ft to the areas outside the Krishna Basin, which is a gross violation of KWDT-I Award.

For more information on this issue, refer to the following article:

UPSC Exam Comprehensive News Analysis dated 19 Feb 2022

Also read – Inter-State Water Disputes in India

2. G-7 wants to de-risk, not decouple from China: Biden

  • The U.S. President has held that the Group of Seven (G-7) nations have agreed on a united approach to China that looks for diversifying supply chains to reduce dependence on one country.
  • He further said that “We’re not looking to decouple from China but instead we’re looking to de-risk and diversify our relationship with China.
  • G-7 leaders have highlighted a shared approach to “de-risk, not decouple” economic engagement with China. This prompted China’s embassy in Japan to urge the G-7 to stop creating confrontation and division.

3. SBI’s u-turn: No slip, ID proof needed to swap ₹2,000 notes

unnamed 2023 05 22T123514.954

Image Source: The Hindu

  • The State Bank of India (SBI), which is India’s biggest bank, withdrew its decision on the mandatory filing of a slip for the exchange of ₹2,000 banknotes at its branches after a huge public outcry.
  • SBI has announced that the facility of exchange of ₹2,000 denomination bank notes to all members of the public upto limit of ₹20,000 at a time will be allowed without obtaining any requisition slip.
  • Additionally, no identity proof is also required at the time of exchange.
  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on the 19th of May 2023, made an announcement of the withdrawal of ₹2,000 currency notes. 
    • The RBI gave the public time till September 30 to either deposit the ₹2,000 notes in accounts or exchange them at banks but has not issued any instructions to banks to collect identity proofs of tenderers swapping the ₹2,000 bank notes.

To know more  about “The Rs.2000 Note Withdrawal” watch the following video:

H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions

Q1. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (Level – Easy)
  1. Hiroshima was the first city in the world that was hit by a nuclear weapon.
  2. Potsdam Declaration was issued by the United States, Great Britain, and China in 1945, calling for the unconditional surrender of Japan.

Options:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both
  4. None
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct, On August 6, 1945, Hiroshima became the first city in the world to be hit by a nuclear weapon. 
  • Statement 2 is correct, The Potsdam Declaration was an ultimatum issued by the U.S., Great Britain, and China in July 1945, calling for the unconditional surrender of Japan. 
    • This declaration was made at the Potsdam Conference towards the end of the World War II.
Q2. With respect to Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of 
Atrocities) Amendment Act, 2018, which of the following statements is/are correct?
(Level – Difficult)
  1. Preliminary inquiry should be conducted before registration of an FIR.
  2. Persons accused of committing an offence under the 1989 Act will not be eligible for anticipatory bail.

Options:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both
  4. None
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is not correct, The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Amendment Act, 2018, inserted Section 18 A to that original that nullifies the conduct of a preliminary enquiry before registration of an FIR, or to seek approval of any authority prior to arrest of an accused.
  • Statement 2 is correct, Further, an individual accused of atrocities against SC ST people will be excluded from the provision of anticipatory bail.

Q3. The third schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the forms of oath or affirmation for which of the following constitutional offices? (Level – Easy)

  1. President of India
  2. Union Ministers of India
  3. Supreme Court Judges
  4. Comptroller and Auditor General
  5. Governors
  6. State Minister

Options:

  1. 1, 2, 3 and 6 only
  2. 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
  3. 2, 3, 4 and 6 only
  4. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation:

  • The third schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the forms of oath and affirmation for:
    • Union Ministers of India
    • Parliament Election Candidates
    • Members of Parliament (MPs)
    • Supreme Court Judges
    • Comptroller and Auditor General
    • State Ministers
    • State Legislature Elections’ Candidates
    • State Legislature Members
    • High Court Judges
  • The third schedule of the Indian Constitution does not contain oaths and affirmations for the President of India and Governors of States.
Q4. Consider the following statements with respect to Deputy Chief Minister:
(Level – Moderate)
  1. A deputy Chief Minister is not a constitutional post and is equivalent to the rank of a cabinet minister.
  2. The official files that are meant for CM are routed through the deputy CM.
  3. He/she is appointed by the Chief Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: a

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct, The post of a deputy chief minister is not a constitutional post. However, it is equivalent to the rank of a cabinet minister and enjoys the perks that a cabinet minister is entitled to.
  • Statement 2 is not correct, The post of a deputy chief minister does not hold any more significance than that of a Cabinet minister in the state. 
    • The deputy chief minister’s actual importance and functions depends on the portfolio that is allocated.
    • The official files that are meant for CM are not routed through the deputy CM, instead the files pertaining to the portfolios that the deputy CM gets, are routed to the CM, through him.
  • Statement 3 is not correct, According to the Indian Constitution “the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister”.
    • Thus the deputy chief minister is also appointed by the Governor.
Q5. With reference to India, consider the following Central Acts: (Level – Moderate) 
PYQ (2011)
  1. Import and Export (Control) Act, 1947
  2. Mining and Mineral Development (Regulation) Act, 1957
  3. Customs Act, 1962
  4. Indian Forest Act, 1927

Which of the above Acts have relevance to/bearing on the biodiversity conservation in the country?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2, 3 and 4 only
  3. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  4. None of the above Acts
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation:

  • All the Acts mentioned have relevance to/bearing on the biodiversity conservation in the country.

Read the previous CNA here.

CNA 22 May 2023:- Download PDF Here

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